MGT 331-08 FINAL FML Flashcards

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1
Q

(CH.1) Which of the following scenarios most clearly exemplifies the successful use of a manager’s diagnostic skills in dealing with people?

A.) A program on Sally’s computer stops working. She could ask Gary, a member of the tech support team, to fix it, but Sally is good with computers and fixes the problem herself in less time than it would have taken Gary to come over and fix it.

B.) Sally must convince Gary and Roberta to work overtime. Since Gary’s top priority is his own self-interest, she emphasizes how much money he’ll make by working overtime. Since Roberta’s top priority is her well-being, she emphasizes how much it will mean to her to work overtime.

C.) Sally has to decide whether to disband Gary and Roberta’s division and form a new division to develop an innovative new product line.

D.) Sally suspects that Gary is underperforming because he is not getting enough sleep, not because he is incapable. She lets him work from 10 to 6 instead of 9 to 5, and his performance improves.

A

D.) Sally suspects that Gary is underperforming because he is not getting enough sleep, not because he is incapable. She lets him work from 10 to 6 instead of 9 to 5, and his performance improves.

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2
Q

(CH.1) Which of the following factors is NOT a typical positive result when managers make a practice of listening to employees, recognizing their work, building trust, and behaving ethically?

A.) improved financial performance

B.) savings through staff layoffs

C.) stronger customer loyalty

D.) reduced absenteeism and turnover

A

B.) savings through staff layoffs

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3
Q

(CH.1) Developing new ways to hire and train employees and paying them higher wages can result in which of the following benefits?

A.) It can result in a reduced emphasis on a global mindset.

B.) It can result in fewer employees being needed.

C.) It can result in better communication with management.

D.) It can result in better retention of employees.

A

D.) It can result in better retention of employees.

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4
Q

(CH.1) Michael Porter says that companies gain a competitive advantage by giving customers __________.

A.) superior value for their money

B.) the product with the highest possible quality

C.) perfect customer service

D.) a feeling of brand loyalty

A

A.) superior value for their money

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5
Q

(CH.1) Why is it important for managers to understand the Hawthorne effect?
A.) It proved that workers perform better under bright light than under dim light.

B.) It proved a direct correlation between employee satisfaction and performance.

C.) It explained the effects of dehumanizing workplace environments.

D.) It showed that people improve their performance when they know they’re being observed.

A

D.) It showed that people improve their performance when they know they’re being observed.

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6
Q

(CH.1) The study of human behavior in organizational settings, of the interface between human behavior and the organization, and of the organization itself.

A

Organizational Behavior

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7
Q

(CH.1) The Four Basic Managerial Functions

A

1.) planning
2.) organizing
3.) leading
4.) controlling

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8
Q

(CH.1) The process of determining the organization’s desired future position and deciding how best to get there.

A

Planning

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9
Q

(CH.1) The process of designing jobs, grouping jobs into manageable units, and establishing patterns of authority among jobs and groups of jobs.

A

Organizing

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10
Q

(CH.1) The process of motivating members of the organization to work together toward the organization’s goals.

A

Leading

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11
Q

(CH.1) The process of monitoring and correcting the actions of the organization and its people to keep them headed toward their goals.

A

Controlling

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12
Q

(CH.1) Skills necessary to accomplish specific tasks within the organization.

A

Technical Skills

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13
Q

(CH.1) The ability to effectively communicate with, understand, and motivate individuals and groups

A

Interpersonal Skills

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14
Q

(CH.1) The manager’s ability to think in the abstract.

A

Conceptual Skills

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15
Q

(CH.1) The ability to understand cause-and-effect relationships and to recognize the optimal solutions to problems

A

Diagnostic Skills

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16
Q

(CH.1) When people improve some aspect of their behavior or performance simply because they are being assessed

A

Hawthorne Effect

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17
Q

(CH.1) Which of the following employee behaviors are associated with effective management?

A.) qualifying for a year-end bonus

B.) not asking for raises

C.) working only on job-description tasks

D.) identification with the company

A

D.) identification with the company

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18
Q

(CH.1) Which of the following is true about global mindset?

A.) It is the ability to effectively communicate with, understand, and motivate individuals and groups.

B.) It combines cultural intelligence and a multinational business orientation.

C.) It is an inherent personality trait.

D.) It is dependent upon the number of languages a person speaks.

A

B.) It combines cultural intelligence and a multinational business orientation.

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19
Q

(CH.1) Which of the following factors did W. Edwards Deming believe should be removed from the workplace?

A.) fear

B.) diversity

C.) hierarchy

D.) competition

A

A.) fear

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20
Q

(CH.1) Organizational behavior is defined as the study of three interrelated areas, one of which is the __________.

A.) maximization of an organization’s human resources

B.) interface between individuals and the organization

C.) management of interpersonal conflict in the workplace

D.) profitability and capital value of the business

A

B.) interface between individuals and the organization

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21
Q

(CH.1) Three Parts of Organizational Behavior

A

Individual, Interface, and Organization

1.) Human behavior in organizational settings

2.) The interface between human behavior and the organization

3.) The organization itself

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22
Q

(CH.1) Within Odyssey Adventures, Ramon is known as an expert in the hotels, restaurants, and amenities at various luxury destinations. Because he is so enthusiastic and knowledgeable, he is highly effective at encouraging clients to extend their vacation plans with add-on packages and upgraded experiences. Which management skill does this ability best demonstrate?

A.) interpersonal skills

B.) technical skills

C.) conceptual skills

D.) diagnostic skills

A

A.) interpersonal skills

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23
Q

(CH.1) Why does Organizational Behavior matter?

A

Impacts personal success

Impacts organizational success

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24
Q

(CH.1) Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling the efficient and effective allocation and utilization of resources to achieve established goals and objectives for added value.

A

Management

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25
Q

(CH.1) Achieving maximum productivity with minimal waste or effort; utilizing minimum resources

A

Efficient

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26
Q

(CH.1) Achieving success in producing a desired or intended result

A

Effective

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27
Q

(CH.1) Four Resources

A

Human

Financial

Physical Materials

Information

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28
Q

(CH.1) Primary Categories of Critical
Management Skills

A

Technical - The understanding of and competency in completing specific tasks

Interpersonal - The ability to work with other people (communicate, understand, motivate)

Conceptual - The cognitive ability to analyze the organization and see the interrelation among its parts (thinking in the abstract)

Diagnostic - The ability to understand cause and effect and recognize optimal solutions

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29
Q

(CH.1) Human Resources Management

A

Employment

Orientation & Training

Compensation

Technology & Equipment

Health

Safety

Security Benefits

Employee Relations

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30
Q

(CH.1) An organization’s edge over rivals in attracting customers and defending itself against competition

A

Competitive advantage

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31
Q

(CH.1) Sources of competitive advantage

A

Innovation

Distribution

Speed

Convenience

First to market

Cost

Service

Quality

Branding

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32
Q

(CH.1) Business Strategies

A

Cost Leadership (example: Walmart)

Differentiation (example: Lexus)

Specialization (example: Starbucks)

Growth (example: Apple)

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33
Q

(CH.1) Managing for Effectiveness

A

Enhancing Performance

Enhancing Commitment and Engagement

Promoting Organizational Citizenship

Minimizing Dysfunctional Behavior

Driving Strategic Execution

How Do We Know What We Know?

Global Replication

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34
Q

(CH.2) Robert owns a manufacturing business and tends to hire young men because he believes they’re better able to manage the equipment and tend to understand the technology better. How is his attitude a barrier to inclusion?

A.) It reveals a perceived threat of loss.

B.) It shows he has a “like me” bias.

C.) It represents a stereotyped belief.

D.) It reflects his ethnocentrism.

A

C.) It represents a stereotyped belief.

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35
Q

(CH2.) Laila’s small company refashions discarded dolls and other toys into utensils and decorative items. Which of the following is the most apt label for her organization?

A.) service organization

B.) manufacturer

C.) cost leader

D.) technology leader

A

B.) manufacturer

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36
Q

(CH.2) The variety of observable and unobservable similarities and differences among people.

A

Diversity

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37
Q

(CH.2) Refers to observable differences in people, including race, age, ethnicity, physical abilities, physical characteristics, and gender.

A

Surface-Level Diversity

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38
Q

(CH.2) Refers to individual differences that cannot be seen directly, including goals, values, personalities, decision-making styles, knowledge, skills, abilities, and attitudes.

A

Deep-Level Diversity

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39
Q

(CH.2) Refers to differences in position or opinion among group members reflecting disagreement or opposition—dissimilarity in an attitude or value, for example, especially with regard to group goals or processes.

A

Separation Diversity

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40
Q

(CH.2) Exists when there are meaningful differences in a certain type or category, including group members’ expertise, knowledge, or functional background.

A

Variety Diversity

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41
Q

(CH.2) Reflects differences in the concentration of valuable social assets or resources—dissimilarity in rank, pay, decision-making authority, or status, for instance.

A

Disparity Diversity

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42
Q

(CH.2) Derek serves on the board of directors for a furniture company. He is also the CEO of a timber company attempting to secure a contract with the furniture company. What situation does this example represent?

A.) expedited payments

B.) conflict of interest

C.) environmental sustainability

D.) corporate social responsibility

A

B.) conflict of interest

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43
Q

(CH.2) Which term refers to similarities and differences among people, including those such as race, age, ethnicity, physical abilities and characteristics, and gender?

A.) separation diversity

B.) variety diversity

C.) surface-level diversity

D.) deep-level diversity

A

C.) surface-level diversity

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44
Q

(CH.2) Assume a team is comprised of a marketing professional, a materials specialist, a manufacturing floor manager, a product safety advisor, an advertising department head, and a legal expert. What type of diversity is represented by this group?

