Michigan Building license Review Questions Flashcards by Steve Hemgesberg

What is the first offense penalty for engaging in residential building without a license?

A fine of not less than $5,000.00 or more than $25,000.00, or imprisonment for not more than 1 year, or both.

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What is the penalty for engaging in residential building without a license, resulting in a death?

A fine of not less than $5,000.00 or more than $25,000.00 or imprisonment for not more than 4 years, or both

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On your individual builder’s license application, what should you write as your “business address”?

Your personal address

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What is the cost of the individual builder’s license?

195

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After receiving your residential builder’s license, what are the only trades not covered by your license?

Plumbing, electrical, and HVAC

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Name of department that regulates your license

LARA (licensing and regulation authority)

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Addenda contract

Addition to scope of work in contract

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Who is the TESTING company for the State of Michigan?

PSI

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What is the name of the department that regulates your license?

LARA

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What is a good current ratio?

2:1

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good quick assets ratio

1:1

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What are the 2 parts of the Residential Builder Examination?

Business and Law examination & Practice and Trade examination

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How long will you have to complete the Practice and Trade portion of the exam?

180 minutes

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What is a quick asset ratio?

1 to 1

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Under the Carpentry section of the test, what does a “span table” tell us?

What species and what grade of lumber a floor joist has to be to span a certain distance.

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Which is NOT a reason that you need a residential business license?

It allows you to work on commercial properties

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Where does most fraud occur?

n the residential market

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As a builder, your license falls under the regulation of _____.

both rules by the director and board, as well as laws of the state of Michigan

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What is the makeup of the 9 members of the board?

There are 6 individuals with a license or registration in the occupation that the board monitors and 3 members of the general public.

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Under the definition of occupational code, what does the word “limitation” refer to?

A condition, stricture, restraint, or probation attached to a license relative to the scope of practice

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Sec. 309 if there is a penalty who determines the hearing

A board, p u on completion of a hearing conducted pursuant g p
to section 511,

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Sec. 308. (1) A board shall promulgate rules as required in the article
in which it is created as are necessary and appropriate to fulfill its ROLE.

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Sec. 310. A board shall aid the department in interpreting a licensure
or registration requirement set forth in this act which is incomplete or
subjective in nature to determine whether the person seeking a license
or a certificate of registration or a renewal has met the requirements for
the issuance or renewal.

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ec. 316. ( ) 1 Unless otherwise provided in an article, a BOARD AND DEPARTMENT shall develop an examination or p test req y uired by an
article. The board and the department in develop g in an examination or
test may p ado t an examination or test pp y re ared by another agency if the g y
board and the department determine that the examination or test serves
as a basis for determining whether a person has

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ec. 411. (1) Subject to subsection (2), a person who fails to renew a license or registration on or before the expiration date shall not practice the occupation, operate, or use the title after the expiration date printed on the license or registration. A license or registration shall lapse on the day after the expiration date

The license expires May 31st every 3 years.

A person who fails to renew a license or registration on or before the expiration date shall be permitted to renew the license or registration by payment of the required license or registration fee and a late renewal fee within 60 days after the expiration date

60 days, $20 late fee

Except as otherwise provided in this act, a person who fails to renew a license or registration within the time period set forth in subsection (2) may be relicensed or reregistered without examination and without meeting additional education or training requirements in p; p pp Sec. 411. () j 1 Sub ect to subsection ( ), p 2 aerson who fails to renew a license or registration on or before the expiration date shall not practice p the occupation, operate, or p p use the title after the exp p iration date printed on the license or registration. A license or registration shall lapse on the day after the expiration date. () p 2 Aerson who fails to renew a license or registration on or before the exp p iration date shall be permitted to renew the license or registration g byp ya ment of the required license or registration fee an g d a late renewal fee within 60 days afte y r the expiration date. () p 3 Except as otherwise provided in this act, a person who fails to , p renew a license or registration within the time period set forth in subsection (2) may be relicensed or () y reregistered without examination g and without meeting additional education or training requirements in OCCUPATIONAL CODE, (ARTICLES 1-6, 24) P.A. 299 OF 1980 -19- force at the time of application for relicensure or reregistration if all of the following conditions are m

The person applies WITHIN 3 years after the expiration date of the last license or registration

Within 3 years

The person pays an application processing fee, the late renewal fee, and the per year license or registration fee for the upcoming licensure or registration period, subject to subsection

Except as otherwise provided in this act, a person may be relicensed or reregistered subsequent to 3 or more years after the expiration date of the last license or registration upon showing that the person meets the requirements for licensure or registration as established by the department in rules or procedures which may require a person to pass all or part of a required examination, to complete continuing education requirements, or to meet current education or training requirements

If you go past 3 year period, the determines which requirements you would have to do.

Sec. 501. A complaint which alleges that a person has violated this act or a rule promulgated or an order issued under this act shall be lodged with the department. The department of attorney general, the department, a board, or any other person may file a complaint

You cna file complaitn against somone else

“Complainant

means a person who has filed a complaint with the department alleging that a person has violated this act or a rule promulgated or an order issued under this act. If a complaint is made by the department, the director shall designate 1 or more employees of the department to act as the complainan

“Respondent

means a person against whom a complaint has been filed who may be a person who is or is required to be licensed or registered under this act

Sec. 502. The department, upon receipt of a complaint, immediately shall begin its investigation of the allegations of the complaint and shall open a correspondence file. The department shall make a written acknowledgment of the complaint within 15DAYS after receipt of the complaint to the person making the complaint. If the complaint is made by the department, the director shall designate 1 or more employees of the department to act as the person making the complaint

15 days, department will respond back within 15 days, when you notify you also get 15 days

