Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Board/First Aid > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

0
Q

Super antigen in gram negatives

A

Endo toxin Lipid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Major super toxin in gram positives in the cell wall

A

Lipoteichoic acid

Induces TNF and IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

Acid fast organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

India ink stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

H flu stains on chocolate agar with what two other things?

A 
Factor V (NAD+)
Factor X (hematin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Grows on Thayer Martin agar

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bordet-Gengou agar

A

Bordatella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tellurite agar

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lowenstein Jensen agar

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Buffered Charcoal Yeast agar

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gram (+) filamentous aerobic bacteria

A

Nocardia sp.

  • acid fast
  • pneumonia
  • lumpy jaw
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of Protein A in S. aureus

A

Binds Fc region on Ig to prevent opsonization and phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gram (+) filamentous anaerobic bacteria

A

Actinomyces israelii

  • not acid fast
  • sinus drainage
  • yellow sulfur granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MOA of the diphtheria toxin

A

Inhibits Elongation Factor (EF) 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA of Exotoxin A of Pesudomonas

A

Inhibits EF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA of the shiga and shiga-like toxin of Shigella and EHEC

A

Inhibits 60S ribosome by cleaving rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MOA of the Cholera toxin

A

Increases cAMP by overactivating adenylate cyclase causes excess Cl- and water secretion. Watery diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MOA of the Pertussis toxin

A

diables Gi so cAMP levels increase preventing phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MOA of tetanus and botulism toxins

A

Both cleave SNARE proteins needed for NT release.
Tetanus prevents GABA and glycine release, so no muscle relaxation occurs
Botulism prevents ACh release so muscles are flaccid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Toxins that cause Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

Exotoxin A in Strep p.

TSST-1 in Staph a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gray Pseudomembrane

A

C. diptheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of Diptheria and how is it diagnosed?

A

Gray pseudomembrane pharyngitis

Tellurite Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gram (+) spore forming bacilli that are anaerobes.

A

Clostridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mechanism of the toxins of the 4 Clostridia sp.

A

Tetani: SNAP protein toxin that prevents GABA and Glycine release
Botulinum: SNAP toxin that prevents ACh release
Perfringens: lecininase toxin that breaks down lipids
Difficile: ToxinA causes diarrhea, ToxinB causes lysis of colonic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Main conditions caused by each Clostridium sp.

A

Tetani: lockjaw (Trismus) tetanic paralysis (descending)
Botulinum: infant botulism (floppy baby), flaccid paralysis
Perfringens: gas gangrene
Difficile: antibiotic induced diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Poly D-glutamate capsule

A

B. anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Symptoms of anthrax

A

Pulmonary: fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, shock, mediastinal widening
Cutaneous: black eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mechanism of the Anthrax toxin.

A

3 components

  1. Edema Factor: increases cAMP impairs neutrophil function
  2. Protective Antigen: promotes entry into phagocytic cells
  3. Letha Factor: inactivates protein kinases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

facultative intracellular from deli meats

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Symptoms of Listeria

A

Neonatal meningitis, IC meningitis, nothing much in competent people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Caseous necrosis in lungs. Ghon complex

A

Pulmonary TB

-caused by CMI of the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Test for TB and a false positive.

A

Purified Protein Derivative Test (PPD)

BCG vaccine against TB can cause a false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pathogenesis of primary TB.

A
  • bacilli enter upper lobes of lungs
  • infect macrophages
  • in immunocompetent people, infection is walled off as Ghon complex until reactivated
  • in IC patients can be symptomatic causing caseous granulomatous inflammation, cavitations on CXR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pathogenesis of secondary TB

A
  • bacilli reactivate from some insult

- mainly in lungs causing Caseating cavitation of lung tissue and pulmonary failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

complication of TB infection

A

Spread to vertebrae (Potts Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the two types of Hansen Disease (Leprosy)

A

Lepromatous: leonine facies, saddlenose deformity, immunocompromised people, can be lethal
Tuberculoid: immunocompetent, localized red spot with sensation loss in that area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Gram (-) diplococci that metabolizes maltose and glucose and a complication of this infection.

A

N. meningitides

-Waterhouse Friderichsen (bilateral adrenal hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Gram (-) diplococci that metabolizes only glucose and a complication of this infection

A

N. gonorrhoeae

  • Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome (liver capsule inflammation)
  • PID
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Old water towers, air conditioners

A

Legionella pneumophila

  • causes leionnaries disease and Pontiac fever
  • both are severe pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

grape like odor

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • hot tub folliculitis (ecthyma gangrenosum)
  • otitis externa
  • pneumonia
  • UTI
  • oxidase positive non fermenter
  • green pigment
  • burn victims
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

E. coli that doesn’t ferment sorbitol

A

EHEC

  • HUS
  • shiga-like toxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Red currant jelly

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

  • aspiration pneumonia
  • nosocomial UTIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rose spots on abdomen