A.) generational diversity

B.) separation diversity

C.) disparity diversity

D.) variety diversity

A

D.) variety diversity

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45
Q

(CH.2) Given current demographic trends, which of the following is NOT a strategy companies would use to gain a competitive advantage through promoting diversity?

A.) put women in top management

B.) utilize reverse mentoring

C.) create heterogeneous teams

D.) encourage older workers to retire

A

D.) encourage older workers to retire

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46
Q

(CH.2) The knowledge workers you’ve hired over the past three to five years have added value to your company because of what they know. However, they present special challenges. Which of the following statements is true for you as an employer?

A.) Even without investing in updating their skills, it will take about three years to gain any competitive advantage from hiring these people.

B.) You need to allow these staff members to work autonomously and recognize that they measure their performance in comparison to others in their profession.

C.) You can count on these workers to have enough pride in their output that they will seek their own continuing education to stay current in their field.

D.) You must create a structured chain of command for these staff members so that they can feel comfortable about reporting relationships.

A

B.) You need to allow these staff members to work autonomously and recognize that they measure their performance in comparison to others in their profession.

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47
Q

(CH.2) Which term describes a business that is living and working together for the common good and valuing human dignity?

A.) global perspective

B.) corporate social responsibility

C.) long-term values

D.) collectivism

A

B.) corporate social responsibility

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48
Q

(CH.2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic reasons for the rise in the volume of international business?

A.) advances in communication and transportation technologies

B.) the ease with which companies can obtain financing

C.) a desire to keep pace with competitors gaining market share

D.) a need to control labor costs by moving operations overseas

A

B.) the ease with which companies can obtain financing

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49
Q

(CH.2) What type of policy explains what data the company will collect about its customers, how that data will be used, and how customers can opt out of having their information collected and/or shared?

A.) confidentiality

B.) privacy

C.) corporate social responsibility

D.) ethics

A

B.) privacy

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50
Q

(CH.2) Types of Diversity

A

Surface level

Deep level

Separation

Variety

Disparity

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51
Q

(CH.2) Generations by Birth Year

A

Seniors 1922–1943

Baby boomers 1943–1963

Gen X 1964–1980

Gen Y (Millennials) 1980–2000

Gen Z (iGen) 2000 to present

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52
Q

Performance =

A

Motivation x Ability x Environment

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53
Q

(CH2.) Barriers to Inclusion

A

“Like me” bias

Stereotypes

Prejudice

Perceived threat of loss

Ethnocentrism

Unequal access to organizational networks

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54
Q

(CH.2) A willingness to be open to and learn from the alternative systems and meanings of other people and cultures, and a capacity to avoid assuming that people from everywhere are the same

A

Global Perspective

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55
Q

(CH.2) Refers to the methods used to create products, including both physical goods and intangible services.

A

Technology

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56
Q

(CH.2) Three Specific Areas of Technology

A

1.) the shift toward a service-based economy,

2.) the growing use of technology for competitive advantage, and

3.) mushrooming change in information technology

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57
Q

(CH.2) A form of business that combines and transforms resources into tangible outcomes that are then sold to others.

A

Manufacturing

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58
Q

(CH.2) A form of business that transforms resources into an intangible output and creates time or place utility for its customers.

A

Service Organization

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59
Q

(CH.2) A person’s beliefs regarding what is right or wrong in a given situation

A

Ethics

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60
Q

(CH.2) The oversight of a public corporation by its board of directors.

A

Corporate Governance

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61
Q

(CH.2) Businesses living and working together for the common good and valuing human dignity.

A

Corporate Social Responsibility

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62
Q

(CH.2) Those employees who add value in an organization simply because of what they know

A

Knowledge Workers

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63
Q

(CH.2) People prefer to associate with others they perceive to be like themselves (Barriers to Inclusion)

A

The “Like Me” Bias

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64
Q

(CH.2) A belief about an individual or a group based on the idea that everyone in a particular group will behave the same way or have the same characteristics (Barriers to Inclusion)

A

Stereotypes

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65
Q

(CH.2) Outright bigotry or intolerance for other groups (Barriers to Inclusion)

A

Prejudice

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66
Q

(CH.2) If some employees perceive a direct threat to their own career opportunities, they may feel that they need to protect their own prospects by impeding diversity efforts (Barriers to Inclusion)

A

Perceived Threat of Loss

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67
Q

(CH.2) The belief that one’s own language, native country, and cultural rules and norms are superior to all others (Barriers to Inclusion)

A

Ethnocentrism

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68
Q

(CH.2) Women and minorities are often excluded from organizational networks, which can be important to job performance, mentoring opportunities, and being seen as a candidate for promotion (Barriers to Inclusion)

A

Unequal Access to Organizational Networks

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69
Q

(CH.2) Globalization Trends

A

communication / transportation

increased market share

control costs

competition

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70
Q

(CH.2) A set of shared values that help people in a group, organization, or society understand which actions are considered acceptable and which are deemed unacceptable

A

Culture

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71
Q

(CH.2) The ability to interact effectively with people of different cultures

A

Cultural Competence

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72
Q

(CH.2) Four Components of Cultural Competence

A

Awareness of our worldview and our reactions to people who are different

Our attitude toward differences

Knowledge of different worldviews and cultural practices

Cross-cultural skills

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73
Q

(CH.14) Which production technology is characterized by a tall bureaucratic structure with a large managerial span of control?

A.) small batch

B.) custom

C.) mass

D.) unit

A

C.) mass

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74
Q

(CH.14) The process of selecting and managing aspects of organizational structure and culture to enable the organization to achieve its goals is called organizational __________.

A.) span of control

B.) centralization

C.) design

D.) formalization

A

C.) design

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75
Q

(CH.14) The way in which task reporting and authority relationships interact as a system determines an organization’s __________.

A.) hierarchy

B.) strategy

C.) structure

D.) division of labor

A

C.) structure

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76
Q

(CH.14) Which is typical of companies with a prebureaucratic structure?

A.) grouping of people with like skills into departments

B.) established hierarchies and formal divisions of labor

C.) early control of organizational decisions and growth

D.) organized functions around particular products

A

C.) early control of organizational decisions and growth

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77
Q

(CH.14) Which of the following statements characterizes mechanistic organizations?

A.) They have less clear lines of authority.

B.) They are flexible, decentralized, and quickly adaptable.

C.) They have formal rules and regulations for decision making.

D.) They can respond quickly to changing market conditions.

A

C.) They have formal rules and regulations for decision making.

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78
Q

(CH.14) An organization that contracts out almost all of its functions except for the company name and managing the coordination among the contractors

A

Virtual Organization

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79
Q

(CH.14) Groups of people whose shared expertise and interest in a joint enterprise informally bind them together

A

Communities of Practice

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80
Q

(CH.14) A diagram of the chain of command and reporting relationships in a company

A

Organizational Chart

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81
Q

(CH.14) Characteristics of Organizational Structure

A

Division of Labor

Span of Control

Hierarchy

Formalization

Centralization

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82
Q

(CH.14) The degree to which employees specialize (Characteristics of Organizational Structure)

A

Division of Labor

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83
Q

(CH.14) The number of people reporting directly to an individual (Characteristics of Organizational Structure)

A

Span of Control

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84
Q

(CH.14) The degree to which some employees have formal authority over others (Characteristics of Organizational Structure)

A

Hierarchy

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85
Q

(CH.14) Reflects the extent to which organizational rules, procedures, and communications are written down (Characteristics of Organizational Structure)

A

Formalization

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86
Q

(CH.14) Is the degree to which power and decision-making authority are concentrated at high levels of the organization rather than distributed (Characteristics of Organizational Structure)

A

Centralization

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87
Q

(CH.14) True or False:
Decentralized organizations give lower levels more authority and autonomy for making decisions.

A

True

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88
Q

(CH.14) When integrating employees, under what structure do managers from different units informally work together to coordinate or to identify and solve shared problems?

A.) liaison roles

B.) permanent task forces

C.) cross-functional teams

D.) direct contact

A

D.) direct contact

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89
Q

(CH.14) Creating smaller units within a larger organization can increase which of the following benefits?

A.) flexibility

B.) economies of scale

C.) coordination

D.) lower costs

A

A.) flexibility

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90
Q

(CH.14) Which of the following statements about communities of practice is true?

A.) They usually are officially referenced on organizational charts.

B.) They can use the company intranet to cultivate a sense of community.

C.) They are able to operate independent of any management.

D.) They are generally not recognized by executive leadership.

A

B.) They can use the company intranet to cultivate a sense of community.

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91
Q

(CH.14) Which of the following conditions is NOT true for virtual organizations?

A.) Career paths are challenging for virtual employees.

B.) Companies gain competitive advantages from them.

C.) They tend to be very simple.

D.) They can exist without a permanent physical office.

A

C.) They tend to be very simple.

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92
Q

(CH.14) For multinational organizations, which type of structure is best when both global integration and local responsiveness are needed?

A.) global area division

B.) global transnational division

C.) regional headquarters

D.) global product division

A

B.) global transnational division

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93
Q

(CH.14) The process of selecting and managing aspects of organizational structure and culture to enable the organization to achieve its goals.

A

Organizational Design

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94
Q

(CH.14) The formal system of task, power, and reporting relationships.

A

Organizational Structure

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95
Q

(CH.14) Why do Organizational Structure & Design matter for Organizational Behavior?

A

It increases commitment, performance, communication, trust, motivation, and satisfaction

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96
Q

(CH.14) What Influences Organizational Structure?

