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met sf Flashcards

1
Q

An aircraft is en-route at FL150 over mountainous terrain with an OAT of
-25C. The MSA (minimum sector altitude) in this region is 10,000ft and the local QNH is 998hPa. The aircraft will have an actual clearance above MSA of

A

[3950ft]

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2
Q

On a very cold day, an aircraft is circling level with the top of a mountain peak using the QNH 1009. The altimeter will read
Select one:
1. the same as the elevation of the peak
2. not enough information to tell
3. higher than the elevation of the peak
4. lower than the elevation of the peak

A
  1. higher than the elevation of the peak
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3
Q

An aircraft is over Spain at FL280 temp -35 degrees. The ISA deviation is

A

[+6]

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4
Q

The pressure lapse rate (thickness between pressure levels) varies and will be affected by [ ] changes in the atmosphere.

[temperature] [humidity] [wind speed]

A

[temperature]

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5
Q

Given that the Transition Altitude (TA) is 13000ft, Transition Level (TL) is FL155, QNH 983. What is the thickness of the transition layer? (assume 30ft or 9m/hpa)

a. 1600 ft
b. 2500 ft
c. 3400 ft
d. 1900 ft

A

a. 1600 ft

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6
Q

If an aircraft is flying at FL180 in air temperature -35°C, the air density [ ] in ISA

[is likely to be greater than]
[is likely to be less than]
[is likely to be the same as]

A

[is likely to be greater than]

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7
Q

Below FL290 the standard vertical separation between FLs is 2000ft. On a given day, if the actual layer thickness is 1840ft how does the air temperature deviate from ISA? The OAT will be

A

[ISA -20]

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8
Q

In Paris on a February evening the METAR is as follows: 121750 240/05 1200
OVC010 03/M01 Q1003. It can be assumed that the overnight temperature will [xxxxxx] [xxxxxxxxx] 3 degrees C.

[rise]
[fall]
[slightly below]
[above]

A

[fall] [slightly below]

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9
Q

Regarding pre-flight weather information available to crew, for a planned flight at FL170 the [xxx hpa] chart would be the most useful.

A

[500 hpa]

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10
Q

For an airport situated 100ft below MSL, the QFE will be
[ ] QNH

[less than] [greater than] [equal to]

A

[greater than]

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11
Q

An aircraft is on approach to land at an aerodrome in the Southern hemisphere where the wind at 3000ft is 060/30 kts. In the final stages of the approach, the surface wind is likely to be [xx] degrees at [xx] kts

A

[090] [15]

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12
Q

During an approach to land an aircraft experiences a headwind at 4000ft followed by an increasing crosswind component from the right in the friction layer. The wind shift…

a. is typical in the southern hemisphere

b.is typical in the northern hemisphere

c. results from a cold front advection in the southern hemisphere

d. results from a warm front advection in the southern hemisphere

A

a. is typical in the southern hemisphere

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13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a Foehn wind?
Select one:
a. Ghibli
b. Chinook
c. Bora
d. Harmattan

A

b. Chinook

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14
Q

At an airfield situated parallel to the south coast of UK on a cloudless summer afternoon, which hazard is most likely to affect an aircraft low on the approach:

a. a strong land breeze blowing more or less perpendicular to the runway

b. a sea breeze blowing more or less perpendicular to the runway

c.variations in wind speed and direction at the surface due to a subsidence inversion typical for summer anticyclones

d. a radiation inversion due to surface cooling during the clear night

A

b. a sea breeze blowing more or less perpendicular to the runway

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15
Q

A north-south polar front jet stream is blowing at FL310 with Shannon to the west and Amsterdam to the east. An aircraft flying from Amsterdam to Shannon at FL320 would most likely experience the worst turbulence [xxxxxxx] crossing the core of the jet stream

[before][whilst][after]

A

[before]

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16
Q

In mountainous regions a [katabatic] wind is likely to develop [at night] due to [radiative cooling]

A

[katabatic] [at night] [radiative cooling]

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17
Q

/

A
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18
Q

/

A
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19
Q

In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located

a.Above the tropopause at about 250hPa
b. Below the tropopause at about 200hPa
c. Below the tropopause at about 300hPa
d.Above the tropopause at about 100hPa

A

b. Below the tropopause at about 200hPa

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20
Q

An aircraft flying from North to South in the Northern Hemisphere crosses the Polar Front Jetstream just above the core. The outside air temperature will [decrease]

A

[decrease]

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21
Q

What is true of the relationship between temp and dewpoint?

a. Humid air has a high dew point temperature relative to the air temperature

b. High cloud is likely when surface air temperature and dewpoint are close together

c. Dry air has a high dew point temperature relative to the air temperature

d. Dewpoint is always higher than temperature

A

a. Humid air has a high dew point temperature relative to the air temperature

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22
Q

What is the state of atmospheric stability when the temperature at 2000ft is +15 degrees C and at 5000ft is +3 degrees C?