A

Salmonella typhi

  • diarrhea, gallbladder sequestration, typhoid fever
  • lactose non-fermenter, able to disseminate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MOA of the shiga toxin

A

Inactivates 60S ribosomal subunit preventing protein synthesis in the intestines. Kills off the cells causing bloody diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Complication of an organism that grows at 42C

A

Campylobacter j. (chickens, fecal oral)

  • causes Guillain-Barre (ascending symmetrical paralysis)
  • Campy causes molecular mimicry of normal body tissue, so when the body makes Abs to Campy they also react with the gangliosides in neuron cell membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Name the 3 major spirochetes

A

Borrelia (lyme), Leptospira (Weil), Treponema (syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII, Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars

A

Congenital Syhphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Patient presents with unilateral facial paralysis. What is the causative agent.

A

Borrelia b.

-2nd stage lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Patient presents with severe jaundice, anemia, azotemia, hemorrhage. What is the bug?

A

Leptospira

-Weil Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Patient comes in with maculopapular rash on palms and soles of feet. Complained of painless genital ulcer earlier. What is it?

A

Stage 2 syphilis

-condylomata lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What condition results in an Argyll Robertson pupil?

A

Tertiary syphilis

  • compoenent of neurosyphilis
  • pupil accomadates (CN III contracts ciliary muscle to make the lens more convex or wider)
  • but no reaction to light by CNII
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cat scratch

A

Bartonella h.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ixodes Tick

A

Borrelia b.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Louse

A

Borrelia recurrentis

54
Q

Unpasteurized Diary

A

Brucella spp

55
Q

Puppies, livestock, chickens

A

Campylobacter j.

56
Q

Parrots

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

57
Q

Spores from tick feces and cattle placenta

A

Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)

58
Q

Lone Star Tick

A

Ehrlichiosis chaffeensis

59
Q

Ticks, Rabbits, Deer Fly

A

Francisella tumarensis

60
Q

Animal Urine

A

Leptospira

61
Q

Armadillos

62
Q

Animal bite, cats, dogs

A

Pasterella m.

63
Q

Body Louse

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

64
Q

Dermacentor Tick

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

65
Q

Fleas

A

Rickettsia typhus

66
Q

Flea, rodents, prarie dogs

A

Yersinia pestis

67
Q

Patient complains of headache, fever, rash starting on hands and feet, going to the trunk. Test, Bug and disease

A

RMSF

  • Rickettsia rickettsia
  • Weil Felix (+): test looks for Rickettsia Abs
68
Q

Patient presents with a rash headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue. Weil Felix (-). Blood smear shows berry cluster granulocytes.

A

Ehrlichiosis

69
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing and PE reveals consolidation in the lungs. No rash, Weil-Felix (-).

A

Coxiella (Q fever)

-cattle fetuses

70
Q

Patient presents with reactive arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. What are the serotypes and forms of the infectious agent?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

  • serotypes D to K
  • elementary body infects
  • reticulate body replicates
71
Q

Disease caused by Chlamydia psittaci

A

atypical pneumonia (parrot fever)

72
Q

College student presents with non-productive cough, headache. X-ray looks worse than the patient. What test should be run if the most common organism is suspected?

A

Mycoplasma p.

  • walking pneumonia
  • Cold Agglutinin Test
73
Q

Name the two bacteria that are CAMP (+)

A

Strep agalactiae

Listeria m.

74
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing, and diminished breath sounds. Blood smear reveals a macrophage filled with a yeast. What is a risk factor for this infection?

A

Histoplasmosis

-bird or bat droppings

75
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing, and diminished breath sounds. Blood smear shows broad based budding yeast.

A

Blastomycosis

76
Q

Patient presents with SOB, coughing, and diminished breath sounds and a stiff neck. Hanging out in the desert southwest. What would be seen on blood smear?

A

Coccidioides immitus

  • valley fever
  • forms spherules in tissue (not yeast)
77
Q

Endocarditis in IVDU.

A

Candida albicans

78
Q

Patient presents with pneumonia like infection. Recent history of TB infection. Region of opacity seen on CXR. What would be seen on KOH?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

  • acute angle hyphae (less than 45 degrees)
  • aspergilloma formation
  • IC patients
79
Q

AIDS patient presents with meningitis. Most common source of infectious agent.

A

Cyrptococcus neoformans

-pigeon droppings

80
Q

Patient presents with headache, necrotic eschar on his face. What will KOH reveal?

A

Mucor (or Rhizopus)

-90 degree angle hyphae

81
Q

Patient presents with pneumonia. Diffuse bilateral CXR appearance, dented helmet appearance. What would CBC reveal?

A

Penumocystis jiroveci

-HIV (AIDS) patients with CD4 below 200cell/mL can get this

82
Q

Drunk rose gardener

A

Sporothrix

83
Q

Trophozoites or cysts in the stool. Beavers.

