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agk sf Flashcards

1
Q

On the ground, the loads that are acting on the skin of a cantilever wing are:

a. tension in upper, compression in lower

b. compression in upper, tension in lower

c. tension in upper and lower skin

d. compression in upper and lower skin

A

a. tension in upper, compression in lower

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2
Q

An aircraft is subject dynamic loads when:

select one:

a. parked on the stand.

b. the aircraft is subject to manoeuvres in flight

c. every time the aircraft is loaded

d. the magnitude of the load is low

A

b. the aircraft is subject to manoeuvres in flight

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3
Q

If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi, the force provided by a 3 square inch actuator will be?

A

9000

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4
Q

In order to avoid damage to seals, internal leaks and overheating fluid. Hydraulic systems are only to be replenished with…?

A

approved fluid

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5
Q

Corrosive conditions and a steady tensile load can produce a form of metal fatigue. This is also known as:

A

stress corrosion

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6
Q

The working principle of the Anti-Skin system is:

a. reduction of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

b. increase of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheel.

c. reduction of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheel.

d. increase of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

A

a. reduction of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

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7
Q

Brake fade is the term used to describe”

a. the reduced ability of the brakes to slow the aircraft if they become too hot.

b. the change in colour as brakes become hot.

c. the increased ability of the brakes to slow the aircraft.

d. the change in colour as brakes become old.

A

a. the reduced ability of the brakes to slow the aircraft if they become too hot.

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8
Q

When does the flap load limiter operate:

a. when the load of a certain value is met.

b. when the speed limit for the give flap setting is met.

c. when the load exceeds a certain value.

d. when the speed limit for the given flap setting is exceeded.

A

d. when the speed limit for the given flap setting is exceeded.

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9
Q

What are the Airbus fly-by-wire modes of operation.

a. Normal law, alternate law, direct law and mechanical law.

b. primary mode, secondary mode and tertiary mode.

c. normal law, alternate law, direct law and trim only law.

d. normal mode, secondary mode and direct mode.

A

a. Normal law, alternate law, direct law and mechanical law.

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10
Q

In the context of aircraft construction, what is redundancy and how is it achieved?

a. the duplication of components in safety critical areas.

b. connecting components in series to improve performance.

c. by making the components as strong as possible.

d. systems working together to ensure accuracy.

A

a. the duplication of components in safety critical areas.

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11
Q

Describe a torsion box.

a. is a structure designed to reduce weight.

b. is a structure within the wing housing fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear.

c. is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.

d. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.

A

d. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.

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12
Q

In the context of airframe load path philosophies a fail safe components is:

a. a component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft.

b. component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is designed so that following a failure it is in the safe condition.

c. a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed such that, following its failure, the remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads without failure until the damage is detected.

d. a component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of failure in that life is assessed as remote.

A

c. a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed such that, following its failure, the remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads without failure until the damage is detected.

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13
Q

If the Artificial Feel system fails it becomes very difficult to move the flying controls.

True

False

A

False

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14
Q

What are the advantages of fly-by-wire?

select 3 options

  1. it is lighter than conventional controls
  2. there is no need for pilot
  3. its less complicated
  4. it offers flight envelope protection
  5. it reduces pilot workload
A
  1. it is lighter than conventional controls
  2. it offers flight envelope protection
  3. it reduces pilot workload
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15
Q

Wing mounted engines are often mounted on pylons which set them well ahead of the aerofoil (wing) in order to:

a. allow gravity feed of fuel in emergency situations.

b. move the CG forward as a way of mass balancing to reduce flutter

c. keep the wing clean to improve aerodynamic efficiency.

d. provide a pitching down moment arm to assist in trimming the aircraft.

A

b. move the CG forward as a way of mass balancing to reduce flutter

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16
Q

the benefits of double bubble fuselage design are:

a. will prohibit the use of rear-mounted engines

b. allows increased airspeeds when compared to conventional fuselage designs

c. it will generate some lift and increase fuel economy

d. to reduce available space for load-carrying purposes.

A

b. allows increased airspeeds when compared to conventional fuselage designs

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17
Q

Boeing fly-by-wire uses:

a. normal mode, secondary mode and divert mode

b. mode 1, mode 2 and mode 3

c. normal law, alternate law, direct law and mechanical law

d. normal mode, secondary mode and direct mode

A

d. normal mode, secondary mode and direct mode

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18
Q

A red light on the undercarriage position indicator signifies it will not locked up or locked down.

true

false

A

true

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19
Q

The auto brake system is disconnected after landing:

a. at a certain speed

b. automatically

c. by pilot action

d. the system is always armed

A

c. by pilot action

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20
Q

The term maximum zero fuel mass describes:

a. the maximum mass of an aeroplane at the ramp

b. the maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no useable fuel.

c. dry operating mass plus no useable fuel.

d. dry operating mass plus useable fuel.

A

b. the maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no useable fuel.

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21
Q

Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure?

a. electrically

b. pneumatically

c. mechanically (gravity fall)

d. by hydraulic accumulators

A

c. mechanically (gravity fall)

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22
Q

A hydraulic Q feel system:

a. connects the control column and control surface

b. creates a hydraulic load on the control column proportional to dynamic pressure

c. is used instead of a spring feel unit

d. creates a hydraulic load on the control column proportional to static pressure

A

b. creates a hydraulic load on the control column proportional to dynamic pressure

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23
Q

Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by:

a. bleed air from gas turbine engine

b. separate helium gas system

c. air from the air conditioning system

d. ram air in flight only

A

a. bleed air from gas turbine engine

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24
Q

The rudder ratio changer:

a. decreases rudder deflection at high speeds

b. increases the size of the rudder at high speed

c. decreases the size of the rudder at high speed

d. increases rudder deflection at high speed

A

a. decreases rudder deflection at high speeds

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25
Q

What is the purpose of tongue links in an oleo-pneumatic strut?

a. to prevent relative rotation of the piston and cylinder

b. to prevent shimmy

c. to position the wheels in the correct attitudes prior to landing

d. to transfer brake torque to the wheel

A

a. to prevent relative rotation of the piston and cylinder

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26
Q

the maximum ramp mass of an aircraft is:

a. the maximum permissible landing mass

b. the maximum mass of the aircraft prior to taxi but not take off

c. the maximum mass of the aircraft including trip fuel

d. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload

A

b. the maximum mass of the aircraft prior to taxi but not take off

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27
Q

In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:

a. turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet

b. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.

c. compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet

d. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.

A

b. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.

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28
Q

modern pressurised transport airplanes are equipped with:

a. two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the crew, the other the cabin

b. only portable oxygen bottles

c. only one oxygen system the whole aircraft

d. two oxygen systems both supplying the flight deck and the cabin

A

a. two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the crew, the other the cabin

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29
Q

a firewire detection element work on the principle of:

a. negative coefficient of resistance and positive coefficient of capacitance

b. negative coefficient of capacitance and positive coefficient of inductance

c. negative coefficient of inductance and positive coefficient of capacitance

d. negative coefficient of capacitance and positive coefficient of resistance

A

a. negative coefficient of resistance and positive coefficient of capacitance

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30
Q

the passenger oxygen mask will supply:

a. 100% oxygen

b. a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100% oxygen

c. a mixture of cabin air and oxygen

d. a mixture of oxygen and Freon gas

A

c. a mixture of cabin air and oxygen

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31
Q

composite materials consist:

a. two metals panels bonded together

b. an aluminium alloy with a thin aluminium layer of pure aluminium

c. matrix and fibres

d. a core of lightweight materials with thin sheets of metal

A

c. matrix and fibres

32
Q

/

A
33
Q

on an aeroplane spoilers are:

a. lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical and asymmetrical

b. upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical

c. lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical

d. upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical

A

d. upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical

34
Q

strain can be defined as:

a. is the result of dynamic loads only

b. the formation caused by the action of stress on a material.

c. only occurs when the aircraft is parked

d. the internal force per unit area as a result of external loads

A

b. the formation caused by the action of stress on a material.

35
Q

if an accumulator is pre-charged with nitrogen to 1500 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 3000 psi, the accumulator gauge will read

  1. 1500psi
  2. 3000psi
  3. 2500psi
  4. 4500psi
A
  1. 3000psi
36
Q

a pneumatic de-icing system should be operated:

a. when entering icing conditions

b. when there is approximately 0.5-1.5cm of ice build up

c. on take off and landing

d. when there is approximately 5cm of ice build up

A

b. when there is approximately 0.5-1.5cm of ice build up

37
Q

the purpose of baffles in an aeroplane fuel tank is to:

a. prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines

b. prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid

c. prevent overpressure in the tank

d. control the movement of fuel in the tank

A

d. control the movement of fuel in the tank

38
Q

picture

A
39
Q

aircraft lavatory smoke detections work on the principle of:

A

ionisation

40
Q

in harm term maintenance, a component must be replaced:

a. evidence of stress loads

b.at a specified number of hours or flight cycles

c. fails visual inspection

d. complaint from the flight crew

A

b.at a specified number of hours or flight cycles

41
Q

A guarded switch is fitted to the CSDU disconnect or IDG disconnect on modern aircraft. What is the purpose of this Guarded Switch?

a. to prevent the switch from being operated in flight, it is ground use only

b. it prevents inadvertent operation and can only be operated after consultation with the other pilot.

c. it prevents inadvertent operation and can be operated by either pilot as soon as one of them sees it is lit.

d. to allow the switch to be locked in the on position after operation.

A

b. it prevents inadvertent operation and can only be operated after consultation with the other pilot.

42
Q

electrical and or mechanical power can be shown as which of the following?

a. I

b. Z

c. X

d. kW

A

d. kW

43
Q

What will you produce if you apply a DC voltage to a closed circuit?

a. magnetism

b. resistance

c. impedance

d. static charge

A

a. magnetism

44
Q

what is the pilot able to monitor with regard to the batteries on the aircraft? select 2

  1. voltage
  2. frequency
  3. capacity
  4. current
  5. temperature
A
  1. voltage
  2. current
45
Q

if you connect 2 identical batteries in parallel:

a. voltage doubles
b. voltage and capacity double
c. voltage stays constant and capacity doubles
d. voltage stays the same and capacity halves

A

c. voltage stays constant and capacity doubles

46
Q

/

A
47
Q

/

A
48
Q

in a 737 electrical system which is split bus, there can never be:

a. power on the ESS AC if the engine generators have failed.

b. two DC sources feeding the DC system

c. more than one AC source on any AC bus bar

d. any component feeding ESS AC from the DC system

A

c. more than one AC source on any AC bus bar

49
Q

which statement best describes a bus bar?

a. a low-impedance conductor, which allows power form AC sources to be connected to the DC consumers or loads.

b. a bar from which loads can be distributed to feed the generator exciter fields.

c. a low-impedance conductor, which allows power from sources to be connected to the consumers or loads.

d. a bar which can be found on the alternator, or generator from which currents can be distributed to the various loads.

A

c. a low-impedance conductor, which allows power from sources to be connected to the consumers or loads.

50
Q

a frequency wild generator can be used on which types of electrical loads?

a. purely resistive AC, or DC through a TRU
b. any DC or AC loads
c. any AC and some DC loads
d. you cannot use a frequency wild unless the RPM is controlled

A

a. purely resistive AC, or DC through a TRU

51
Q

what electrical parameters must be the same for parallel generators after connection?

a. voltage, coulombs, capacitance
b. voltage, frequency, phase, real and reactive loads
c. voltage, resistance, frequency real and reductive loads
d. frequency, RPM, coolant

A

b. voltage, frequency, phase, real and reactive loads

52
Q

an inverter gives DC from AC?