A

Business Strategy

External Environment

Organizational Talent

Organizational Size

Behavioral Expectations

Production Technology

Organizational Change

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97
Q

(CH.14) True or False:

Finance and Marketing are the necessary activities and resources to achieve goals (Designing the Organization)

A

False

Finance, Marketing, and OPERATIONS are the necessary activities and resources to achieve goals

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98
Q

(CH.14) True or False:

Dividing work into specialized jobs decreases work efficiency.

A

False

Dividing work into specialized jobs INCREASES work efficiency.

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99
Q

(CH.14) True or False:

The increased specialization of employees in each division also decreases organizational flexibility.

A

True

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100
Q

(CH.14) Rigid, traditional bureaucracies with centralized power and hierarchical communications

A

Mechanistic Organizations

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101
Q

(CH.14) Flexible, decentralized structures with less clear lines of authority, decentralized power, open communication channels, and a focus on adaptability in helping employees accomplish goals

A

Organic Organizations

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102
Q

(CH.14) Assigning tasks to a recipient

A

Delegating

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103
Q

(CH.15) True or False

Industry does not influence an organization’s culture

A

False

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104
Q

(CH.15) How can intranets be used to reflect an open and positive organizational culture in a large company with multiple workgroups?

A.) They can be narrow in scope and reflect a respect for privacy of information.

B.) They can use stories and symbols to craft the organization’s image.

C.) They can be carefully edited to avoid uncomfortable feedback.

D.) They can vary in appearance and level of information for different departments.

A

B.) They can use stories and symbols to craft the organization’s image.

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105
Q

(CH.15) Which of the following is NOT an element that makes up an organization’s culture?

A.) trust and positive relationships

B.) shared values, norms, and assumptions

C.) how employees get work done

D.) span of control

A

D.) span of control

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106
Q

(CH.15) You have been hired as CEO of a new company focused on providing home health services. What could you do to establish a strong and positive organizational culture?

A.) embrace the company’s enacted values and norms

B.) let the culture develop organically

C.) delegate to subordinates the power to maintain culture

D.) craft organizational vision, values, and goals

A

D.) craft organizational vision, values, and goals

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107
Q

(CH.15) Anne works for a traditional manufacturing firm. What is the most common means of developing innovation in such an organization?

A.) organizational socialization

B.) corporate research

C.) entrepreneurship

D.) entrepreneurship

A

B.) corporate research

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108
Q

(CH.15) Far Horizons, Inc. has experienced a lot of absenteeism and turnover among employees, particularly among ethnic and religious minorities. Management decided to implement several policies to better reflect its values of nondiscrimination and respect for everyone. Which of the following steps could it take to create a culture of inclusion?

A.) Adjust working hours to accommodate workers’ personal needs.

B.) Give everyone the week off between Christmas and New Year’s Day.

C.) Survey customers on social media about their perceptions of organizational culture.

D.) Explain to employees why they need to be kind and respectful.

A

A.) Adjust working hours to accommodate workers’ personal needs.

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109
Q

(CH.15) The process through which individuals learn what constitutes polite and acceptable behavior is called __________.

A.) entrepreneurship

B.) innovation

C.) culture

D.) socialization

A

D.) socialization

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110
Q

(CH. 15) True or False

A strong culture is always desirable

A

False

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111
Q

(CH.15) Which of the following statements is true about the importance of organizational culture?

A.) A good business strategy will override corporate culture.

B.) A strong culture is always desirable.

C.) Culture can give competitive advantages.

D.) Culture should emphasize results and growth.

A

C.) Culture can give competitive advantages.

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112
Q

(CH.15) Which of the following statements indicates an accurate understanding of organizational culture?

A.) People who can do well in one organization can do well pretty much anywhere.

B.) Within an organization, people explicitly tell newcomers how to adhere to the culture.

C.) Skills and experience are way more important in hiring than how a person fits in.

D.) Strong organizational cultures aren’t necessarily associated with high performance.

A

D.) Strong organizational cultures aren’t necessarily associated with high performance.

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113
Q

(CH.15) Because of their many layers of authority and strong bureaucracy, hospitals tend to have conflict cultures that are characterized by withholding information and withdrawing from work when there’s conflict. What type of conflict culture is this?

A.) passive-aggressive

B.) dominating

C.) collaborative

D.) avoidant

A

A.) passive-aggressive

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114
Q

(CH.15) Which of the following is NOT an element of managing organization culture?

A.) criticizing the organization culture

B.) changing the organization culture

C.) taking advantage of the existing culture

D.) teaching the organization culture

A

A.) criticizing the organization culture

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115
Q

(CH.15) A system of shared values, norms, and assumptions that guide members’ attitudes and behaviors.

A

Organizational Culture

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116
Q

(CH.15) Shared Norms for Managing Conflict

A

Conflict Cultures

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117
Q

(CH.3) The manner in which individuals organize facts and data during learning is known as __________.

A.) information processing capacity

B.) emotional intelligence

C.) general mental ability

D.) sensory modalities

A

A.) information processing capacity

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118
Q

(CH.3) In the Myers-Briggs framework, Elena is ISFJ. What would be the best job fit for her?

A.) accountant

B.) artist/designer

C.) dispute resolution

D.) sales/marketing

A

A.) accountant

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119
Q

(CH.3) David is self-aware, manages his emotions, expresses empathy for others, and possesses social skills. He has high __________.

A.) emotional intelligence

B.) self-efficacy

C.) internal locus of control

D.) general mental ability

A

A.) emotional intelligence

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120
Q

(CH.3) Strong job satisfaction, greater task motivation, and better social integration at work all tend to be traits associated with __________.

A.) introversion

B.) external locus of control

C.) extraversion

D.) internal locus of control

A

D.) internal locus of control

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121
Q

(CH.3) Which of the following is a goal of a realistic job preview?

A.) presenting both positive and negative information to the candidate

B.) selling a candidate on the job and the company

C.) describing the job opportunity in the most positive light

D.) presenting only negative information to the candidate

A

A.) presenting both positive and negative information to the candidate

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122
Q

(CH.3) A trait causing a person to behave in ways to gain power and control the behavior of others

A

Machiavellianism

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123
Q

(CH.3) What is a negative effect of workplace bullying?

A.) more victims becoming bullies themselves

B.) lower absenteeism due to fear of missing work

C.) more stress-related health problems for employees

D.) decreased Machiavellianism at work

A

C.) more stress-related health problems for employees

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124
Q

(CH.3) What term refers to the match between an individual and her supervisor and coworkers?

A.) person-organization fit

B.) person-vocation fit

C.) person-group fit

D.) person-job fit

A

C.) person-group fit

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125
Q

(CH.3) Which of the following traits is characteristic of people with a high degree of Machiavellianism?

A.) acceptance of social influence

B.) tendency to bully others

C.) emphasis on loyalty and friendship

D.) orientation toward irrational thought

A

B.) tendency to bully others

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126
Q

(CH.3) Dan works as a receptionist. He’s happy with his salary, he gets along well with his coworkers and his boss, he feels no stress, and he assumes he can get all of his tasks done proficiently. However, he feels unfulfilled and hopes to get a different job soon. Which of the following does Dan lack?

A.) person-job fit

B.) person-vocation fit

C.) person-group fit

D.) person-organization fit

A

B.) person-vocation fit

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127
Q

(CH.3) Which of the following traits is NOT considered a positive in organizational settings?

A.) high conscientiousness

B.) extraversion

C.) high agreeableness

D.) more neurotic

A

D.) more neurotic

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128
Q

(CH.3) Hiring Process

A

Step One: Position Needed

Step Two: Obtain Applicants

Step Three: Receive and Review

Step Four: Interviews

Step Five: Reference Check

Step Six: The Offer!

Step Seven: Follow Up

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129
Q

(CH.3) A relatively stable set of psychological attributes that distinguish one person from another.

A

Personality

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130
Q

(CH.3) The Big 5 Personality Assessment

A

Agreeableness: The ability to get along with others

Conscientiousness: The ability to be counted on to get things done

Neuroticism: Experiencing anger, anxiety, moodiness/insecurity

Extraversion: Comfort level with relationships

Openness: The capacity to entertain new ideas and to change as a result of new information

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130
Q

(CH.3) The Big 5 Personality Assessment

A

Agreeableness: The ability to get along with others

Conscientiousness: The ability to be counted on to get things done

Neuroticism: Experiencing anger, anxiety, moodiness/insecurity

Extraversion: Comfort level with relationships

Openness: The capacity to entertain new ideas and to change as a result of new information

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131
Q

(CH.3) The Myers-Briggs Framework

A

Extroversion (E)/Introversion (I)

Sensing (S)/Intuition (N)

Thinking (T)/Feeling (F)

Judging (J)/Perceiving (P)

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132
Q

(CH.3) The belief that power and status differences are appropriate within hierarchical social systems such as organizations

A

Authoritarianism

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133
Q

(CH.3) The extent to which one believes one’s circumstances are a function of either one’s own actions or of external factors beyond one’s control

A

Locus of Control

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134
Q

(CH.3) The degree to which a person is comfortable with risk and is willing to take chances and make risky decisions

A

Tolerance for Risk

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135
Q

(CH.3) The capacity to rapidly and fluidly acquire, process, and apply information.

A

General Mental Ability

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136
Q

(CH.3) Multiple Intelligences

A

Linguistic

Logical

Musical

Bodily

Spatial

Interpersonal

Intrapersonal

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137
Q

(CH.3) Sensory Modalities

A

Visual - See

Auditory - Hear

Touch - Tactile

Kinesthetic - Do

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138
Q

(CH.3) Learning Style Orientations

A

Discovery

Experiential

Observational

Structured

Group

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139
Q

(CH.4) Juanita, the department manager, realizes that Kevin is missing from work and didn’t call in sick. She assumes something beyond Kevin’s control must have happened. This belief is an example of __________.

A.) selective perception

B.) halo effect

C.) stereotyping

D.) contrast effect

A

A.) selective perception

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140
Q

(CH.4) Attributing our own characteristics to other people is termed __________.

A.) projection

B.) a self-fulfilling prophecy

C.) attribution

D.) self-handicapping

A

A.) projection

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141
Q

(CH.4) Which stress stage is triggered when we first encounter a stressor?

A.) alarm

B.) termination

C.) resistance

D.) exhaustion

A

A.) alarm

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142
Q

(CH.4) What type of stress results because of happy events that lead to pleasurable emotions, including satisfaction, excitement, and enjoyment?

A.) demand

B.) adaptation

C.) behavioral

D.) eustress

A

D.) eustress

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143
Q

(CH.4) Which of the following is an organizational consequence of prolonged stress?

A.) People stop complaining about unimportant things.

B.) People will take shorter lunch breaks to compensate.

C.) People call in sick more often and quit their jobs.

D.) People can actually become more productive.

A

C.) People call in sick more often and quit their jobs.

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144
Q

(CH.4) What term refers to a general tendency of an individual to experience a particular mood or to react to things in a particular way or with certain emotions?

A.) affectivity

B.) burnout

C.) personality

D.) intelligence

A

A.) affectivity

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145
Q

(CH.4) What term refers to feeling obliged to stay with an organization for moral or ethical reasons?

A.) normative commitment

B.) affective commitment

C.) legal commitment

D.) continuance commitment

A

A.) normative commitment

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146
Q

(CH.4) Which of the following scenarios is an example of intrapersonal value conflict?

A.) You have a disagreement with your coworkers that prevents you from being productive.

B.) You love spending time with family, but ambition makes you work longer hours to get a raise.

C.) You want a promotion, but your supervisor refuses to recognize your work and successes.

D.) You believe honesty is important, but the company you work for is avoiding paying taxes.

A

B.) You love spending time with family, but ambition makes you work longer hours to get a raise.

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147
Q

(CH.4) Imagine you just bought a cable installation company that routinely treats its residential customers poorly. You want your company to satisfy customers but it promises a certain connectivity speed that isn’t realistic in most homes. It says it will send repair people within a certain time window, but when they get tied up and are running late, no one calls the customers. You hear complaints every time you answer the phone. What approach would be most likely to resolve your cognitive dissonance?

A.) You can quit this job and go to work in another industry altogether.

B.) You can continue to believe in customer service but not make changes.

C.) You can purchase and start to use new software for scheduling repairs and calls.

D.) You can stop answering the phone.

A

C.) You can purchase and start to use new software for scheduling repairs and calls.

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148
Q

(CH.4) Craig is unhappy with his job, but he’s been with Spearhead Associates for seven years and won’t be vested in his pension for another three years. What type of commitment does he have to the organization?

A.) continuance commitment

B.) normative commitment

C.) affective commitment

D.) community commitment

A

A.) continuance commitment

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149
Q

(CH.4) Personal attributes that vary from one person to another.

A

Individual Differences

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150
Q

(CH.4) A person’s complexes of beliefs and feelings about specific ideas, situations, and other people.

A

ATTITUDES

151
Q

(CH.4) Reflect our long-term life goals and may include prosperity, happiness, a secure family, and a sense of accomplishment

A

Terminal Values

152
Q

(CH.4) Our preferred means of achieving our terminal values or our preferred ways of behaving

A

Instrumental Values

153
Q

(CH.4) Conflict between the instrumental value of ambition and the terminal value of happiness

A

Intrapersonal Value Conflict

154
Q

(CH.4) Occur when two different people hold conflicting values

A

Interpersonal Value Conflicts

155
Q

(CH.4) When an employee’s values conflict with the values of the organization

A

Individual–Organization Value Conflict

156
Q

(CH.4) Intense, short-term physiological, behavioral, and psychological reactions to a specific object, person, or event that prepare us to respond to it

A

Emotions

157
Q

(CH.4) Short-term emotional states that are not directed toward anything in particular

A

Moods

158
Q

(CH.4) The set of processes by which an individual becomes aware of and interprets information about the environment

A

Perception

159
Q

(CH.4) When we evaluate our own or another person’s characteristics through comparisons with other people we have recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.

A

The Contrast Effect

160
Q

(CH.4) The way we explain the causes of our own as well as other people’s behaviors and achievements, and understand why people do what they do

A

Attribution

161
Q

(CH.4) An incompatibility or conflict between behavior and an attitude or between two different attitudes.

A

Cognitive Dissonance

162
Q

(CH.4) How to Resolve Cognitive Dissonance

A

Change behavior

Reasoning

Change attitude

Seek additional information

163
Q

(CH.4) Ways of behaving or end-states that are desirable to a person or to a group.

A

Values

164
Q

(CH.4) Refers to employees’ perceptions of organizational events, policies, and practices as being fair or not fair

A

Organizational Fairness

165
Q

(CH.4) Refers to the perceived fairness of the outcome received, including resource distributions, promotions, hiring and layoff decisions, and raises

A

Distributive Fairness

166
Q

(CH.4) Addresses the fairness of the procedures used to generate the outcome

A

Procedural Fairness

167
Q

(CH.4) Whether the amount of information about the decision and the process was adequate, and the perceived fairness of the interpersonal treatment and explanations received during the decision-making process

A

Interactional Fairness

168
Q

(CH.5) Which of the following is NOT a condition of job performance?

A.) being able to provide self-direction

B.) having the materials and information to do the job

C.) being able to do the job

D.) wanting to do the job

A

A.) being able to provide self-direction

169
Q

(CH.5) Which dimension of task-specific self-efficacy refers to beliefs about how confident the person is that the task can be accomplished?

A.) performance

B.) generality

C.) magnitude

D.) strength

A

D.) strength

170
Q

(CH.5) According to the cognitive view, which of the following is NOT a behavior a person would adopt in order to become a conscious, active participant in their own learning?

A.) use past learning as a way to decide their present behavior

B.) make choices about behavior based on assessing alternatives

C.) look at consequences and ignore them if necessary to be happy

D.) let future choices be based on prior learning and consequences

A

C.) look at consequences and ignore them if necessary to be happy

171
Q

(CH.5) Jamal just began a new job. At first, he is highly formal and addresses people as Mr. or Ms. However, his coworkers don’t react warmly to this approach. Therefore, Jamal changes to a more informal style based on the consequences of his actions and discovers that people seem friendlier and more relaxed around him. In learning theory, the coworkers’ actions would be known as __________.

A.) response

B.) social learning

C.) linkage

D.) reinforcement

A

D.) reinforcement

172
Q

(CH.5) Herzberg’s two-factor theory identifies motivating factors for business organizations. Which of the following is a hygiene factor that management could control so that employees aren’t dissatisfied with their jobs?

A.) responsibility

B.) recognition

C.) working conditions

D.) advancement

A

C.) working conditions

173
Q

(CH.5) Which of the following is an early perspective on motivation that suggested fostering a false sense of employees’ inclusion in decision making would boost job performance?

A.) human resource approach

B.) Frederick Taylor’s approach

C.) scientific management

D.) human relations approach

A

D.) human relations approach

174
Q

(CH.5) Which of the following is a characteristic of individuals who have a high need for achievement, according to the acquired needs framework?

A.) They are able to delegate in order to make the best use of their own time.

B.) They are able to work hard and then set work aside to play hard.

C.) They want immediate, specific feedback on their performance.

D.) They set overly challenging goals and like to take on high risk levels.

A

C.) They want immediate, specific feedback on their performance.

175
Q

(CH.5) Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in forming equity perceptions?

A.) Compare one’s own circumstances with those of a comparison-other.

B.) Satisfy physiological needs before growth needs.

C.) Evaluate how one is being treated by an organization.

D.) Form a perception of how a comparison-other is being treated.

A

B.) Satisfy physiological needs before growth needs.

176
Q

(CH.5) Which of the following are “growth needs” in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A.) security and belonging

B.) physiological and security

C.) esteem and security

D.) self-actualization and esteem

A

D.) self-actualization and esteem

177
Q

(CH.5) According to equity theory, a person who feels equitably treated is motivated to ________.

A.) devote less effort to work

B.) look harder for signs of inequity

C.) change the way things are

D.) keep things as they are

A

D.) keep things as they are

178
Q

(CH.6) What is the central feature of a 360-degree feedback system?

A.) wide-ranging feedback, as well as subjective measures of performance

B.) objective and easily measurable performance standards

C.) a one-on-one meeting between the employee and the supervisor

D.) both constructive feedback and destructive criticism

A

A.) wide-ranging feedback, as well as subjective measures of performance

179
Q

(CH.6) What term refers to the degree to which employees have the authority to set their own work goals, make decisions, and solve problems?

A.) empowerment

B.) participation

C.) collaboration

D.) expectancy

A

A.) empowerment

180
Q

(CH.6) Pensions are an example of __________.

A.) a profit-sharing plan

B.) indirect compensation

C.) an award

D.) perquisites

A

B.) indirect compensation

181
Q

(CH.6) Which of the following is NOT a method companies use to improve job design?

A.) giving employees more control over tasks

B.) shifting employees from one job to another

C.) raising pay for most standardized jobs

D.) introducing a wider variety of tasks

A

C.) raising pay for most standardized jobs

182
Q

(CH.6) You manage a work group of ten secretaries who take turns answering phones, sorting mail, and typing and filing correspondence. Using the job characteristics theory, how can you assure that this team is happy and productive?

A.) Break the job down into small component tasks and standardize them.

B.) Promote the best workers into lower-level management positions.

C.) Provide bonuses for low absenteeism and for staying with the company.

D.) Give them autonomy in deciding how to organize the workload

A

D.) Give them autonomy in deciding how to organize the workload

183
Q

(CH.6) Albert works as a salesperson making $18 an hour plus 5% of every sale he makes. He receives two weeks of paid vacation a year, as well as 50% matching in a 401K retirement fund. In this scenario, $18 an hour represents Albert’s __________.

A.) commissions

B.) perquisites

C.) base pay

D.) compensation package

A

C.) base pay

184
Q

(CH.6) What makes job specialization difficult to implement, even though it seems as if it would be highly effective?

A.) monotony associated with each task

B.) high cost of dividing labor among tasks

C.) increased demands placed on each worker

D.) high level of expertise required to fulfill each task

A

A.) monotony associated with each task

185
Q

(CH.6) What is the second step in the performance appraisal process?

A.) compensation

B.) evaluation

C.) communication

D.) documentation

A

D.) documentation

186
Q

(CH.6) Why does the work teams approach tend to be more effective in countries such as Japan and Sweden?

A.) They offer an extended work schedule.

B.) They are more effective at empowerment.

C.) Their work and rewards are team centered.

D.) They emphasize individual responsibility.

A

C.) Their work and rewards are team centered.

187
Q

(CH.6) According to goal-setting theory, which of the following strategies is NOT likely to result in improved performance?

A.) establishing goals that will encourage worker acceptance

B.) holding employees accountable for goals they were involved in setting

C.) setting unspecified goals so that workers can establish their own measures

D.) setting goals that are challenging and require effort

A

C.) setting unspecified goals so that workers can establish their own measures

188
Q

(CH.7) Command Workgroups

A

Relatively permanent

Formal

Organizational chart

189
Q

(CH.7) Affinity Workgroups

A

Relatively permanent

Informal

Not on organizational chart

190
Q

(CH.7) Group Performance Factors

A

Composition

Size

Norms

Cohesiveness *

Informal Leadership

191
Q

(CH.7) A formal group formed by an organization to do its work

A

Workgroups

192
Q

(CH.7) A relatively permanent, formal group with functional reporting relationships and is usually included in the organization chart

A

Command Group

193
Q

(CH.7) Collections of employees from the same level in the organization who meet on a regular basis to share information, capture emerging opportunities, and solve problems

A

Affinity Groups

194
Q

(CH.7) TRUE or FALSE
In business organizations, most employees work in command groups, as typically specified on an official organization chart.

A

TRUE

195
Q

(CH.7) TRUE or FALSE
Affinity Groups are typically a part of the organizational hierarchy

A

FALSE

196
Q

(CH.7) A team whose members come from the same department or function area

A

Functional Teams

197
Q

(CH.7) A team whose members come from different departments or functional areas

A

Cross-Functional Teams

198
Q

(CH.7) Teams established to solve problems and make improvements at work

A

Problem-Solving Teams

199
Q

(CH.7) Teams that set their own goals and pursue them in ways decided by the team

A

Self-Directed Teams

200
Q

(CH.7) Teams that operate semi-autonomously to create and develop new products (product development teams), processes (process design teams), or businesses (venture teams)

A

Venture Teams

201
Q

(CH.7) Teams with members from different countries

A

Global Teams

202
Q

(CH.7) Is relatively permanent and informal and draws its benefits from the social relationships among its members

A

Friendship Groups

203
Q

(CH.7) Is relatively temporary and informal and is organized around a common activity or interest of its members

A

Interest Groups

204
Q

(CH.7) The degree of similarity or difference among group members on factors important to the group’s work

A

Group Composition

205
Q

(CH.7) TRUE or FALSE
Groups with members of different ages and experiences tend to experience frequent changes in membership.

A

TRUE

206
Q

(CH.7) TRUE or FALSE
A homogeneous group tends to have more conflict, more differences of opinion, rougher communication, and less interactions.

A

FALSE
A homogeneous group tends to have LESS conflict, FEWER differences of opinion, SMOOTHER communication, and MORE interactions.

207
Q

(CH.8) Three levels of Decision-Making

A

Strategic
(Merge, new product, downsize
CEO / top management)

Tactical
(How market; how communicate decisions
Manager)

Operational
(What to tell customers about new product; how to balance new work with current
Employee)

208
Q

(CH.8) Decision-Making Process

A

1.) State the issue or
problem

2.) Establish and weigh
the criteria

3.) Generate options

4.) Evaluate options

5.) Select Best

6.) Implement

7.) Review decision

209
Q

(CH.7) A team of Americans and Koreans are working on resolving problems at Korean Air. Tim, an American and a team leader from Houston, understands in advance that there will be cultural challenges in this arrangement. What should he be sensitive to in dealing with his Korean counterparts?

A.) The Koreans are more likely to bypass senior managers and freely express their ideas.

B.) The Koreans may not openly disagree with Tim because of his position of authority.

C.) The Koreans will be willing to directly answer questions about their preferences.

D.) The Koreans will want to get closure each day and move on to the next agenda item.

A

B.) The Koreans may not openly disagree with Tim because of his position of authority.

210
Q

(CH.7) The Green River Furniture Company has a group comprised of the managers of the sales, warehousing, manufacturing, and shipping departments. It has a group manager and is not included in the company’s organization chart. This type of group is known as a __________.

A.) functional group

B.) command group

C.) affinity group

D.) common interest group

A

C.) affinity group

211
Q

(CH.7) Which of the following is a core strength of problem-solving teams?

A.) They take advantage of employees’ expertise by grouping employees who do the actual work.

B.) They save the company money by communicating using the Internet and other information technologies.

C.) Employees can bond from long-standing relationships.

D.) They can come up with creative products and solutions by operating semi-autonomously.

A

A.) They take advantage of employees’ expertise by grouping employees who do the actual work.

212
Q

(CH.7) Informational diversity has a __________ impact on team performance; demographic diversity often has a __________ impact.

A.) positive, positive

B.) negative, positive

C.) positive, negative

D.) negative, negative

A

C.) positive, negative

213
Q

(CH.7) What term refers to the performance improvements that occur because people work together rather than independently?

A.) process loss

B.) process gain

C.) team efficacy

D.) cohesiveness

A

B.) process gain

214
Q

(CH.7) Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic group performance factors?

A.) cooperation

B.) informal leadership

C.) cohesiveness

D.) composition

A

A.) cooperation

215
Q

(CH.7) After management at Cascade Geotechnical decided to adopt a teams approach to problem solving, the firm benefitted in many ways. Which of the following items was an organizational benefit?

A.) Employees had the opportunity to be self-determining.

B.) It eliminated redundant layers of bureaucracy.

C.) Absenteeism and turnover both declined significantly.

D.) There was less use of employee assistance programs.

A

B.) It eliminated redundant layers of bureaucracy.

216
Q

(CH.7) Implementation of teams is a five-phase process. At one phase in the process, there is a danger that a team will become so internally focused that it may stop communicating with other teams or even develop rivalries with other teams. At which step is this likely to occur?

A.) leader-centered

B.) tightly formed

C.) reality and unrest

D.) start-up

A

B.) tightly formed

217
Q

(CH.7) You are worried about some of the costs associated with shifting to a team approach. Which of the following factors is a legitimate concern?

A.) Teams take a fair amount of work but have a relatively short lifespan.

B.) Some employees may feel concerned that their jobs are in jeopardy.

C.) Managers may take their desirable new skills as coaches to a competitor.

D.) It can be hard to attract younger workers, who tend to prefer workplaces with traditional manager-based systems.

A

B.) Some employees may feel concerned that their jobs are in jeopardy.

218
Q

(CH.7) Which of the following factors is associated with a high level of group cohesiveness?

A.) individualism

B.) large size

C.) external threats

D.) recent composition

A

C.) external threats

219
Q

(CH.8) Which of the following identifies post-decision dissonance?

A.) staying with a decision even when it appears wrong

B.) an innate belief about something without conscious consideration

C.) doubt about a choice that has been made

D.) more extreme post-discussion attitudes

A

C.) doubt about a choice that has been made

220
Q

(CH.8) Divergent thinking is a skill that allows people to see __________ situations, phenomena, or events.

A.) similarities among

B.) differences among

C.) the limits and benefits of

D.) a meaningful subset of information about

A

B.) differences among

221
Q

(CH.8) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the difference between decision making and problem solving?

A.) When solving a problem, you must find the answer to a question.

B.) When making a decision, you must evaluate various outcomes in terms of a goal.

C.) When making a decision, you must choose from among various alternatives.

D.) When solving a problem, you must choose from among various alternatives.

A

D.) When solving a problem, you must choose from among various alternatives.

222
Q

(CH.8) Nonprogrammed decisions require managers to use good judgment and __________.

A.) procedures

B.) clear and specific goals

C.) decision rules

D.) creativity

A

D.) creativity

223
Q

(CH.8) Which term refers to the ability of an individual to generate new ideas?

A.) creativity

B.) decision making

C.) contingent thinking

D.) empowerment

A

A.) creativity

224
Q

(CH.8) Stephen needs to decide about whether or not to promote his firm’s new sportswear line. He knows that his sportswear company’s ad campaign will result in the firm earning profits of $575,000. He also knows that if he doesn’t run the ad campaign, his company will earn only $100,000. What type of condition is he operating under?