A

Giardia lamblia

  • Malabsorption Syndrome
  • foul smelling diarrhea
  • Trophozoite is replicating form of protozoan
84
Q

Trophozoites or cysts in the stool. Bloody diarrhea with RUQ pain.

A

Entamoeba histolytica

-can be sequestered in the liver to cause the RUQ pain

85
Q

Acid Fast Oocysts. AIDS watery diarrhea.

A

Cryptosporidium

86
Q

Patient presents with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications. Ring enhancing lesions.

A

Toxoplasma gondii

87
Q

Patient presents with recurring fever, somnolence, coma. Blood smear reveals protozoan. What is the vector?

A

Trypanosma brucei

  • Tsetse fly
  • African Sleeping Sickness
88
Q

Patient presents with fevers “off and on” and starts having seizures. Eventually he falls into a coma. Recent central American travel. What is the vector and what is seen on blood smear?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

  • ring form in RBC
  • wedge or boomerang gametocyte
  • Anopheles mosquito bite
89
Q

Treatment for P. falciparum

A

Chloroquine (blocks plasmodium heme polymerase)

90
Q

Patient presents with fever that is “off and on” and starts having seizures. He reports that this has happened before. Treatment with chloroquine was used last time. What should be done to treat this case?

A

Plasmodium vivax

  • causes recurrent malarial infection
  • hyponozoite form sequestered in liver
  • use PRIMAQUINE to kill the liver form
91
Q

Buzz word for an infection that is a very common co-infection with lyme disease.

A

Maltese Cross

-Babesia microti (Ixodes tick vector)

92
Q

Patient presents with difficulty swallowing and constipation. What bit him?

A

Trypanosomi cruzi

  • Chagas disease
  • Reduviid Bug
93
Q

Patient presents with spiking fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia. What bit him?

A

Leishmania donovani

  • Sand fly
  • visceral leishmaniasis
94
Q

Intestinal infection, anal pruritis

A

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

95
Q

Horse fly bite, swelling skin, worm in conjunctiva.

96
Q

Elephantiasis

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

97
Q

Neurocyticercosis

A

Taenia solium

-pork tapeworm

98
Q

B12 deficiency, raw freshwater fish

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

-fish tapeworm

99
Q

Cysts in liver and lung, dog feces

A

Echinococcus granulosus

-Hydatid cyst disease

100
Q

Smails, granulomas, fibrosis of spleen and liver

A

Schistosomes

101
Q

Chronic infection associated with bladder cancer.

A

Schistosoma haematobium

102
Q

Rust colored sputum, crab meat

A

Paragonimus westermani

103
Q

List the 5 live vaccines

A 
Smallpox
Yellow Fever
VZV
Polio (Sabins)
MMR
104
Q

AIDS retinitis

105
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

A

EBV

-CD21 receptors

106
Q

Pink Eye

A

Adenovirus

107
Q

Slapped Cheek

108
Q

Cervical cancer

A

HPV 16, 18

109
Q

Umbilicated Lesions

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

-poxvirus

110
Q

Roseola

111
Q

Owl’s Eye inclusions

112
Q

Tzanck Smear (+)

A

Herpes viruses

113
Q

High fever, black vomit

A

Yellow Fever virus

114
Q

Most common cause of infantile death due to diarrhea

115
Q

Reason for Orthomyxovirus infection each year

A

Influenza Virus
-genetic drift
(shift is a bigger deal, like H1N1)

116
Q

Seal bark cough.

A

Parainfluenza causing croup

117
Q

Koplick Spots: name the rash pattern and complicaiton

A

Measles

  • forehead downward rash
  • Subactue Sclerosing Panencephalitis
118
Q

Big compilcation of mumps

119
Q

Negri bodies

120
Q

Fecal Oral Hepatitis viruses

121
Q

Acute Hepatitis viruses

A

A, sometimes B

122
Q

Chronic hepatitis viruses

A

C, sometimes B

123
Q

Risk of Hepatocellular carcinoma

124
Q

Only DNA hepatitis virus

125
Q

Protein HIV uses to attack to CD4 of T cells

126
Q

Protein HIV uses to enter host cells

A

gp41 (fusion and entry)

127
Q

Gene needed for HIV virulence

128
Q

Co-receptors on T cells needed for HIV to bind and be infectious.

A

CXCR4
CCR5
(people with mutations in these proteins seem to be immune to HIV)

129
Q

CD4 count for HIV thrush

A

less than 400

130
Q

Cryptosproidium infection (watery diarrhea)

A

less than 200

131
Q

Meningitis AIDS

A

Cryptococcus n.

less than 50

132
Q

Pneumonia in AIDS

A

Pneumocystis j.

-less than 200

133
Q

MAC in AIDS

A

Mycobacterium aviumcomplex

-less than 50

Board/First Aid (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions