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Board/First Aid > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

0
Q

Super antigen in gram negatives

A

Endo toxin Lipid A

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1
Q

Major super toxin in gram positives in the cell wall

A

Lipoteichoic acid

Induces TNF and IL-1

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2
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

Acid fast organisms

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3
Q

India ink stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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4
Q

H flu stains on chocolate agar with what two other things?

A 
Factor V (NAD+)
Factor X (hematin)
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5
Q

Grows on Thayer Martin agar

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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6
Q

Bordet-Gengou agar

A

Bordatella pertussis

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7
Q

Tellurite agar

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

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8
Q

Lowenstein Jensen agar

A

TB

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9
Q

Buffered Charcoal Yeast agar

A

Legionella

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11
Q

Gram (+) filamentous aerobic bacteria

A

Nocardia sp.

  • acid fast
  • pneumonia
  • lumpy jaw
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11
Q

MOA of Protein A in S. aureus

A

Binds Fc region on Ig to prevent opsonization and phagocytosis

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12
Q

Gram (+) filamentous anaerobic bacteria

A

Actinomyces israelii

  • not acid fast
  • sinus drainage
  • yellow sulfur granules
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13
Q

MOA of the diphtheria toxin

A

Inhibits Elongation Factor (EF) 2

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14
Q

MOA of Exotoxin A of Pesudomonas

A

Inhibits EF2

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15
Q

MOA of the shiga and shiga-like toxin of Shigella and EHEC

A

Inhibits 60S ribosome by cleaving rRNA

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16
Q

MOA of the Cholera toxin

A

Increases cAMP by overactivating adenylate cyclase causes excess Cl- and water secretion. Watery diarrhea

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17
Q

MOA of the Pertussis toxin

A

diables Gi so cAMP levels increase preventing phagocytosis

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18
Q

MOA of tetanus and botulism toxins

A

Both cleave SNARE proteins needed for NT release.
Tetanus prevents GABA and glycine release, so no muscle relaxation occurs
Botulism prevents ACh release so muscles are flaccid

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19
Q

Toxins that cause Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Exotoxin A in Strep p.

TSST-1 in Staph a.

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20
Q

Gray Pseudomembrane

A

C. diptheriae

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21
Q

Symptoms of Diptheria and how is it diagnosed?

A

Gray pseudomembrane pharyngitis

Tellurite Agar

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22
Q

Gram (+) spore forming bacilli that are anaerobes.

A

Clostridia

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23
Q

Mechanism of the toxins of the 4 Clostridia sp.

A

Tetani: SNAP protein toxin that prevents GABA and Glycine release
Botulinum: SNAP toxin that prevents ACh release
Perfringens: lecininase toxin that breaks down lipids
Difficile: ToxinA causes diarrhea, ToxinB causes lysis of colonic cells

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24
Q

Main conditions caused by each Clostridium sp.

A

Tetani: lockjaw (Trismus) tetanic paralysis (descending)
Botulinum: infant botulism (floppy baby), flaccid paralysis
Perfringens: gas gangrene
Difficile: antibiotic induced diarrhea

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25
Q

Poly D-glutamate capsule

A

B. anthracis

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26
Q

Symptoms of anthrax

A

Pulmonary: fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, shock, mediastinal widening
Cutaneous: black eschar

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27
Q

Mechanism of the Anthrax toxin.

A

3 components

  1. Edema Factor: increases cAMP impairs neutrophil function
  2. Protective Antigen: promotes entry into phagocytic cells
  3. Letha Factor: inactivates protein kinases
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28
Q

facultative intracellular from deli meats

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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29
Q

Symptoms of Listeria

A

Neonatal meningitis, IC meningitis, nothing much in competent people

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30
Q

Caseous necrosis in lungs. Ghon complex

A

Pulmonary TB

-caused by CMI of the host

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31
Q

Test for TB and a false positive.

A

Purified Protein Derivative Test (PPD)

BCG vaccine against TB can cause a false positive

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32
Q

Pathogenesis of primary TB.

A
  • bacilli enter upper lobes of lungs
  • infect macrophages
  • in immunocompetent people, infection is walled off as Ghon complex until reactivated
  • in IC patients can be symptomatic causing caseous granulomatous inflammation, cavitations on CXR
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33
Q

Pathogenesis of secondary TB

A
  • bacilli reactivate from some insult

- mainly in lungs causing Caseating cavitation of lung tissue and pulmonary failure

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34
Q

complication of TB infection

A

Spread to vertebrae (Potts Disease)

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35
Q

Describe the two types of Hansen Disease (Leprosy)

A

Lepromatous: leonine facies, saddlenose deformity, immunocompromised people, can be lethal
Tuberculoid: immunocompetent, localized red spot with sensation loss in that area

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36
Q

Gram (-) diplococci that metabolizes maltose and glucose and a complication of this infection.

A

N. meningitides

-Waterhouse Friderichsen (bilateral adrenal hemorrhage)

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37
Q

Gram (-) diplococci that metabolizes only glucose and a complication of this infection

A

N. gonorrhoeae

  • Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome (liver capsule inflammation)
  • PID
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38
Q

Old water towers, air conditioners

A

Legionella pneumophila

  • causes leionnaries disease and Pontiac fever
  • both are severe pneumonia
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39
Q

grape like odor

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • hot tub folliculitis (ecthyma gangrenosum)
  • otitis externa
  • pneumonia
  • UTI
  • oxidase positive non fermenter
  • green pigment
  • burn victims
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40
Q

E. coli that doesn’t ferment sorbitol

A

EHEC

  • HUS
  • shiga-like toxin
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41
Q

Red currant jelly

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

  • aspiration pneumonia
  • nosocomial UTIs
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42
Q

Rose spots on abdomen

A

Salmonella typhi

  • diarrhea, gallbladder sequestration, typhoid fever
  • lactose non-fermenter, able to disseminate
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43
Q

MOA of the shiga toxin

A

Inactivates 60S ribosomal subunit preventing protein synthesis in the intestines. Kills off the cells causing bloody diarrhea

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44
Q

Complication of an organism that grows at 42C

A

Campylobacter j. (chickens, fecal oral)

  • causes Guillain-Barre (ascending symmetrical paralysis)
  • Campy causes molecular mimicry of normal body tissue, so when the body makes Abs to Campy they also react with the gangliosides in neuron cell membranes
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45
Q

Name the 3 major spirochetes

A

Borrelia (lyme), Leptospira (Weil), Treponema (syphilis)

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46
Q

Saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII, Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars

A

Congenital Syhphilis

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47
Q

Patient presents with unilateral facial paralysis. What is the causative agent.

A

Borrelia b.

-2nd stage lyme disease

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48
Q

Patient presents with severe jaundice, anemia, azotemia, hemorrhage. What is the bug?

A

Leptospira

-Weil Disease

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49
Q

Patient comes in with maculopapular rash on palms and soles of feet. Complained of painless genital ulcer earlier. What is it?

A

Stage 2 syphilis

-condylomata lata

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50
Q

What condition results in an Argyll Robertson pupil?

A

Tertiary syphilis

  • compoenent of neurosyphilis
  • pupil accomadates (CN III contracts ciliary muscle to make the lens more convex or wider)
  • but no reaction to light by CNII
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51
Q

Cat scratch

A

Bartonella h.

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52
Q

Ixodes Tick

A

Borrelia b.

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53
Q

Louse

A

Borrelia recurrentis

54
Q

Unpasteurized Diary

A

Brucella spp

55
Q

Puppies, livestock, chickens

A

Campylobacter j.

56
Q

Parrots

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

57
Q

Spores from tick feces and cattle placenta

A

Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)

58
Q

Lone Star Tick

A

Ehrlichiosis chaffeensis

59
Q

Ticks, Rabbits, Deer Fly

A

Francisella tumarensis

60
Q

Animal Urine

A

Leptospira

61
Q

Armadillos

A

M. leprae

62
Q

Animal bite, cats, dogs

A

Pasterella m.

63
Q

Body Louse

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

64
Q

Dermacentor Tick

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

65
Q

Fleas

A

Rickettsia typhus

66
Q

Flea, rodents, prarie dogs

A

Yersinia pestis

67
Q

Patient complains of headache, fever, rash starting on hands and feet, going to the trunk. Test, Bug and disease

A

RMSF

  • Rickettsia rickettsia
  • Weil Felix (+): test looks for Rickettsia Abs
68
Q

Patient presents with a rash headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue. Weil Felix (-). Blood smear shows berry cluster granulocytes.

A

Ehrlichiosis

69
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing and PE reveals consolidation in the lungs. No rash, Weil-Felix (-).

A

Coxiella (Q fever)

-cattle fetuses

70
Q

Patient presents with reactive arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. What are the serotypes and forms of the infectious agent?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

  • serotypes D to K
  • elementary body infects
  • reticulate body replicates
71
Q

Disease caused by Chlamydia psittaci

A

atypical pneumonia (parrot fever)

72
Q

College student presents with non-productive cough, headache. X-ray looks worse than the patient. What test should be run if the most common organism is suspected?

A

Mycoplasma p.

  • walking pneumonia
  • Cold Agglutinin Test
73
Q

Name the two bacteria that are CAMP (+)

A

Strep agalactiae

Listeria m.

74
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing, and diminished breath sounds. Blood smear reveals a macrophage filled with a yeast. What is a risk factor for this infection?

A

Histoplasmosis

-bird or bat droppings

75
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing, and diminished breath sounds. Blood smear shows broad based budding yeast.

A

Blastomycosis

76
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing, and diminished breath sounds and a stiff neck. Hanging out in the desert southwest. What would be seen on blood smear?

A

Coccidioides immitus

  • valley fever
  • forms spherules in tissue (not yeast)
77
Q

Endocarditis in IVDU.

A

Candida albicans

78
Q

Patient presents with pneumonia like infection. Recent history of TB infection. Region of opacity seen on CXR. What would be seen on KOH?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

  • acute angle hyphae (less than 45 degrees)
  • aspergilloma formation
  • IC patients
79
Q

AIDS patient presents with meningitis. Most common source of infectious agent.

A

Cyrptococcus neoformans

-pigeon droppings

80
Q

Patient presents with headache, necrotic eschar on his face. What will KOH reveal?

A

Mucor (or Rhizopus)

-90 degree angle hyphae

81
Q

Patient presents with pneumonia. Diffuse bilateral CXR appearance, dented helmet appearance. What would CBC reveal?

A

Penumocystis jiroveci

-HIV (AIDS) patients with CD4 below 200cell/mL can get this

82
Q

Drunk rose gardener

A

Sporothrix

83
Q

Trophozoites or cysts in the stool. Beavers.

A

Giardia lamblia

  • Malabsorption Syndrome
  • foul smelling diarrhea
  • Trophozoite is replicating form of protozoan
84
Q

Trophozoites or cysts in the stool. Bloody diarrhea with RUQ pain.

A

Entamoeba histolytica

-can be sequestered in the liver to cause the RUQ pain

85
Q

Acid Fast Oocysts. AIDS watery diarrhea.

A

Cryptosporidium

86
Q

Patient presents with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications. Ring enhancing lesions.

A

Toxoplasma gondii

87
Q

Patient presents with recurring fever, somnolence, coma. Blood smear reveals protozoan. What is the vector?

A

Trypanosma brucei

  • Tsetse fly
  • African Sleeping Sickness
88
Q

Patient presents with fevers “off and on” and starts having seizures. Eventually he falls into a coma. Recent central American travel. What is the vector and what is seen on blood smear?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

  • ring form in RBC
  • wedge or boomerang gametocyte
  • Anopheles mosquito bite
89
Q

Treatment for P. falciparum

A

Chloroquine (blocks plasmodium heme polymerase)

90
Q

Patient presents with fever that is “off and on” and starts having seizures. He reports that this has happened before. Treatment with chloroquine was used last time. What should be done to treat this case?