A.) condition of uncertainty

B.) condition of suboptimizing

C.) condition of certainty

D.) condition of risk

A

C.) condition of certainty

225
Q

(CH.8) If you decide to take a break and go for a hike in order to focus less consciously on the creative process, which stage in the creative process are you experiencing?

A.) insight

B.) incubation

C.) preparation

D.) verification

A

B.) incubation

226
Q

(CH.8) A contingency plan specifies what will be done if __________.

A.) it is necessary to satisfice

B.) there is post-decision dissonance

C.) the primary plan is disrupted

D.) the primary plan is successful

A

C.) the primary plan is disrupted

227
Q

(CH.8) According to prospect theory, people are more strongly motivated by __________ than by __________.

A.) personal gains, ethics

B.) potential losses, potential gains

C.) potential gains, potential losses

D.) ethics, personal gains

A

C.) potential gains, potential losses

228
Q

(CH.8) What is the goal of brainstorming?

A.) gather judgments from noted experts to help develop forecasts

B.) produce new ideas and solutions by stimulating group members’ creativity

C.) identify “mindguards” who can protect the group from adverse information

D.) provide the resolution to a problem or a decision

A

B.) produce new ideas and solutions by stimulating group members’ creativity

229
Q

(CH.8) Decision Making: Three Levels

A

Strategic
Merge, new product, downsize
CEO / top management

Tactical
How market; how communicate decisions
Manager

Operational
What to tell customers about new product; how to balance new work
with current
Employee

230
Q

(CH.8) Two Types of Decision-Making

A

Programmed

Nonprogrammed

231
Q

(CH.8) Decision Making Approaches

A

Rational

Behavioral

232
Q

(CH.8) Rational Approach to Decision-Making

A

A systematic, step-by-step process

Use when making an important decision
and best outcome is necessary

Evidence-Based Management (EBM)

Identify and utilize the best theory and data available

233
Q

(CH.8) Behavioral Approach to Decision-Making

A

Role and importance of human behavior

Administrative Model = Bounded Rationality

  • suboptimizing * satisficing
234
Q

(CH.8) the decision maker cannot know with certainty what the outcome of a given action will be but has enough information to estimate the probabilities of various outcomes

A

Condition of Risk

235
Q

(CH.8) The decision maker who lacks enough information to estimate the probability of outcomes

A

Condition of Uncertainty

236
Q

(CH.8) The manager knows the outcomes of each alternative

A

Condition of Certainty

237
Q

(CH.8) Assumes that managers follow a systematic, step-by-step process

A

Rational Decision-Making Approach

238
Q

(CH.8) Doubt about a choice that has already been made

A

Post-decision Dissonance

239
Q

(CH.8) Evidence-Based Management (EBM)

A

The commitment to identify and utilize the best theory and data available to make decisions

240
Q

(CH.8) Argues that managers use bounded rationality, rules of thumb, suboptimizing, and satisficing in making decisions

A

Administrative Model of Decision Making

241
Q

(CH.8) Idea that decision makers cannot deal with information about all the aspects and alternatives pertaining to a problem and therefore choose to tackle some meaningful subset of it

A

Bounded Rationality

242
Q

(Ch.8) Knowingly accepting less than the best possible outcome to avoid unintended negative effects on other aspects of the organization

A

Suboptimizing

243
Q

(CH.8) Examining alternatives only until a solution that meets minimal requirements is found

A

Satisficing

244
Q

(CH.8) An informal alliance of individuals or groups formed to achieve a common goal

A

Coalition

245
Q

(CH.8) An innate belief about something without conscious consideration

A

Intuition

246
Q

(CH.8) Occurs when a decision maker stays with a decision even when it appears to be wrong

A

Escalation of Commitment

247
Q

(CH.8) The extent to which a decision maker is willing to gamble in making a decision

A

Risk Propensity

248
Q

(CH.8) A person’s beliefs about what constitutes right and wrong behavior

A

Ethics

249
Q

(CH.8) Argues that when people make decisions under a condition of risk they are more motivated to avoid losses than they are to seek gains

A

Prospect Theory

250
Q

(CH.8) The tendency for a group’s average post-discussion attitudes to be more extreme than its average pre-discussion attitudes

A

Group Polarization

251
Q

(CH.8) A mode of thinking that occurs when members of a group are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group, and the desire for unanimity offsets their motivation to appraise alternative courses of action

A

Groupthink

252
Q

(CH.8) A technique used in the idea-generation phase of decision making that assists in development of numerous alternative courses of action

Members present ideas and clarify them with brief explanations

A

Brainstorming

253
Q

(CH.8) Group members follow a generate–discuss–vote cycle until they reach a decision

A

Nominal Group Technique

254
Q

(CH.8) A method of systematically gathering judgments of experts for use in developing forecasts

A

Delphi Technique

255
Q

(CH.8) Other Forces in Decision Making

A

Political

Intuition

Escalation of Commitment

Risk Propensity

Ethics

Prospect Theory

256
Q

(CH.8) A skill that allows people to see differences between situations, phenomena, or events

A

Divergent Thinking

257
Q

(CH.8) Usually the first stage in the creative process, includes education and formal training

A

Preparation

258
Q

(CH.8) The stage of less-intense conscious concentration during which a creative person lets the knowledge and ideas acquired during preparation mature and develop

A

Incubation

259
Q

(CH.8) The stage in the creative process in which all the scattered thoughts and ideas that were maturing during incubation come together to produce a breakthrough

A

Insight

260
Q

(CH.8) The final stage of the creative process, the validity or truthfulness of the insight is determined

A

Verification

261
Q

(CH.9) Amy has been told she needs to improve her active listening skills. Which strategy would help her to do this?

A.) increase the level of background noise to tune out distractions

B.) closely observe the speaker for changes in tone and body language

C.) ask basic yes/no questions to show signs of comprehension

D.) avoid making too much eye contact so the other person isn’t nervous

A

B.) closely observe the speaker for changes in tone and body language

262
Q

(CH.9) What type of communication occurs when top-level executives in an organization seek feedback from white-collar employees at all levels of the organization?

A.) downward communication

B.) diagonal communication

C.) horizontal communication

D.) upward communication

A

B.) diagonal communication

263
Q

(CH.9) Which of the following is true about media richness?

A.) The more concrete and specific the message, the higher the level of richness that is needed.

B.) Media that are low in number of cues and language variety are low in richness.

C.) Immediate feedback reduces richness by promoting irrelevant and tangential commenting.

D.) Videoconferencing is a good way to save travel time and expense during negotiations.

A

B.) Media that are low in number of cues and language variety are low in richness.

264
Q

(CH.9) What term refers to the encoded information of the communication process?

A.) feedback

B.) decoding

C.) message

D.) channel

A

C.) message

265
Q

(CH.9) Abby has been charged with creating a media strategy with a high level of richness. Currently, her firm uses mainly email and formal written correspondence. Abby’s goals are to increase interactivity and the firm’s ability to communicate multiple cues to customers. Of the following communication media, which could Abby adopt because they are very high in richness?

A.) email and instant messaging

B.) personal written and telephone

C.) videoconferences and face-to-face

D.) telephone and email

A

C.) videoconferences and face-to-face

266
Q

(CH.9) What is one way to enhance horizontal communication?

A.) Subordinates can engage in daily informal contacts with managers.

B.) Have managers provide regular performance reports and updates.

C.) Online videos, wikis, or blogs can be made available to employees.

D.) CEOs can visit various worksites for face-to-face communication.

A

C.) Online videos, wikis, or blogs can be made available to employees.

267
Q

(CH.9) Which of the following barriers to communication is an example of selective perception?

A.) A message isn’t decoded the way the sender intended it.

B.) The message is seen and heard based on expectations.

C.) Information is intentionally withheld, ignored, or distorted.

D.) Something blocks, changes, or distorts the message.

A

B.) The message is seen and heard based on expectations.

268
Q

(CH.9) Relationships with coworkers, bosses, and others we know because of the roles we hold are known as __________.

A.) diagonal ties

B.) formal ties

C.) informal ties

D.) intranets

A

B.) formal ties

269
Q

(CH.9) Which is a useful email guideline that managers can follow to improve business communications?

A.) Reread emails to check for spelling and grammar before sending them.

B.) Respond to each question in an email in separate responses.

C.) Send group emails regularly to keep people informed.

D.) Write elaborate and descriptive message lines for clarity.

A

A.) Reread emails to check for spelling and grammar before sending them.

270
Q

(CH.9) Which of the following defines communication?

A.) the transmission of information from one person to another in order to agree on something

B.) the transmission of information between people that creates a shared understanding and feeling

C.) the conversion of information into a message in the form of symbols, pictures, or words

D.) anything that blocks, distorts, or changes a sender’s message

A

B.) the transmission of information between people that creates a shared understanding and feeling

271
Q

(CH.9) the process of transmitting information from one person to another to create a shared understanding and feeling

A

Communication

272
Q

(CH.9) Converting a thought, idea, or fact into a message composed of symbols, pictures, or words

Occurs when the message sender converts a thought, idea, or fact into a message composed of symbols, pictures, or words.