Sec. 503. The department shall conduct the investigation required under section 502. In furtherance of that investigation, the department gg g p Sec. 501. A comp g laint which alleges that a person has violated this p act or a rule p g romul ated or an order issued under this act shall be lodg p ed with the department. The department of attorney general, the y g department, a board, or any other person may file a complaint. Sec. 501a. As used in this article: () p a “Complainant” means a person who has filed a complaint with the p dep gg artment alleging that a person has violated this act or a rule p g romul ated or an order issued under this act. If a complaint is made by p the dep , artment, the director shall designate 1 or more employees of the g department to act as the complainant. () p b “Respondent” means a p g erson against whom a complaint has been filed who may be a per y son who is or is required to be licensed or registered under this act. p ; p yp Sec. 502. The department, up p on receipt of a complaint, immediately p shall beg g in its investigation of the allegations of the complaint and shall op p en a correspondence file. The department shall make a written acknowledg p ment of the complaint within 15 days after receipt of the compp g laint to the person making the complaint. If the complaint is made by of p p the department, the director shall designate 1 or more employees the department to act as the person making the complaint. y p g g ;p p Sec. 503. The department shall conduct the investigation required g q under section 502. In furtherance of that investigation, the department OCCUPATIONAL CODE, (ARTICLES 1-6, 24) P.A. 299 OF 1980 -23- may request that the attorney general petition the circuit court to issue a subpoena requiring a person to appear before the department and be examined with reference to a matter within the scope of the investigation and to produce books, papers, or documents pertaining to the investigation

Sec. 504. (1) The investigative UNIT OF THE DERPSRTNEMTN WITHIN 30 Days after the department receives the complaint, shall report to the director on the status of the investigation. If, for good cause shown, an investigation cannot be completed within 30 days, the director may extend the time in which a report may be filed

wihtin 30 days. The investigative UNIT OF THE DERPSRTNEMTN WITHIN

If the report of the investigative unit made pursuant to subsection (1) discloses evidence of a violation of this act or a rule promulgated or an order issued under this act, the department or the department of attorney general shall prepare the appropriate action against the respondent which may be any of the following

A formal complaint. (b) A cease and desist order. (c) A notice of summary suspension. (d) A citation.

At any time during its investigation or after the issuance of a formal complaint, the department may bring together the complainant and the respondent for an INFORMAL CONFERENCE. At the informal conference, the department shall attempt to resolve issues raised in the complaint and may attempt to aid the parties in reaching a formal settlement or stipulation

INFORMAL CONFERENCE, when you go there this is when you try to resolve the complaint

Sec. 506. (1) After an investigation has been conducted, the director may order a person to cease and desist from a violation of this act or a rule promulgated or an order issued under this act

A person ordered to cease and desist shall be entitled to a hearing before the department if a written request for a hearing is filed within 30 days after the effective date of the order

anytime an order comes down you have 30 days to appeal

Upon a violation of a cease and desist order issued under this act, the department of the attorney general may apply in the circuit court of this state to restrain and enjoin, temporarily or permanently, or both, a person from further violating a cease and desist order

if you continue working after a judge order you will go to jail,

Sec. 508. (1) After an investigation has been conducted and a formal complaint prepared, the department shall serve the formal complaint upon the respondent and the complainant. At the same time, the department shall serve the respondent with a notice describing the compliance conference and hearing processes and offering the respondent a choice of 1 of the following opportunities

When investigation in private its a complaints conference, also called an investigative conference.

(A) An opportunity to meet with the department to negotiate a settlement of the matter.b) If the respondent is a licensee or registrant under this act, an opportunity to demonstrate compliance prior to holding a contested case hearing, as required by section 92 of the administrative procedures act of 1969, Act No. 306 of the Public Acts of 1969, being section 24.292 of the Michigan Compiled Laws. (c) An opportunity to proceed to a contested case hearing as set forth in section 71 of Act No. 306 of the Public Acts of 1969, being section 24.271 of the Michigan Compiled Laws

A respondent upon whom service of a formal complaint has been made pursuant to this section may select, WITHIN 15 DAYS after the receipt of notice, 1 of the options described in subsection (1). If a respondent does not select 1 of those options within the time period described in this section, then the department shall proceed to a contested case hearing as described in subsection (1)(c). (3) An informal conference may be attended by a member of the board

15 days after the receipt of notice.

A board may reject a settlement and require a contested case hearing under section 71 of Act No. 306 of the Public Acts of 1969, as amended, being section 24.271 of the Michigan Compiled Laws

Both you and complaint owner can settle but the board can veto

Sec. 510. This act does not prevent a person against whom a complaint has been filed from showing compliance with this act, or a rule or an order promulgated or issued under this act

Sec. 511. If an informal conference is not held or does not result in a settlement of a complaint, a hearing pursuant to section 92 of Act No. 306 of the Public Acts of 1969, as amended, shall be held. A hearing under this section may be attended by a member of a board

If not able to resolve at infromal confernce. investigator goes to hearing (judge)

Sec. 512. The department or the department of the attorney general may petition a circuit court to issue a subpoena which shall require the person subpoenaed to appear or testify or produce relevant documentary material for examination at a proceeding conducted under section 511 or 508

Sec. 513. (1) Except as provided in subsection (3), at the conclusion of a hearing conducted under section 511, the administrative law hearings examiner shall submit a determination of findings of fact and conclusions of law to the department and the department of the attorney general and the appropriate board in a hearing report. The submitted hearing report may recommend the penalties to be assessed as prescribed in article 6

THE ADMINISTRAtive LAW hearing organization (know that)

(2) A copy of a hearing report shall be submitted to the person who made the complaint and to the person against whom the complaint was lodged. (3) For a complaint involving professional standards of practice under article 7, a majority of the members of the board who have not participated in an investigation of the complaint or who have not attended g p , , Sec. 510. This act does not prevent a person against whom a comp g laint has been filed from showing compliance with this act, or a rule p or an order promulgated or issued under this act, g Sec. 511. If an informal conference is not held or does not result in a settlement of a comp g laint, a hearing pursuant to section 92 of Act No. 306 of the Public Acts of 1969, as amended, shall be held. A hearing under this section may be attended by a member of a board. , , p Sec. 512. The department or the department of the attorney general y g may petition a circuit court to issue a subpoena which shall require the p p erson subpoenaed to appear or testify p orroduce relevant documentary material for examination at a proceeding conducted under section 511 or 508. p ; p g p p Sec. 513. () p 1 Except as provided in subsection (3), at the conclusion ( ) of a hearing conducted under section 511, the administrative law hearings examiner shall submit a determination of findings of fact and conclusions of law to the department and the department of the attorney g p eneral and the app p ro riate board in a hearing report. The submitted g p hearing report may recommend the gp y penalties to be assessed as prescribed in article 6. ( ) py 2 A copy of a hearing p re ort shall be submitted to the person who made the complaint and to the person against whom the complaint was lodged. ( ) p 3 For a complaint involving professional standards of practice under article 7, a majority of the members of the board who have not participated in an investigation of the complaint or who have not attended OCCUPATIONAL CODE, (ARTICLES 1-6, 24) P.A. 299 OF 1980 -27- an informal conference, shall sit to make findings of fact in relation to the complaint

Sec. 514. (1) Within 60 days after receipt of an administrative law hearings examiner's hearing report, the board receiving the hearing report shall meet and make a determination of the penalties to be assessed under article 6. The board's determination shall be made on the basis of the administrative law hearings examiner's repor

WITHIN 60 DAYS for board to issue penalty.

(3) A member of a board who has participated in an investigation on a complaint filed with the department or who has attended an informal conference shall not participate in making a final determination in a proceeding on that complaint

A copy of the report goes to everyone.

Who, upon completion of a hearing, shall assess a penalty or penalties?

the board

If you fail to renew your license or registration on or before the expiration date, how many days do you have to resubmit with the proper payment and late fee?

60 days

When the department investigates a complaint and finds evidence of a violation, what actions can be taken against the respondent?

A cease and desist order. A formal complaint. A citation. All of the above.

How many days after the administrative law hearings examiner hears the report must the board determine penalties?

60 days

What is a compliance conference?

A meeting where the respondent meets with the department to discuss the complaint against them.

Which of the following is NOT a possible penalty for operating without a residential builder's license?

A fine of $50,000.

Which of the following terms means a premise used or intended to be used for a residence purpose and related facilities appurtenant to the premises used or intended to be used as an adjunct of residential occupancy?

residential structure

Other than the listed salesperson, an employee may make a sale when ______.

it is occasional and incidental to the person's principal employment

Which of the following is why someone would be allowed to operate without a residential business license?

They are an authorized representative of the United States government. They are the owner of a rental property and are responsible for the maintenance and alteration of that rental property. An owner of property with reference to a structure on the property for the owner's own use and occupancy. All of the above

Beginning the license cycle after December 21, 2007, the department shall issue the license of a residential builder and residential maintenance and alteration contractor for a period of how many years?

3 years

After receiving your initial residential builder's license, how many continuing competency h are required within the next 3 years?

21 hours

If a salesperson desires to change employment from one residential builder or maintenance and alteration contractor to another _____.

the license shall be forwarded to the department, an application will be made for a transfer, and a new license under the salesperson's new employer will be issued

Regarding workmanship, how long does a client have to file a "verified complaint"?

18 months

Suppose a licensed residential builder or licensed residential maintenance and alteration contractor wishes to change the control or direction of the business. How long to they have to report that change to the department?

10 days

The department shall conduct a review upon notice that the licensee has violated the Asbestos Abatement Contractors Licensing Act; what are the possible consequences for this violation?

The department may suspend or revoke that person's license, and fines may be issued.

When the board issues the findings of a verified complaint, _____.

the department shall post on its website any final order of the board and the date it was issued the posting shall occur within 30 days after the final order is issued the department shall annually post on its website the number of final orders to the board all of the above

According to the Administrative Rules, an application for a license shall include _____.

the residence address of all individuals, partners, officers, and/or members, as requested by the department the address of the principal place of business in Michigan both A and B

Upon final order of license suspension or revocation, the licensee shall surrender the license to the department within how many days of the date of suspension or revocation?

10 days

According to Administrative rules, a licensee shall include the following in all advertising: _____.

the name on the license the license number the actual business address as shown on the license all of the above

According to purchase and sale agreements, the builder or contractor shall make certain that the written agreements clearly state the terms of the transaction, including: _____.

specifications and cost the type and quality of materials the type and amount of work to be done all of the above

After investigation, the department may request a licensee to appear at such _________ as is necessary to determine whether there is cause for complaint that would require a hearing on or dismissal of the complaint.

investigative conference

A respondent in a complaint may be represented by _____.

an attorney his/her own self Both A and B

What act was created to collect fees for regulating certain occupations and professions and for certain agencies and businesses, create certain funds, and prescribe certain powers and duties of certain state agencies and departments?

State License Fee Act

What is the "Occupational License For Former Offenders Act?"

An act to encourage and contribute to the rehabilitation of former offenders and to assist them in the assumption of the responsibilities of citizenship.

According to the "Building Contract Fund," evidence of "intent to defraud" is defined as _____.

when a contractor, or any subcontractor, appropriates money to his/herself for building operations BEFORE the payment by him of all money due or so to become due laborers, subcontractors, material men, or others entitled to payment

Which of the following is true regarding employing minors?

A minor shall not work more than 6 days a week. Every 5 hours of work requires a 30-minute break. Both A and B.

Which is NOT an advantage of sole proprietorship?

The owner is liable for all debts.

Which is NOT an advantage of a general partnership?