A

Plasmodium vivax

  • causes recurrent malarial infection
  • hyponozoite form sequestered in liver
  • use PRIMAQUINE to kill the liver form
91
Q

Buzz word for an infection that is a very common co-infection with lyme disease.

A

Maltese Cross

-Babesia microti (Ixodes tick vector)

92
Q

Patient presents with difficulty swallowing and constipation. What bit him?

A

Trypanosomi cruzi

  • Chagas disease
  • Reduviid Bug
93
Q

Patient presents with spiking fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia. What bit him?

A

Leishmania donovani

  • Sand fly
  • visceral leishmaniasis
94
Q

Intestinal infection, anal pruritis

A

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

95
Q

Horse fly bite, swelling skin, worm in conjunctiva.

A

Loa loa

96
Q

Elephantiasis

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

97
Q

Neurocyticercosis

A

Taenia solium

-pork tapeworm

98
Q

B12 deficiency, raw freshwater fish

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

-fish tapeworm

99
Q

Cysts in liver and lung, dog feces

A

Echinococcus granulosus

-Hydatid cyst disease

100
Q

Smails, granulomas, fibrosis of spleen and liver

A

Schistosomes

101
Q

Chronic infection associated with bladder cancer.

A

Schistosoma haematobium

102
Q

Rust colored sputum, crab meat

A

Paragonimus westermani

103
Q

List the 5 live vaccines

A 
Smallpox
Yellow Fever
VZV
Polio (Sabins)
MMR
104
Q

AIDS retinitis

A

CMV

105
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

A

EBV

-CD21 receptors

106
Q

Pink Eye

A

Adenovirus

107
Q

Slapped Cheek

A

B19

108
Q

Cervical cancer

A

HPV 16, 18

109
Q

Umbilicated Lesions

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

-poxvirus

110
Q

Roseola

A

HHV6

111
Q

Owl’s Eye inclusions

A

CMV

112
Q

Tzanck Smear (+)

A

Herpes viruses

113
Q

High fever, black vomit

A

Yellow Fever virus

114
Q

Most common cause of infantile death due to diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

115
Q

Reason for Orthomyxovirus infection each year

A

Influenza Virus
-genetic drift
(shift is a bigger deal, like H1N1)

116
Q

Seal bark cough.

A

Parainfluenza causing croup

117
Q

Koplick Spots: name the rash pattern and complicaiton

A

Measles

  • forehead downward rash
  • Subactue Sclerosing Panencephalitis
118
Q

Big compilcation of mumps

A

Orchitis

119
Q

Negri bodies

A

Rabies

120
Q

Fecal Oral Hepatitis viruses

A

A, E

121
Q

Acute Hepatitis viruses

A

A, sometimes B

122
Q

Chronic hepatitis viruses

A

C, sometimes B

123
Q

Risk of Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

C

124
Q

Only DNA hepatitis virus

A

B

125
Q

Protein HIV uses to attack to CD4 of T cells

A

gp120

126
Q

Protein HIV uses to enter host cells

A

gp41 (fusion and entry)

127
Q

Gene needed for HIV virulence

A

nef

128
Q

Co-receptors on T cells needed for HIV to bind and be infectious.

A

CXCR4
CCR5
(people with mutations in these proteins seem to be immune to HIV)

129
Q

CD4 count for HIV thrush

A

less than 400

130
Q

Cryptosproidium infection (watery diarrhea)

A

less than 200

131
Q

Meningitis AIDS

A

Cryptococcus n.

less than 50

132
Q

Pneumonia in AIDS

A

Pneumocystis j.

-less than 200

133
Q

MAC in AIDS

A

Mycobacterium aviumcomplex

-less than 50

Board/First Aid (6 decks)

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