Select one:
1. Absolutely stable
2. Absolutely unstable
3. Conditionally unstable
4. Conditionally stable

A
  1. Absolutely unstable
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23
Q

The outside temperature is +30°C and the dew point is +21 °C. Calculate the relative humidity.
a. 55%
b. 65%
c. 45%
d. 75%

A

a. 55%

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24
Q

An aerodrome situated on top of hill with a 500ft elevation is reporting fog; a nearby aerodrome with an elevation of 200ft is reporting visibility 8000m.
What is the most probable reason for the difference in conditions?

a. An upslope wind
b. Convective activity
c. The passage of a cold front
d. Surface cooling by terrestrial radiation

A

a. An upslope wind

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25
Q

From the situations described below, in which would the highest cloud tops most likely be found?

a. Near an occlusion point
b. Along a mid-latitude cold front
c. A tropical cyclone
d. A polar low in winter

A

c. A tropical cyclone

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26
Q

[xxxxxxx] fog is likely to form when a stable air mass having a temperature of
-25°C passes over an ice free ocean having a temperature of +1°C?

[advection]
[radiation]
[freezing]
[steam]

A

[steam]

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27
Q

The type of cloud formed when warm, light air rises rapidly into cooler air is:

a. stratocumulus
b. nimbostratus
c. cumulus
d. stratus

A

c. cumulus

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28
Q

The expected flight conditions in Cirriform cloud are (xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx)and [xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx]

(no airframe icing)
(light/moderate airframe icing)
[visibility greater than 1000m]
[visibility less than 500m]

A

(no airframe icing)
[visibility greater than 1000m]

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29
Q

“A slight obscuration of the lower atmosphere, typically caused by fine suspended particles of a solid nature” is a description of [xxxxx]

[mist]
[haze]
[smoke]
[fog]

A

[haze]

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30
Q

On a relatively clear and calm evening in early winter, you receive the ATIS for your arrival into Geneva and notice that the temperature and dew point are 1 degree C and minus 1 degree C respectively. What is most likely to occur over the course of the night and into the early morning?

a. the wind is likely to strengthen
b. radiation fog is likely develop
c. cloud will form
d. precipitation is likely

A

b. radiation fog is likely develop

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31
Q

“When rain, falling from relatively warm air, evaporates into cooler air close to the surface and causes it to become saturated”.
The definition above describes [xxxxxx] fog.

[frontal][steam]

A

[frontal]

32
Q

In a warm cloud, according to the coalescence theory, precipitation will form by:

a. droplets joining together if they have the same electrical charge

b. droplets joining together beneath the cloud

c. droplets joining together with ice crystals

d. droplets joining together in the cloud

A

d. droplets joining together in the cloud

33
Q

In mid-latitudes, the intensity of precipitation associated with low level stratus is typically [xxxxx]

[light] [heavy] [moderate]

A

[light]

34
Q

An aircraft flying west through a warm front where the freezing level is 8000ft in the warm air and at 3000ft in the cold air. The aircraft is least likely to encounter freezing rain at [10,000ft].

A

[10,000ft]

35
Q

/

A
36
Q

With a polar front depression approaching a station in Central Europe in the summer, how would the surface conditions change over a period of 8 hours?

a. pressure and cloud ceiling height will both decrease
b. stability and cloud ceiling height will both increase
c. temperature and pressure will both increase
d. pressure will increase, visibility will decrease

A

a. pressure and cloud ceiling height will both decrease

37
Q

A tropical air mass which can hold the properties of cold air describes:

a. polar maritime
b. returning polar maritime
c. tropical maritime
d. arctic maritime

A

b. returning polar maritime

38
Q

/

A
39
Q

A mass of air with warmer air advected into the upper layers and colder air in the lower layers is characterised by:

a. low cloud or fog, poor visibility

b.warm temperatures, good visibility

c. continuous rain and freezing temperatures 

d. strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibility

A

a. low cloud or fog, poor visibility

40
Q

At what time of year are the paths of North Atlantic lows travelling from west to east generally at their most southerly position?