Each partner is liable for the business debts of the other partner

What allows an individual to invest in a general partnership without input on how the partnership is operated?

limited partnership

What is it called when several business members come together to form a new business entity larger and financially stronger than if they acted alone?

joint venture

The Uniform Commercial Code states that a contract for the sale of goods for the price of $1,000.00 or more must be ______.

in writing sufficient to indicate a sale between parties and signed

According to the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA), which of the following is NOT true?

Employees are allowed to require a medical exam before making a job offer.

Minimum Wage Law states ____.

after 40 hours in any one work week, compensation is 1 1/2 times the regular rate an employer shall not discriminate based on sex when paying employees for the same work requirement

Who is covered by the Employing Minors Youth Employment Standards Act?

ages 14, 15, 16, and 17

The Family Medical Leave Act states ____.

employees may receive unpaid leave for certain reasons employees may receive up to 12 weeks of leave in a 12-month period this law pertains to employers with 50 or more employees engaged in commerce or affecting commerce

A claim of lien MUST be completed within how many days of last being on the job site?

90 days

If you DO get paid before the lawsuit after filing a lien claim, what form must you complete?

discharge of construction lien

What is the maximum amount you can collect through a judgment in the small claims division of the district court using the small claims form DC84?

$6,000

After Mr. Jones receives a sworn statement that he owes ABC Framing $40,000, how does he know that ABC Framing was ever on the job site?

the proof of service of notice of furnishing

According to the State Construction Code Act, how often will the Construction Code Commission update the state code?

every 3 years

How many days after notification of a complaint does the respondent have to respond?

15 days

Once the investigative unit receives a complaint, who do they verify the legitimacy of the complaint with?

the building inspector of the local jurisdiction (city building department)

If the dispute cannot be resolved at the informal conference, where does it go next?

the administrative law hearing examiner (also known as hearing officer/presiding officer)

The findings/penalty of the Administrative Law Hearing Examiner are reported to _____.

the respondent and claiment the board the investigative unit

Homes built before what year require at least one smoke detector?

1974

What STATE law regulates discrimination on the job site?

The Elliott-Larsen Civil Rights Act

A contract is not required if the job is under what amount?

$1,000.00

Within how many days of being on the job site must the I-9 Form be completed?

3 days

What act requires prevailing wages to be paid out?

The Davis-Bacon Act

What is the most common type of contract used in residential construction

lump sum contract

What should you be sure to include in your contracts?

change orders weather/ground conditions buried debris

What is true regarding a cost plus/fee contract (Construction Management)?

the total construction costs are unknown to the owner the contractor provides a target estimate you must have written agreement concerning payment of contractor fees

What type of contract is used when the scope of work is poorly defined and/or to cover emergency repairs and renovations to occupied facilities?

cost plus percentage of cost contract (Time and Materials)

What type of contract requires the owner/architect to compile a list of total quantities and the contractor to provide the cost per unit to supply and install?

unit price contract

When having a contract signed, what should you be sure to verify first online or at the assessor's office?

legal ownership

When asking a customer for a certain percentage of money after a section(s) of a job is completed, it is called _____.

progress payments

What is it called when you walk through with a customer at the end of a job and check off any needed repairs or discuss work to be redone?

a final punch list

What are 2 items suggested to avoid in your contracts?

start and completion dates

Kitchen cabinet layouts from the kitchen designer are an example of what?

shop drawings

Change in conditions should be the responsibility of _____.

the owner

What should be included in close-out documents?

owner/operator manuals copies of all warranties check off list from mechanical contractors

With a permit, when should the final payment be due?

upon final inspection

In a contract, it is wise to include that the care and maintenance of the owner's pet(s) is the responsibility of _____.

the owner only

What are you required to have on new construction sites for everyone onsite?

toilet facilities

In regard to moving personal items, it is best if _____.

you do not move them you give written notice to neighbors if work will include any major vibrations that could cause items to fall

While on the job site, when is it important to take pictures and keep photo records?

before work begins after work completion at various stages during the work

What things should be included in a log book?

weather conditions what subcontractors are on-site various levels of progress/times

As a general contractor, what must you always have on-site?

a competent employee with a first aid card

Who is responsible for temporary power?

whoever is stated in the contract

According to the sample contract on page 27, when is the full payment of a change order due?

upon agreement and signing of the change order

What should a quality contract contain?

name and location of the project drawings and specifications identified as "Project Number" insurance requirements for owner and contractor

To protect yourself from potentially costly changes, what should you include in any contract to build a new house?

per project number, last revised on," then list specific page numbers and revision dates.

What is an architect or designer's verbal direction to change something?

a modification

Ownership of drawings must be _____.

defined

Who is responsible for corrections to completed work according to the subcontract?

The subcontractor is responsible for the correction. Whoever installed it protects it

When can the builder substitute materials?

only with the permission of the owner

The cost of moving equipment on and off the job site is called _____.

mobilization costs

Whatever contract you decide to use should be reviewed by ______

an attorney

Who is responsible for collecting and maintaining safety data sheets on the job site?

the general contractor

Any code-related penalties that are caused for the general contractor are the responsibility of _____.

the subcontractor

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the subcontractor?

Provides for toolbox safety talks.

What are the three methods for alternative dispute resolution?

mediation, arbitration, facilitation

Which alternative dispute resolution method is the award settlement binding, and there is no appeal process?

arbitration

When is substantial completion of work obtained?

when the owner can take possession and use the structure for its intended purpose

According to the video "Lead Paint: A Toxic Legacy," what possible effects can lead paint have on children?

brain damage behavioral problems propensity to violence and agression

How far back does the data and research show the dangers of lead paint?

the early 1900s

According to the video "Don't Spread Lead," if a house was built before what year, you should assume the home has lead paint as a safety precaution.

1978

What should you do to protect yourself from lead dust and debris?

wear safety glasses wear disposable coveralls and shoe covers wear a respirator

When working with lead paint ____

work wet and clean

Which of the following statements about lead exposure are true?

Lead stays in the bloodstream for approximately 30 days. Lead stays in the soft organs for 6 to 8 months.

