Metabolism And Growth Flashcards

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0
Q

When does the bacterial chromosome replicate in the binary fission process?

A

Before the formation of the FtsZ ring.

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1
Q

Define the term generation. What is meant by the term generation time?

A

Generation is the action of one cell generating two daughter cells. Generation time is how long this process takes.

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2
Q

How does FtsZ ring find the cell midpoint of a rod-shaped cell?

A

By the action of MinC and MindD that polymerize along the cell inhibiting the ring formation and then MinE put then aside leaving the centre of the cell free for ring formation.

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3
Q

What eukaryotic protein is related to MreB? What does this protein do in eukaryotic cells?

A

Actin. It forms microfilaments that scaffold the cell cytoskeleton and the cytokinesis.

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4
Q

What is crescentin and what does it do?

A

It is a protein present in a vibro-shaped bacteria. It forms filamentous structures that accumulate at the concave face of a curved cell and it’s responsible for its shape.

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5
Q

What are autolysis and why are they necessary?

A

They are enzymes localized at the periplasm which the same activity as lysozyme. They are necessary for cell wall construction during cell growth.

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6
Q

What is the function of bactoprenol?

A

This hydrophobic alcohol is a lipid carrier molecule responsible for the transport of M-G-pentapeptide to across the cell membrane.

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7
Q

What is transpeptidation and why is it important?

A

It promotes the crossed-links between the peptides and it strengths the peptidoglycan. The enzymes that catalyze this exergonic reaction have binding sites for penicillin.

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8
Q

Why does exponential growth lead to large cells populations in so short period of time?

A

Because at each generation cells are doubling cell mass and cell number.

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9
Q

What is a semilogarithmic plot and what information can we derive from that?

A

It is characterized by the cell number plotted in a logarithmic scale and time in a arithmetic scale. It is used to predict the generation time.

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10
Q

Distinguish between the terms specific growth rate and generation time.

A

Growth rate is how many new cells per unit of time and generation time is how long it takes for cells to double its number (and mass consequently).

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11
Q

In what phase of the growth curve are cells dividing in a regular and orderly process?

A

Exponential phase.

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12
Q

Under what conditions does a lag phase not occur?

A

When cells in exponential phase are transferred to an identical medium.

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13
Q

Why do cells enter stationary phase?

A

When there is depletion of a limiting nutrient or when a waste product of the bacteria’s metabolism accumulates and inhibits growth.

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14
Q

How do microorganisms in a chemostat differ from microorganisms in a batch culture?

A

They can be in exponential phase for longer so they may be more active, have more enzymes and higher metabolism rate.

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15
Q

What happens in a chemostat if the dilution rate exceeds the maximal growth rate of the organisms?

A

The cells are washed out.

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16
Q

What are some of the problems that can arise when unstained preparations are used to make total cell counts of samples from natural environments?

A

1) Debris can be mistaken for cells;
2) Small cells are hard to be seen and counted;
3) Dead cells cannot be distinguished from viable cells;
4) Precision is hard to achieve;
5) A phase-contrast microscope is needed when there is no staining;
6) Motile cells have to be immobilized;
7) Low density cultures might not show any cell.

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17
Q

Why is a viable count is more sensitive than a microscope count? What major assumption is made in relating plate count results to cell number?

A

Viable count only count cells that are able to generate offspring. The major assumption is that each colony arose from one single cell.

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18
Q

Describe how you would dilute a culture by 10 to the power of negative 7?

A

By 10-fold dilutions. 1mL of the culture is added to 9mL of water and 10 to the power of negative 1 is obtained and the procedure is repeated until 10 to the power of negative 7 is obtained.

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19
Q

What is the “great plate count anomaly”?

A

Every plate count will be lower than a microscope count because of dead cells and colonies may contain more than one cell.

20
Q

List two advantages of using turbidity as a measure of cell growth.

A

1) Cells can be monitored because the sample is not disturbed while turbidity is measured;
2) It is a very fast procedure.

21
Q

Describe how would you use a turbidity measurement to tell how many colonies you would expect from plating a culture of a given OD.

A

OD is proportional to cell number so the higher the OD the higher the cell number expected.

22
Q

Which four elements make up the bulk of a cell’s dry weight?