a. spring
b. autumn
c. summer
d. winter

A

d. winter

41
Q

The number of Tropical Revolving Storms typically occurring in the northwestern Pacific, in the region of SE Asia is:
a. 16

b. 9

c. 2

d. 5

A

a. 16

42
Q

In temperate latitudes the weather conditions that may be expected over land in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone are during the summer [calm wind, haze] and during the winter [fog, low stratus]

A

[calm wind, haze] [fog, low stratus]

43
Q

Which of the following is typically true of a Tropical Revolving Storm?

a.The warm air from the land rises, diverges and then creates cold oceanic low pressures.

b.They travel East to West between latitudes 5 - 10°N and are created by the convergence of air at altitude from large low pressures.

c. They travel East to West between latitudes 10 - 15ºN then generally Poleward

d. They form over the oceans in the winter as the sea surface cools.

A

c. They travel East to West between latitudes 10 - 15ºN then generally Poleward

44
Q

/ ridge chart

A
45
Q

An aircraft transiting a mountainous region at FL200 is approaching a north-south mountain range. With a westerly wind blowing towards the range, an orographic low is most likely to exist on the [eastern] side.

A

[eastern]

46
Q

In January an extended high pressure area on the northern hemisphere is normally observed over:
a. Central Europe
b. South America
c. Siberia
d. Southern Africa

A

c. Siberia

47
Q

The rain forest climate has a typical relative humidity of [80%], temperature of [30 degrees] and freezing level at [16000ft]

A

[80%] [30 degrees] [16000ft]

48
Q

The position of the ITCZ (inter-tropical convergence zone):

a. shows more variation over the oceans than the continents
b. depends upon thunderstorm activity
c. is more to the north in January than July
d. shows more variation over the continents than over the oceans

A

d. shows more variation over the continents than over the oceans

49
Q

For a flight planned from Paris to the Caribbean, near the ITCZ in summer, the type of weather expected would be [xxxxxxxxx] and hazards anticipated are (xxxxxxxxx) and {xxxxxxxxxxx}

[thunderstorms]
[calm and dry]
(severe turbulence)
(poor visibility)
{heavy precipitation}
{haze}

A

[thunderstorms] (severe turbulence) {heavy precipitation}

50
Q

A cold air outbreak is when cold air stretches into mid or low latitude. What hazards to aviation are associated with this phenomenon?
Select one:

a. These events are seldom and short-lived so pose only a slight risk to aviation.

b. The unusual latitude leads to instability, cumuliform cloud and increased icing and turbulence risk

c. The severe surface cooling creates a vast area of thick cold low level cloud

d. The lower tropopause caused by the outbreak means usual flight altitudes would then occur in the stratosphere

A

b. The unusual latitude leads to instability, cumuliform cloud and increased icing and turbulence risk

51
Q

What is the average height of the zero degree isotherm over equatorial regions?
Select one:

a. 30,000ft
b. 25,000ft
c. 16,000ft
d. 10,000ft

A

c. 16,000ft

52
Q

How do the Trade Winds change their direction when they have to travel through the geographical equator to the equatorial low pressure belt?

Select one:
a. NW Trades become SE and SW Trades become NE
b. NW Trades become SE and SW Trades become NE
c. NE Trades become SE and SE Trades become NE
d. NE Trades become NW and SE Trades become SW

A

d. NE Trades become NW and SE Trades become SW

53
Q

Considering the weather conditions over Ecuador in the region of the ITCZ, what hazards to flight are likely?

a. Tropical revolving storms

b. Low pressure causing the altimeter to under-read

c. Low pressure causing the altimeter to over-read

d. Density altitude increasing causing the altimeter to under-read

A

c. Low pressure causing the altimeter to over-read

54
Q

Which of the following is associated with the Pamperos?

a. Foehn conditions affecting the Spanish Pyrenees
b.Stormy conditions affecting the mid-west of North America
c. Cold Katabatic winds in the Adriatic
d. Bursts of cold air in South America

A

d. Bursts of cold air in South America

55
Q

You are making an approach to an airfield with a mountain range to the East. Where is the greatest risk of airframe icing?

a. On the eastern side below the peak
b. On the western side below the peak
c. On the western side above the peak
d. On the eastern side above the peak

A

d. On the eastern side above the peak

56
Q

Departing an aerodrome under a low level inversion, what weather could be expected to be encountered?