What current techniques are there to identify lead paint?

x-ray fluorescence laboratory analysis 3rd party inspections (risk assessment)

What are the controls for lead-based paint?

Removal of LBP through safe work practices. Enclosure/encapsulation

Contractors are not required to be “certified renovators” if they do the following:

demolition of unoccupied structures. MIOSHA Part 603 Rules are still applicable.

Lead dust breathed in by adults can create disorders, including:

kidney and brain damage.

What is a colorless, odorless, radioactive gas that is caused naturally in the soil but can seep out?

radon

The EPA has set a “Take Action Level" for radon at:

4 PCI/L

Radon is the second leading cause of ________. There are 21,000 related deaths in the U.S. each year.

lung cancer

Up until the ______, asbestos was commonly used in many building materials.

1980s

To protect yourself from asbestos during renovations or demolition, what is the most important thing you can do?

Have the house surveyed by a qualified asbestos professional.

Asbestos-containing material (ACM) means any material containing more than _____ asbestos.

One who is capable of identifying existing asbestos hazards in the workplace and selecting the appropriate control strategy for asbestos exposure, who has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them, is called __.

the competent person

Common products that might have contained asbestos in the past, and conditions which may release fibers, include:

steam pipes, boilers and furnace ducts resilient floor tiles soundproofing or decorative material sprayed on walls and ceilings

What type of common household products could possibly contain asbestos?

hairdryers stove top pads fireproof gloves

Houses built between what years may have asbestos as insulation?

1930 and 1950

According to Silica Standards, what safety precautions must be taken if using a handheld power saw indoors for any time?

Required respiratory protection must be worn at a minimum of APF 10.

The Silica Standards for handheld power saws for cutting fiber-cement board (with blade diameter of 8 inches or less) for tasks performed outdoors state:

to use a saw equipped with a commercially available dust collection system. you must operate and maintain the tool in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions to minimize dust emissions. The dust collector must provide the air flow recommended by the tool manufacturer or greater and have a filter with 99% or greater efficiency.

In regard to Silica Standards, what is defined as a description of the tasks, a description of the engineering controls, a description of the housekeeping measures, and a description of the procedures used to restrict access to work areas?

The Written Exposure Control Plan

What is the system that provides wage replacement, medical, and rehabilitation benefits to workers who are injured on the job?

worker's compensation

A worker must have a wage loss of at least _______ in order to receive any workers’ compensation wage loss benefits.

one week

Who cannot be covered under a workers' compensation policy?

A sole proprietor that operates as an independent contractor. A sole proprietor with no employees.

What should you be sure a subcontractor has before hiring them?

a workers' compensation exclusion form a workers' compensation policy

Before hiring a subcontractor with a workers' compensation exclusion form, what additional form should you have them fill out to reduce your liability?

a Subcontractor Release and Waiver of Liability Form

Workers' Compensation related to a death shall include _____% of the after-tax weekly wage of the employee to be paid to dependants who were wholly dependent upon the employee’s earnings. Such payment shall continue for _____ weeks from the date of death.

80%/500 weeks

Which type of insurance protects the construction project and materials from external forces and has endorsements that can include protection against fire, wind, storms, vandalism and “acts of God”.

all risk builders insurance

What type of insurance provides added risk protection to an employer who has an employee injured or killed in a related construction accident? This is over and above the worker’s compensation insurance.

employer’s liability insurance

Who has the obligation to ask for and receive copies of all required insurance policies from the subcontractor's insurance provider?

the general contractor

What are key ideas for developing a marketing plan essential for a company’s growth?

Determine your personal strengths and weaknesses and those of your business. Provide a method of establishing trust in the company for both clients and employees. Provide a portion of resources to promote your plan.

How can you promote the name of your company to the public?

job site signs vehicle signage brochures and mailers

What type of bond guarantees that the contractor will complete the contracted project for the estimated sum? This bond is usually for 100% of the contract sum. Should the contractor default, the bonding company will provide for the completion of the project.

performance bond

How do you establish trust with a client?

by doing what you say you will do

How do you establish trust with your employees?

ask for input pay them on time value their feedback

What are the resources you have to promote your business?

time money

How do you take the time to promote your business?

attend community events give out items with the company name join associations

In what ways can you monitor previous clients?

call backs promotions mailers

A good business card should ____

be readable for all ages include a website

A quality company brochure should stress your company's ____.

professionalism and integrity

A professional presentation folder should include ___.

pictures of work you have completed an eye-catching design information about your company

Get involved with public affairs through ____.

the chambers of commerce trade shows/seminars other community events

_______ is a key element in any business. Using consultants, trade organizations, and continuing education courses can aid in reaching your intended goals.

marketing

Which type of mortar has high compression strength, is very good for below-grade use, foundations, sewers, and retention walls, and maintains strength in severe frost, wind, and soil pressure?

Type M

Placement of mortar should be done during temperatures between ____ degrees and ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

70/100

With regard to mortar, the addition of sand ________ compression strength.

Increases

In mortar construction, how many standard bricks are required to cover 1 square foot of wall area?

MIOSHA Part 2 deals with the rules related to masonry walls exposed to winds. Which of the following is required?

Restricted zones for walls greater than 8 feet (height of wall + 4 feet). Written certification of employee training. Warning signage.

Approximately how much does one cubic foot of concrete weigh?

150lbs

The plans/code will tell what measurement slump should be, but in residential work, it is generally between ____ and ____ inches.

4 and 6

When the forms are not vibrated when pouring concrete, the result is ___.

a bugout or honeycombing (air voids in the concrete)

What is a darby?

A tool that consists of two handles on a flat plate with slightly lipped edges, similar to a float, except larger.

How many blocks do you need in the first course for a 40 ft long and 10 ft high wall?