A

Carbon, oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen.

23
Q

Which two classes macromolecules contain most of a cell’s nitrogen?

A

Proteins and nucleic acid.

24
Q

What roles does iron play in cellular metabolism? How do cells sequester iron?

A

It is a component of cytochromes and iron-sulfur proteins. It can also be an electron acceptor. It is sequestered by siderophores.

25
Q

Why would the routine culture of Leuconostoc mesenteroids be easier in a complex medium than in a chemically defined medium?

A

Because it is fastidious organism and it requires highly nutritive sources such as blood whose chemical composition is not precisely defined in the medium.

26
Q

In which medium, defined or complex, do you think E. coli would grow the fastest? Why? E. coli will not grown in the medium described for Thiobacillus thioparus; why?

A

In a defined one because it is specific for E. coli. It would not grow in that medium because there is not an organic carbon source.

27
Q

What is meant by the word sterile? What would happen if freshly prepared culture media were not sterilized and then left at room temperature?

A

It means free of microorganisms. Microorganisms from the air would grow in it.

28
Q

Why is aseptic technique necessary for successful cultivation of pure cultures in the laboratory?

A

Because it ensures the culture is not contaminated with microorganisms from the environment.

29
Q

What is free energy?

A

Energy available to do work.

30
Q

Does glucose formation from the elements release or require energy?

A

It requires energy.

31
Q

What is the function of a catalyst? What are enzymes made of?

A

They reduce the activation energy. They are made of protein and a nonprotein component (coenzyme or prosthetic group).

32
Q

Where on a enzyme does the substrate bind?

A

In the active site.

33
Q

What is activation energy?

A

It is the energy to turn the molecules active to the reaction.

34
Q

Is NADH a better electron donor than H2? Is NAD+ a better acceptor than H+? How do you determine this?

A

No, it is a better acceptor because H2 is already the reduced form. Yes, because its Eo’ is more positive that H+ so it is more likely that it would accept an electron.

35
Q

How much energy is release per mole of ATP converter to ADP + Pi under standard conditions? Per mole of AMP converted to adenosine and Pi?

A

-32 kJ and about -15 kJ.

36
Q

During periods of nutrient abundance, how can cells prepare for periods of nutrient starvation?

A

It stores energy in glycogen, PHA, PHB and other components. ATP is also very abundant.

37
Q

Which reactions in glycolysis involve oxidations and reducations?

A

Glyceraldehide-3-phospate to 1,3-biphosphoglyceric acid.

PEP to pyruvate.

38
Q

What is the role of NAD+/NADH in glycolysis?

A

They are electron carriers and reduced while organic compounds are oxidized.

39
Q

Why are fermentation products made during glycolysis?

A

In order to oxidize NADH and allow it carry more electrons. Fermentation usually happens under anoxic conditions.

40
Q

In what major way so quinones differ from other electron carriers in the membrane?

A

It is not a protein.

41
Q

Which electron carriers described in this section accept 2e and 2H+? Which accept e only?

A

NADH dehydrogenases and flavoproteins. Cytochromes and iron-sulfur proteins.

42
Q

How do e transport reactions generate the pmf?

A

By pumping H+ out through NAD dehydrogenases and flavoproteins.

43
Q

What structure in the cell converts the pmf to ATP? How does it function?

A

ATP synthase. It has two portions. F0 is a ion channel and changes F1 conformation when H+ is uptaken allowing ATP formation.

44
Q

How many molecules of CO2 and pairs of electrons are released per pyruvate oxidized in the TCA cycle?

A

3 CO2 molecules and 3 pairs of electrons.

45
Q

What two major roles do the TCA cycle and glycolysis have in common?

A

Bioenergetic and biosynthetic.

46
Q

In terms of their electron donors, how do chemoorganotrophs differ from chemolithotrophs?

A

The former uses inorganic compounds are electron donors instead of organic ones.

47
Q

What is the carbon source for autotrophic organisms?

A

CO2 from the atmosphere.

48
Q

Why can it be said that the pmf is a unifying theme in most of bacterial metabolism?

A

Pmf drives energy conservation in respiration and photosynthesis, unifying all organisms except for restrict fermenting-bacteria.