a.Poor visibility due to the lack of horizontal movement of air

b.Good visibility at night due to the associated calm wind

c. Poor visibility due to the lack of vertical air movement


d. Good visibility in the morning due to wind shear

A

c. Poor visibility due to the lack of vertical air movement


57
Q

The risk of ice crystal icing exists at high altitude, particularly in tropical latitudes and is caused by very small ice crystals in high concentrations within and near convective weather systems. The ice crystals are extremely small - probably only about 40 microns in diameter - and even at high concentrations, are unlikely to be evident visually or on airborne weather radar displays. In an ice crystal icing event, what type of icing is formed?

a. Clear ice crystal icing
b. Rime ice
c. Ice crystals
d. Clear ice

A

c. Ice crystals

58
Q

The minimum level of visibility that could be encountered in blowing surface snow is [1m]

A

[1m]

59
Q

Clear air turbulence CAT can be defined as:

a. The meeting of air masses moving at different speeds in mountainous areas
b. Severe turbulence associated with thunderstorms
c. Turbulent movement of air occurring in the absence of any visual clues
d. Disturbed air flow that causes violent buffeting of aircraft identified by lenticular cloud

A

c. Turbulent movement of air occurring in the absence of any visual clues

60
Q

/

A
61
Q

/

A
62
Q

You have to make an emergency landing in a valley with mountains along both sides. MTW is reported. What would be the greatest hazards to be considered?

a.Convective activity on the windward side with mod or severe turbulence

b. Rotor zone on lee side and MTW up to the tropopause

c. Wind shear in the rotor zone on the windward side and MTW increasing in intensity up to the tropopause

d. Icing in lenticular cloud above the mountain ridge

A

b. Rotor zone on lee side and MTW up to the tropopause

63
Q

/

A
64
Q

/

A
65
Q

What are the meteorological prerequisites for a severe tropical storm to develop?
a. High temperature, high humidity
b. Low pressure, low humidity
c. High pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperatures
d. Convergence, low temperature

A

a. High temperature, high humidity

66
Q

The type of lightning visible inside a thunderstorm cell and not in contact with the surface is [xxxxxxxxx]

[intra-cloud]
[cloud-cloud]
[cloud-ground]

A

[intra-cloud]

67
Q

/

A
68
Q

An aircraft cruising at FL 300 is accruing airframe ice, without corrective action the aircraft is likely to stall at a [higher] speed and a [lower] angle of attack.

A

[higher][lower]

69
Q

In order to comply with operational minima a RVR of 550m is required. Which of the following aerodromes would be suitable for landing?

a.EGBB 120750Z 21005KT 0350 R26/0400U FG 07/06 Q1008=

b. EGNX 120750Z 00000KT 0500 R16/0500 FG 05/04 Q1008=

c.EGCC 120750Z 23003KT 0400 R18/0400 FG VV006 05/04 Q1008=

d.EGBE 120750Z 26002KT 1000 R23/0700D BR BKN008 12/10
Q1012=

A

d.EGBE 120750Z 26002KT 1000 R23/0700D BR BKN008 12/10
Q1012=

70
Q

What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?

a.Visibility runway 24 right less than 1500m
b.Visibility along runway 24 right greater than 1500m
c.Runway 24 right available take-off/landing run 1500m
d.Snow clearance in progress on runway 24R, useable length
1500m

A

b.Visibility along runway 24 right greater than 1500m

71
Q

Flying a route from London to Barcelona, when overhead Paris you want to check the weather in the vicinity. What single source of information could you access using VHF?

a. SIGMET
b. ATIS
C. GAMET
d. VOLMET

A

d. VOLMET

72
Q

/

A
73
Q

With reference to the reporting of turbulence, which statement is true?

a.Forecasts rely on satellite detection for the most accurate locations

b. Forecasts rely on pilot reports as turbulence cannot be detected remotely

c. Pilots rely on airborne weather radar to locate turbulence

A

b. Forecasts rely on pilot reports as turbulence cannot be detected remotely

74
Q

/

A
75
Q

Which reports are Meteorological Watch Offices primarily responsible for?
a. Significant Weather Charts &
b. SIGMETs and AIRMETs
c. METARS
d. TAFs (Aerodrome Forecasts)

A

b. SIGMETs and AIRMETs

76
Q

The principle role of ground based weather surveillance radar is to [detect and locate water droplets]

A

[detect and locate water droplets]

77
Q

When a pilot reports wind shear on approach the [aircraft type] should be included in the message

A

sf final (4 decks)

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