30 blocks

An example of prestressed concrete is __.

a double T as used in parking garages

Of the 5 types of cement, which is the most commonly used?

type 1 for general use

What is generally the maximum size in coarse aggregate such as pea stone and gravel that ranges in size due to required specifications?

1 1/2 inches or less

Ready-mixed concrete should be totally discharged from the truck within _____ hours of being mixed.

1 1/2 hours

What type of footing is used over the soil with poor load-bearing capacity and will generally cover the entire footprint of the structure?

a mat footing

Splices in rebar should not have overlaps of less than ____.

12 inches

In concrete, saw-cut control joints should be made within ______ hours of placement.

4 to 12 hours

The temperature of concrete should be maintained at ____ degrees for 5 days in cold weather conditions.

Space trusses to within + or - ____.

1/4 inch

Lateral bracing (long 2x4 12 footers) is supposed to be located in ____.

the upper 1/3 of the truss area

What is the act to prescribe and regulate working conditions: to prescribe the duties of employers and employees as to places and conditions of employment?

Michigan Occupational Safety and Health Act 154 of 1974

It is the duty of the employer to ___.

recognized hazards likely to cause death and/or serious harm

Who shall administer and enforce the provisions of the Michigan Occupational Safety and Health Act?

The Department of Labor (LARA)

An employer who willfully or repeatedly violates the Michigan Occupational Safety and Health Act may be assessed a civil penalty of not more than $_________ for each violation.

$124,709.00

An employer shall develop, maintain, and coordinate with employees an accident prevention program, a copy of which shall be available at the worksite and shall include ___.

instruction to each employee who is required to handle or use poisons, toxic materials, caustics, and other harmful substances instruction to each employee if known harmful plants, reptiles, animals, or insects are present inspections of the construction site, tools, materials, and equipment to assure that unsafe conditions which could create a hazard are eliminated

An employer shall not permit any of the following:

the use of damaged or defective machinery, tools, materials, or equipment that could create a hazard the operation of machinery, equipment, and special tools, except by a qualified employee knowingly permit an employee to work while under the influence of intoxicating beverages or substances which could impair the employee’s ability to perform a task in a safe manner

A supply of ______ shall be available to employees in all places of employment.

potable water

The top guardrail must be located at a height of ______ from the walking/working surface.

42” +/- 3”

Certification of head protection requires ___.

a class B helmet for the protection of an employee exposed to voltages of more than 600 volts a class A helmet that bears a certification by the manufacturer

What is a device that makes instantaneous forced-entry fastenings into construction materials through the use of a fastener and an explosive load?

powder-actuated tool

What is a narrow strip of wood or other soft material that has a notch or sharp point on one end and which is used to push material through the point of operation of a cutting tool?

push stick

Air pressure at the discharge end of a portable air gun or hose used for cleaning shall not exceed ____ pounds per square inch (psi).

What type of fire is fueled by wood, cloth, paper, rubber, and plastics?

class A fire

Each employee on a walking/working surface with an unprotected side or edge 6 feet or more above a lower level shall be protected from falling by using ___.

guardrail systems safety net systems a personal fall arrest system

Personal fall arrest systems, when stopping a fall, shall ___.

limit maximum arresting force on an employee to 1800 LBS when used with a body harness be rigged such that an employee can neither free fall more than 6 feet nor contact any lower-level

When mechanical equipment is being used, the warning line shall be erected not less than ____ feet from the roof edge, which is parallel to the direction of mechanical equipment operation, and not less than ____ feet from the roof edge, which is perpendicular to the direction of mechanical equipment operation.

6 and 10

Falling object protection shall comply with the following provisions ___.

toeboards, when used as falling object protection, shall be erected along the edge of the overhead walking/working surface for a distance sufficient to protect employees below toeboards shall be a minimum of 3 ½ inches in vertical height from their top edge to the level of the walking/working surface toeboards shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 50 pounds applied in any downward or outward direction at any point along the toeboard

A ladder shall be provided at all personnel points of access if there is a break in elevation of ___ inches or more and if a ramp, runway, sloped embankment, stairway, or personnel hoist is not provided.

A job-built ladder shall not be more than ___ feet in length.

A heavy-duty scaffold is designed and constructed to carry a working load of not more than ____ pounds per square foot.

A scaffold and its components shall be capable of supporting, without failure, not less than ___ times the maximum intended load.

A guardrail shall be installed on any open side or end of a scaffold work platform that is ___ or more feet above the floor or ground.

Pump jack brackets, braces, and accessories shall be fabricated from metal plates and angles. Each bracket shall have ___ positive gripping mechanisms to prevent failure or slippage.

A ladder jack scaffold shall be used only for light duty on type I manufactured ladders at heights not more than ___ feet from the ground or floor level.

What is a coarse-grained soil that does not possess cohesion but derives its strength from internal friction?

granular soil

When should an ongoing inspection of an excavation or trench shall be made by a qualified person?

after every rainstorm or other hazard-producing occurrence

What is a clay-type soil with an unconfined strength of less than 1.0 ton per square foot?

soft clay soil

According to MIOSHA Injury and Illness Reporting, when are you required to report an injury or illness?

when you have more than 10 employees or when specifically requested by MIOSHA

Which are purposes of accounting?

Reduce overhead. Comply with state and federal laws. Provide information for insurance companies.

What is the benefit of using a business credit card?

Great way to track purchases Monthly statements provided.

There are two bases for accounting; what are they?

cash and accrual

What is the amount of assets remaining after all liabilities are paid off? (The true ownership value)

equity

Assets minus all liabilities equals what?

net worth

These are called the books of ORIGINAL entry and include as much information as possible recorded with each transaction.

journals

These are called the books of FINAL entry and include a summary of information from the journals.

general ledger

Financial ratios calculated for comparison purposes and used to make business decisions are called ___.

financial statement analysis

What is considered a good current ratio?

2 to 1

The IRS Form ____ is used to indicate any payment made to a subcontractor (not an employee) for the previous year. It is given by a general contractor or business owner and must be given to the subcontractor no later than January 31 of the following year.