A

Encoding

273
Q

(CH.9) The encoded information

A

Message

274
Q

(CH.9) The medium used to send the message

A

Channel

275
Q

(CH.9) Translating the message back into something that can be understood by the receiver

A

Decoding

276
Q

(CH.9) A check on the success of the communication

A

Feedback

277
Q

(CH.9) Anything that blocks, distorts, or changes in any way the message the sender intended to communicate

A

Noise

278
Q

(CH.9) The emphasis given to spoken words and phrases

A

Verbal Intonation

279
Q

(CH.9) When we selectively interpret what we see based on our interests, expectations, experience, and attitudes rather than on how things really are

A

Selective Perception

280
Q

(CH.9) How we reduce the amount of information being received to a manageable amount

A

Filtering

281
Q

(CH.9) Barriers to Communication

A

Selective Perception

Misperception

Filtering

Information Overload

Organizational Barriers

Cultural Barriers

Noise

282
Q

(CH.9) Occurs when someone receives requested information

A

Information Pull

283
Q

(CH.9) Occurs when information is received that was not requested

A

Information Push

284
Q

(CH.9) The exchange of information among two or more individuals or groups in an organization that creates a common basis of understanding and feeling

A

Organizational Communication

285
Q

(CH.9) Occurs when higher-level employees communicate to those at lower levels in the organization

A

Downward Communication

286
Q

(CH.9) Occurs when lower-level employees communicate with those at higher levels

A

Upward Communication

287
Q

(CH.9) Occurs when someone in an organization communicates with others at the same organizational level

A

Horizontal Communication

288
Q

(CH.9) When employees communicate across departments and levels

A

Diagonal Communication

289
Q

(CH.10) Which of the following involves an impartial third party who facilitates a discussion using persuasion and logic, establishes each side’s priorities, and suggests a settlement that does not have to be accepted?

A.) mediation

B.) conciliation

C.) arbitration

D.) dictation

A

A.) mediation

290
Q

(CH.10) Which of the following statements is NOT true about the nature of conflict?

A.) Conflict can increase employee commitment.

B.) Conflict can undermine decision quality.

C.) Conflict must be managed correctly.

D.) Conflict is inherently destructive.

A

D.) Conflict is inherently destructive.

291
Q

(CH.10) In which form of alternative dispute resolution does the third party have the authority to impose a settlement on the parties?

A.) arbitration

B.) conciliation

C.) mediation

D.) ombudsman

A

A.) arbitration

292
Q

(CH.10) You disagree with your boss about a decision, and you’re really frustrated. Which of the following strategies would work best to keep this conflict from escalating?

A.) You can focus on the outcomes you want rather than on your boss’s actual position.

B.) You can document your boss’s actions in order to keep a paper trail for future use.

C.) You can avoid talking about the problem because it might lead to angry words.

D.) You can speak separately to other people involved in the conflict to get their support.

A

A.) You can focus on the outcomes you want rather than on your boss’s actual position.

293
Q

(CH.10) Which conflict management style emphasizes problem solving and pursues an outcome that gives both parties what they want?

A.) compromising

B.) competing

C.) avoiding

D.) collaborating

A

D.) collaborating

294
Q

(CH.10) Distributive negotiations occur under zero-sum conditions. What does this mean?

A.) Both sides gain equally under the negotiation so that neither loses.

B.) Any gain by one party is offset by an equivalent loss to the other party.

C.) Any gain by one party is offset by an equivalent win for the other party.

D.) Both sides lose equally under the negotiation so that neither wins.

A

B.) Any gain by one party is offset by an equivalent loss to the other party.

295
Q

(CH.10) When each side sacrifices something in order to end the conflict, this is called __________.

A.) avoiding

B.) competing

C.) compromising

D.) collaborating

A

C.) compromising

296
Q

(CH.10) When mediating a conflict, what does active listening entail?

A.) revealing information to maintain open communication

B.) taking the person’s side to build a relationship

C.) reading the other person’s facial expressions

D.) asking questions designed to get the correct answer

A

C.) reading the other person’s facial expressions

297
Q

(CH.10) Research has shown that managers who have good conflict resolution skills __________ than managers who don’t.

A.) get more promotions

B.) get fewer promotions

C.) use anger more effectively

D.) fare no better in the workplace

A

A.) get more promotions

298
Q

(CH.10) Conflict is most likely to escalate due to __________.

A.) a high degree of task interdependence

B.) differences in people’s values or worldviews

C.) one party involved using aggressive tactics

D.) the uncertainty associated with change

A

C.) one party involved using aggressive tactics

299
Q

(CH.10) A disagreement or tension
among two or more persons.

A

Conflict

300
Q

(CH.10) Sources of Conflict:

A

Task Goals

Process Goals

Interpersonal

Resources

Change

Values

Communication

Task

Interdependence

Organizational

Structure

301
Q

(CH.10) Nine Stages of Conflict Escalation

A

1 Hardening

2 Debate

3 Action over Words

4 Images and Coalitions

5 Loss of Face

6 Threat as a Strategy

7 Limited Attempts to Overthrow

8 Fragmentation of the Enemy

9 Together into the Abyss

302
Q

(CH.10) A process in which two or more parties
make offers, counteroffers, and concessions
in order to reach an agreement.

A

Negotiation

303
Q

(CH.10) Any gain to one party is offset by an equivalent loss to the other party

A

Distributive Negotiation

304
Q

(CH.10) A win–win negotiation in which the agreement involves no loss to either party

A

Integrative Negotiation

305
Q

(CH.10) The Four Fundamental Principles of Integrative Negotiation

A

1.) Separate the people from the problem

2.) Focus on interests, not positions

3.) Invent options for mutual gain

4.) Insist on objective fairness criteria

306
Q

(CH.10) A third party builds a positive relationship between the parties and directs them toward a satisfactory settlement [ADR]

A

Conciliation

307
Q

(CH.10) An impartial third party (the mediator) facilitates a discussion using persuasion and logic, suggesting alternatives, and establishing each side’s priorities [ADR]

A

Mediation

308
Q

(CH.10) A third party is involved and usually has the authority to impose a settlement on the parties [ADR]

A

Arbitration

309
Q

(CH.11) Nancy is the administrator at a community nonprofit. She was hired for her expertise in planning and budgeting, but she has experienced conflicts with personnel. Which of the following statements is true about Nancy’s role?

A.) She is a manager.

B.) She is a leader.

C.) She is both a manager and a leader.

D.) She is neither a manager nor a leader.

A

A.) She is a manager.

310
Q

(CH.11) Which of the following is more closely associated with leadership than with management?

A.) budgeting

B.) motivating

C.) organizing

D.) evaluating

A

B.) motivating

311
Q

(CH.11) In path–goal theory, which leadership style is best for managing employees who are new to dealing with ambiguous, unstructured tasks?

A.) supportive

B.) directive

C.) participative

D.) achievement-oriented

A

B.) directive

312
Q

(CH.11) The nature of managerial leadership varies depending on the culture. Which of the following countries experiences a low need for managers to have immediate and precise answers to subordinates’ questions?

A.) Sweden

B.) Italy

C.) Japan

D.) Germany

A

A.) Sweden

313
Q

(CH.11) Which factor determines the degree to which subordinates should participate in the decision-making process, according to Vroom’s decision tree approach?

A.) the personal characteristics of employees

B.) the manager’s leadership style

C.) the characteristics of the group

D.) the characteristics of the situation

A

D.) the characteristics of the situation

314
Q

(CH.11) In recent years, there has been a renewed interest in the trait approach to determining leadership characteristics. Which of the following statements is true about this approach?

A.) Leadership can be predicted by factors such as body shape and handwriting style.

B.) Early studies identified being short as a leadership trait.

C.) Women and minorities have been well represented in the trait studies.

D.) Recent studies have identified a limited set of leadership traits, such as emotional intelligence, drive, and charisma are acknowledged leadership traits.

A

D.) Recent studies have identified a limited set of leadership traits, such as emotional intelligence, drive, and charisma are acknowledged leadership traits.

315
Q

(CH.11) When you complete the Least-Preferred Coworker Scale, whom should you have in mind?

A.) the person with whom you have the least in common

B.) the type of person whom you like the least

C.) the person with whom you can work the least well

D.) the type of person you generally gravitate toward

A

C.) the person with whom you can work the least well

316
Q

(CH.11) Which of the following questions does Vroom’s decision tree approach purport to answer?

A.) Have I used all the information at hand to make the correct decision?

B.) To what extent should my subordinates be involved in making decisions?

C.) How should I convince my subordinates that the decision I have made is correct?

D.) To what extent should my decisions reflect the best interests of my subordinates?

A

B.) To what extent should my subordinates be involved in making decisions?

317
Q

(CH.11) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the nature of leadership?

A.) Leaders need to use force and formal authority to be successful.

B.) Leaders use noncoercive influence on the people they work with.

C.) Leaders guide and direct group members to meet goals.

D.) Leadership is defined in terms of both process and property.

A

A.) Leaders need to use force and formal authority to be successful.

318
Q

(CH.11) Oleg follows Vroom’s decision tree to a terminal node and then discusses an important issue with his subordinates individually, getting their opinions before making a decision. Which style did Oleg use?