1099

Shingles and siding are sold by the square. A square equals ___.

100 square feet

To determine the unknown length of a triangle, use the formula ___

a2 + b2 = c2

To estimate gable siding, use the formula ___

1/2 base X height

The greater the pitch, the ______ the rafter has to be.

longer

What formula can be used to determine the length of a rafter if the slope and run are known?

a2 + b2 = c2

The formula for estimating concrete into cubic yards is ___.

(L X W X T) / 27

A driveway 60 feet long by 20 feet wide and 6 inches thick will need how many cubic yards of concrete?

23 cubic yards

When measuring for concrete ___.

take your calculation to the next full yard

When measuring concrete for basement walls, be sure ___.

to not calculate the corners twice

Change inches to decimal points by dividing the inches by ___.

The formula for board feet when calculating in FEET is ___.

(W X T X L) /12

The formula for board feet when calculating in INCHES is ____.

(W X T X L)/144

16” O.C Spacing Length of wall in Feet x 12 inches / 16 + 1 is the formula for calculating ____.

stud count

When estimating for drywall for a room, be sure to ____.

figure for the walls AND ceiling

When calculating ground slope, what will be the difference in elevation from the base of the house compared to 50 ft from the house with an 8% slope?

4 feet

Elevations above sea level are part of the ___.

site plan

What shows the proposed and existing elevations and helps you identify if you need to cut or fill?

leader lines

Part of the site plan that determines the lot line on large acreage properties involves the use of ____.

metes and bounds

If a basement exists, the finished floor must be ___ above the flood stage.

1 foot

Every city that has a river, stream, or lake in it will have a ____.

FEMA flood map

What does AB represent on the site plan?

as built

Where the land is graded to form a shallow ditch so that storm water drains in the direction the builder wants it to, it is called a ____.

swale

How wide is the rear easement on the north side of the property on the referenced site plan?

18 feet

What does HP represent on the site plan?

high point

Where is the approach located on the site plan?

the city's property

A standard set of regulations that govern he procedures and details of construction is called a _____.

building code

What type of house is built before there is a buyer?

a speculative house

The official survey, deed, abstract of title, and the contract of sale are all considered _____.

legal documents

A standard house plan that can be adapted to fit many different lots is called a ________.

stock plan

Act 230 requires you to have an architect when ____.

the home has over 3500 square feet of habitable space

What consists of lines, dimensions, symbols, and notes?

an architectural drawing

A bypassing sliding door is also known as a ___.

a glide by door

What shows the building lot with boundaries, contours, existing roads, utilities, and other details such as existing trees and nearby buildings?

a site plan a plot plan

These views show the house's front, back, right, and left sides and allow you to see the height and width of objects.

elevation views

Where would you find the stool and apron in a house?

the window

What identifies the materials and finishes to be used for floors, walls, and ceilings for each room, including hallways?

a room-finish schedule

A measure of smoke created when a material is burning is known as ____.

smoke density

A signed proposal to do work and/or supply a material for a specified price is called a(n) _____.

bid

Plumbing, heating, and electrical work are considered part of ____.

mechanicals

An easy way to keep track of a project that shows how long each task will take and when each task will start and end is known as ___.

a bar chart

Making sure the workplace is free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious physcical harm are employer responsibilities under what regulations?

OSHA

On residential job sites, what type of fire extinguisher is necessary?

Class A, B, and C

What is a poisonous element that was used for many years to protect certain types of wood products against attack by wood-destroying insects?

arsenic

What is the most serious heat-related health problem in which the body can no longer regulate its core temperature and sweating STOPS?

heat stroke

Do not use hoses longer than ____ feet.

100

Any crack in a foudation wall or hole rot

A two part epoxy is used for fill holes and cracks

What is defined as a chemical reaction that occurs when water combines with cement and generates heat as the concrete cures?

hydration

What type of Portland cement is used for most general construction purposes because it is economical and has a long setting time?

type 1

What type of cement expands when mixed with water, hardens within minutes, and is used to plug holes and cracks in foundations?

hydraulic cement

In what type of weather should you make sure concrete is covered for at least several days after placement?

hot weather

In regard to concrete cover for reinforcing steel, rebar in footings needs ___ of concrete coverage.

3 inches

What can measure horizontal angles and vertical angles and can be used to determine if a post or wall is plumb?

a transit

A board fastened horizontally to stakes placed to the outside of where the corners of the building will be located is called a ___.

batter board

What is defined as a measure of how well the soil can support the weight of a house?

bearing capacity

The measurement of the ability of water to flow through the soil is known as ____.

porosity

What is the additional excavation needed to provide clearance for work called?

overdig

What locks the foundation walls to the footing to prevent moisture from seeping between the walls and footing?

a keyway

What occurs where fresh concrete is poured on top of or next to concrete that has already begun to cure and is more likely to leak/is weaker than the surrounding wall?

a cold joint

In cases where brick or stone veneer is used for the outside finish over a wood frame, the foundation must include a _______, a supporting ledge, or an offset about 5" wide.

masonry ledge

What is defined as a wall notch needed for basement beams or girders?

a beam pocket

Now required by code for all foundation walls, what do you call the steps that must be taken to protect them from moisture?

dampproofing

How soon can you backfill concrete block walls after they have been waterproofed?

minimum of 48 hours

Generally, columns in a 12" thick wall will be spaced no more than ____ OC (on center).

72 inches

A vertical mortar joint is called a _________.

head joint

When the air temperature is 80 degrees or higher, when must mortar be used?

within 2 1/2 hours

What is defined as the process of spreading mortar or cement plaster over the block wall?

parging

What consists of flat, horizontal areas of concrete that are usually 5" or less in thickness?

concrete flatwork

Also called a ground-support slab, this is a slab that is used in areas where the ground freezes fairly deep during winter.

independent slab

Any fill should be compacted in lifts no more than ___ deep.

6 inches

Driveways with a grade of more than what percent should not be covered with gravel because the gravel will generally wash away?

A surface that is ______ too early will not be durable.

troweled

What produces boards of greater width than other cutting methods; however the boards are more likely to shrink or warp?

flat-sawn lumber

What is a general indication of the quality and strength of a piece of lumber?

grade

In regard to lumber, a general description of any variation from a flat surface, including bow, crook, and cup, is known as ____.

warp

The best way to prevent fungi attack is to ____.

keep wood dry

What insects cut a 1/2" diameter hole into bare or untreated wood and then build their nests by boring a tunnel parallel to the surface of the wood?

carpenter bees

_________ is made from wood strands bonded with adhesive under heat and pressure.

Orientated-strand board (OSB)

What are the advantages of engineered lumber?

It uses wood that might otherwise be wasted. Its performance is highly predictable. It is available in a wide variety of dimensions.

Laminated-veneer lumber (LVL) is defined as ____.

a family of lumber products made with wood veneer as the basic element

What is a length of engineered wood stock that has the same depth as the I-joists?

rim board

What is defined as a closely spaced series of wedge-shaped cuts made in the mating surfaces of lumber?

a finger joint

In what type of framing do the studs run from the sill plate to the top plate of the second floor and the first floor joists also rest on this sill?

balloon framing

In standard platform-frame construction, wall studs are commonly spaced ____ apart, measured from the center of one stud to the center of the next.

16"

What consists of 3 1/2" thick expanded polystyrene foam insulation between exterior plywood sheets or oriented-strand board?

structural insulated panels (SIPs)

A dead load is ____.

the total weight of the building

What is the most common mistake made when installing joist hangers?

To use too few nails.

What is a large principal horizontal member used to support floor joists?

a girder

Steel posts, sometimes called Lally columns, must be at least ____ in diameter and protected against rust, such as with rust-resistant paint.

What is a method of bracing between joists?

bridging

What is defined as a supporting member that projects into space and is itself supported at only one end?

a cantilever

What is the benefit of glue-nailing?

Fewer nails are required. Results in a very strong and stiff floor system.

What is a wood beam placed at the top of an opening that supports structural loads above the opening?

a header

________ is usually applied vertically, using perimeter nailing with no additional blocking.

Sheathing

If two legs of a triangle measure 3' and 4', they form a 90-degree angle if the diagonal between the ends measures exactly ____.

What is defined as a piece of framing lumber that represents the wall from the top of the subfloor to the bottom of the ceiling joist?

a story pole

What is one of the main purposes of the double plate?

to tie the walls together at the top

Sometimes called a bulkhead, ______ is a lowered portion of the ceiling that sometimes includes lighting.

soffit

A soffit is usually about ____ deeper than the cabinets, so molding may be installed at the cabinet top.

Which of the following is NOT a type of rafter?

backing block rafter

Where should lateral (horizontal) bracing be located?

in the upper 1/3 of the roof

What does a partition clip do?

prevents the chords from moving from side to side allows the bottom chord to flex upward slightly when the truss is loaded

What is a horizontal framing member that prevents opposing rafter pairs from spreading apart?

a collar tie

A board nailed to the ends of the rafter tails and serves as a mounting surface for gutters is known as _____.

fascia

When reading the performance rating stamp on panel sheathing, the number on the LEFT (in front of the slash) represents _____.

the maximum spacing, in inches, of supports when the panel is used for roof sheathing

According to building codes, every bedroom must have at least one window (or exterior door) suitable for emergency escape, also known as ______.

an egress

A vertical or horizontal piece that holds a pane of glass is called ____.

a muntin

A standard interior door jamb is _____ wide.

4 9/16"

Molding with a T-shaped profile is attached to the edge of one of the French doors; this provides a stop against which the other door closes. What is another term for this?

an astragal stop

What type of tool would you use to strip all the shingles off a roof?

a flat shovel with notches/tear off shovel

The amount of the shingle that shows after installation is called _____.

exposure

The metal used for flashing must be corrosion resistant and can be galvanized steel (at least 26 gauge), _____ thick aluminum, 16 oz copper, or lead-coated copper.

0.024

In order to hold the roof underlayment in place, you may use what type of fasteners?

nails staples button caps

What is the shape of ridge caps?

9 x 12 rectangle

A ________ results in double coverage of shingles throughout the length of the valley.

closed valley

Shakes are available in what length(s)?

16" 18" 22"

Wood shingles are manufactured in lengths of ____.

22", 18" and 16"

In regard to siding, what is used to seal the joints where the siding meets a horizontal surface?

metal flashing

Housewrap should not be used beneath what type of siding?

stucco

Also known as refractory brick, what is usually pale yellow or buff in color and used specifically for lining fireplaces and other heating units?

firebrick

What type of wall must be supported by a masonry or concrete foundation and be tied into the framework of the house?

a brick-veneer wall

What replaces air exhausted by a combustion appliance?

makeup air

The floor of the firebox, plus the fireproof area in front of the fireplace, is called the _____.

hearth

What is the most common type of stairway in houses, consisting of two or more stringers?

cut-stringer stairway

A lap joint, known as a scarf joint is generally ____.

30 degrees

Screw the cabinet to the studs with ______ wood screws to run through the mounting rail at the back of the cabinet.

2 1/2" 3"

What gauge do metal-bearing wall studs have to be?

18 to 20

What is a network of perforated pipes embedded in sand and gravel?

a drain field

What consists of materials that are usually supplied in bags or bales that, depending on where it will be installed, can be poured into place manually or blown into place using specialized pumping equipment?

loose-fill insulation

What is defined as a material that reduces the rate at which water vapor can move through a material?

a vapor retarder

What is termed as the thermal envelope of the house?

The entire area of the house that is insulated.