A.) delegate

B.) decide

C.) facilitate

D.) consult

A

D.) consult

319
Q

(CH.11) Two Leadership Compnonents

A

Process

Property

320
Q

(CH.11) The use of noncoercive influence [Leadership Components]

A

Process

321
Q

(CH.11) The set of characteristics attributed to
someone who is perceived to use
influence successfully [Leadership Components]

A

Property

322
Q

(CH.11) A leader’s effectiveness depends on the leader’s personality compared with the situation [Situational Leadership Models]

A

LPC Theory

323
Q

(CH.11) Focuses on the situation and leader behaviors rather than on fixed traits of the leader [Leaders can readily adapt to different situations]

A

Path–Goal Theory

324
Q

(CH.11) The degree to which subordinates should be encouraged to participate in decision making depends on the characteristics of the situation

A

Vroom Decision Tree

325
Q

(CH.11) Five Decision Styles of Vroom Decision Tree:

A
  1. Decide: The manager makes the decision alone and then announces or “sells” it to the group.
  2. Delegate: The manager allows the group to define for itself the exact nature and parameters of the
    problem and then develop a solution.
  3. Consult (Individually): The manager presents the program to group members individually, obtains their
    suggestions, and then makes the decision.
  4. Consult (Group): The manager presents the problem to group members at a meeting, gets their
    suggestions, and then makes the decision.
  5. Facilitate: The manager presents the problem to the group at a meeting, defines the problem and its
    boundaries, and then facilitates group member discussion as members make the decision.
326
Q

(CH.12) Leaders who act as “coaches” within an organization are typically most likely to __________.

A.) initiate group conflicts

B.) supervise team members

C.) train group members

D.) oversee day-to-day operations

A

C.) train group members

327
Q

(CH.12) Charles was a relatively new and inexperienced leader assigned to an experienced workgroup with long-standing performance norms and high group cohesiveness. These factors were so strong that nothing Charles did to change things had much effect. What type of leadership substitute is this?

A.) a leader–member exchange

B.) an in-group/out-group challenge

C.) an organizational roadblock

D.) a leadership neutralizer

A

D.) a leadership neutralizer

328
Q

(CH.12) According to Hersey and Blanchard, what does appropriate leader behavior depend on?

A.) follower charisma

B.) follower in-group status

C.) follower connection

D.) follower readiness

A

D.) follower readiness

329
Q

(CH.12) According to Project GLOBE, which of the following is NOT a universal characteristic of strong leaders, regardless of culture or geography?

A.) being immodest

B.) being self-sacrificing

C.) acting diplomatic

D.) ensuring safety

A

A.) being immodest

330
Q

(CH.12) When a person’s beliefs about a leader change based on the behavior of other people in the situation, this is known as __________.

A.) attribution

B.) charisma

C.) transformation

D.) transaction

A

A.) attribution

331
Q

(CH.12) Sunriver Homes Corporation has identified a need for strong strategic leadership. As they search for a new CEO, what leadership traits will they seek?

A.) sophisticated knowledge and use of distance technologies

B.) an ability to maintain the company’s traditions

C.) a clear understanding of trends on the horizon

D.) the managerial skill to oversee day-to-day operations

A

C.) a clear understanding of trends on the horizon

332
Q

(CH.12) Leadership ________ are characteristics that render leadership irrelevant.

A.) neutralizers

B.) traits

C.) substitutes

D.) ethics

A

C.) substitutes

333
Q

(CH.12) Hareesh’s employees are extremely competent and motivated. If Hareesh follows the Hersey and Blanchard model, then what type of leadership style should he use?

A.) delegating

B.) selling

C.) telling

D.) participating

A

A.) delegating

334
Q

(CH.12) Sandra just stepped into the role of CEO for a restaurant chain. Sales have been falling, morale is low, and the properties have become rundown. The board of directors hired her because she’s a charismatic leader. Using that style, what steps can she take to turn this organization around?

A.) focus on routine and regimented activities

B.) set moderate expectations so people can have quick successes

C.) engage in a data-driven study about how to increase sales

D.) model self-confidence and show confidence in subordinates

A

D.) model self-confidence and show confidence in subordinates

335
Q

(CH.12) What is the term for the set of abilities that allows the leader to recognize the need for change, to create a vision to guide that change, and to execute the change effectively?

A.) charismatic leadership

B.) transformational leadership

C.) transactional leadership

D.) autocratic leadership

A

B.) transformational leadership

336
Q

(CH.12) Stresses the importance of variable relationships between supervisors and each of their subordinates

A

Leader–Member Exchange Model (LMX) of Leadership

337
Q

(CH.12) Based on the premise that appropriate leader behavior depends on the “readiness” of the leader’s followers (i.e., the subordinate’s degree of motivation, competence, experience, and interest in accepting responsibility)

A

Hersey and Blanchard Model

338
Q

(CH.12) Characteristics of Transformational Leadership

A

Recognize need for change

Create a vision to guide the change

Execute change effectively

339
Q

(CH.12) Characteristics of Charismatic Leadership

A

Envisions

Energizes

Enables

340
Q

(CH.12) Characteristics of Attribution Leadership

A

When specific behaviors are observed,
one assumes the person has ability or power

341
Q

(CH.12) Individual, task, and organizational characteristics that tend to outweigh the leader’s ability to affect subordinates’ satisfaction and performance

A

Leadership Substitutes

342
Q

(CH.12) Factors that render ineffective a leader’s attempts to engage in various leadership behaviors

A

Leadership Neutralizers

343
Q

(CH.12) Project GLOBE Leadership Behaviours

A

Charismatic / Value – Based

Team Oriented

Participative

Humane

Autonomous

Self Protective

344
Q

(CH.12) Three Emerging Issues in Leadership

A

Strategic

Ethical

Virtual

345
Q

(CH12.) The capability to understand the complexities
of both the organization and its environment and
to lead change in the organization so as to
achieve and maintain a superior alignment
between the organization and its environment [Issues in Leadership]

A

Strategic Issue in Leadership

346
Q

(CH.12) The process of leading based on
consistent principles of ethical conduct [Issues in Leadership]

A

Ethical Issue in Leadership

347
Q

(CH.12) Leadership via various forms
of distance technologies [Issues in Leadership]

A

Virtual Issue in Leadership

348
Q

(CH.13) A person’s or group’s potential to influence another person’s or group’s behavior

A

Power

349
Q

(CH.13) Types of Power

A

Position: Based on position within an organization

Personal: Based on a person’s individual characteristics
(regardless of the job or organization)

350
Q

(CH.13) Based on Position within an Organization [Types of Power]

A

Position

351
Q

(CH.13) Based on a person’s individual characteristics
(regardless of the job or organization) [Types of Power]

A

Personal

352
Q

(CH.13) Acquired Need Theory [Need-Based Motivation]

A

ACHIEVEMENT – accomplish a task, surpass others

AFFILIATION– personal relationships, conflict avoidance

POWER – influence or control others, have authority

353
Q

(CH.13) Types of Position Power

A

Legitimate

Reward

Coercive

354
Q

(CH.13) Types of Personal Power

A

Expert

Informational

Referent (Charisma)

Persuasive

355
Q

(CH.13) Using Power: Empowerment
(CH.13) Sharing power

A

Sharing Power

Authority to make and
implement decisions

356
Q

(CH.13) Conditions That Enhance a Subunit’s Power

A

Control of Resources

Centrality

Substitutability

Coping with Uncertainty

357
Q

(CH.13) Using power to affect the
behavior of others.

A

Influence

358
Q

(CH.13) RESPONSES TO INFLUENCE

A

Commitment

Compliance

Passive Resistance

Active Resistance

359
Q

(CH.13) Role of National Culture Influence Effectiveness

A

Understand diverse cultures’ values and perspectives so you can best influence appropriately

360
Q

(CH.13) Influence: Persuasion Skills

A

Ability to get someone to do something because they want to, not because they have to

361
Q

(CH.13) Upward Influence Tactics

A

Ingratiate

Exchange

Rationality

Assertiveness

Coalition

Upward Appeals

362
Q

(CH.13) Upward Influence Styles

A

Shotgun

Tactician

Bystander

Ingratiator

363
Q

(CH.13) Social influence attempts directed at those who can provide rewards that will help promote or protect the self-interests of the actor

A

Organizational Politics

364
Q

(CH.13) Managing Organizational Politics

A

Communication

Trust

Culture

365
Q

(CH.13) Tactics of Organizational Politics

A

Controlling information

Controlling lines of communication

Using outside experts

Controlling the agenda

Game playing

Image building

Building coalitions

Controlling decision parameters

Eliminating political rivals

366
Q

(CH.13) The process of portraying a desired image or attitude to control the impression others form of us

A

Impression Management

367
Q

(CH.13) Having a high concern for how others’ perceive and adjusting accordingly

A

Self-Monitoring

368
Q

(CH.13) Detecting Impression Management Behaviors

A

Elevated speaking pitch—speaking at a higher pitch as compared to someone telling the truthFootnote

Speech errors—interspersing words with uh, ah, or um

Speech pauses—allowing greater periods of silence while engaged in a conversation

Negative statements—using words like no, not, can’t, and won’t

Eye shifting—looking away rather than at the person to whom they are speaking

Increased pupil dilation—pupils tend to widen as they would in dim lighting

Blinking—more frequent blinking

Tactile manipulation—fondling or manipulating objects with the hands

Leg fidgeting—leg twitches, foot tapping, and swiveling or rocking when sitting

Less hand gesturing—“speaking” less with the hands and keeping the head relatively still

369
Q

(CH.16) CHANGE MANAGEMENT: Consequences of No Change or Incorrect Change

A

Lose ability to compete

Cease to exist

Get gobbled up

370
Q

(CH.16) A transformational process of preparing, equipping, and supporting individuals to successfully manage, adapt, and achieve desired organizational change

A

Change Management

371
Q

(CH.16) Change Management: PAUSE

A

The time between identifying change needed and change being made

372
Q

(CH.16) Forces of Change

A
  1. People
  2. Technology
  3. Information Processing / Communication
  4. Competition
373
Q

(CH.16) The process of systematically planning, organizing, and implementing change

A

Transition Management

374
Q

(CH.16) Keys to Successful Change

A

Communication

Education

Participation

Facilitation

Negotiation