true

false

A

false

53
Q

the purpose of TRUs in an electrical system is to convert to DC from AC?

true

false

A

true

54
Q

the main parts of a motor are called?

a. rotor and armature
b. armature and winding
c. the rotor and stator
d. NGV and rotor

A

c. the rotor and stator

55
Q

excluding the Inverter, select from the following the different power sources that can be used for an aeroplane to drive an AC generator: select 4

  1. RAT
  2. fan
  3. hydraulics
  4. APU
  5. engine
  6. gas injection
  7. battery
A
  1. RAT
  2. hydraulics
  3. APU
  4. engine
56
Q

in a four cylinder four stroke engine, each cylinder will be on a different stroke when the engine is running, bearing that in mind, which of these is in the correct order?

a. compression, induction, power, exhaust
b. compression, power, exhaust, induction
c. induction, compression, exhaust, power
d. power, exhaust, compression, emission

A

b. compression, power, exhaust, induction

57
Q

in a magneto, to prevent energy loss across the contact breakers a what is fitted?

a. P switch
b. diffuser
c. compressor
d. capacitor

A

d. capacitor

58
Q

The Alpha Range of the propeller is from where to where?

a. Flight Idle to Reverse
b. Ground Idle to Flight Idle
c. Ground Idle to Take off
d. Flight Idle to Feather including Take off

A

d. Flight Idle to Feather including Take off

59
Q

Engines produce Power, but when it comes to propellers, especially turboprops, we usually measure what to determine how much power is being absorbed by the propeller?
1. Torque
2. TAS
3. RPM
4. MAP

A
  1. Torque
60
Q

Given 12 cylinders, what engine layout allows for a shorter engine, with only a slightly increased frontal area.
1. V arrangement.
2. Inline.
3. Radial.
4. W

A
  1. V arrangement.
61
Q

Which component in an engine oil system is fitted to warn of impending engine failure?
a. Oil Cooler Bypass Valve
b. Hot Well
c. Magnetic Chip Detector
d. LP and HP Oil Filters

A

c. Magnetic Chip Detector

62
Q

What might you see if the engine oil of a turbofan using a Full Flow system became excessively hot?

a. The oil pressure would drop because the oil would not be able to pass through the engine

b. Turbofan engines don’t use the full flow system.

c. The oil pressure could become excessively low

d. There would be no noticeable difference, because the oil bypass valves would open.

A

c. The oil pressure could become excessively low

63
Q

/

A
64
Q

on a twin spool engine, the drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps is normally taken form the [ ] spool.

[n2][n3]

A

[n2]

65
Q

In comparison with a single spool axial flow turbo-jet, a twin spool turbo-fan engine is;

a. less prone to surge and, with higher pressure ratios, has better overall performance

b. heavier and has a lower power to weight ratio

c. more prone to surge and, with higher pressure ratios, has a similar overall performance

d. much less fuel efficient

A

a. less prone to surge and, with higher pressure ratios, has better overall performance

66
Q

Stall and surge are reduced in a gas turbine compressor by;

a.swirl vanes, VSV’s

b.Compressor Bleed Valves, nozzle guide vanes, VSV’s, VIGV’s

c. propelling nozzle, VIGV’s

d. VIGV’s, VSV’s, compressor bleed valves

A

d. VIGV’s, VSV’s, compressor bleed valves

67
Q

The HP compressor of a twin-spool turbo-fan engine is driven by;

a. airflow drawn across it by the HP compressor

b. the HP turbine through the reduction gearing.

c. the rearmost turbine

d. the closest turbine.

A

d. the closest turbine.

68
Q

On a FADEC controlled gas turbine engine, during normal flight, the electrical power source for the FADEC and its sensors comes from the;

a. PMG or PMA
b.aircraft electrical system
c. APU generator
d. aircraft battery

A

a. PMG or PMA

69
Q

/

A
70
Q

The Bypass Ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
Select one:
a. Primary air to tertiary air.

b. Bypass air to that passing through the combustion section.

c. Primary air to secondary air.

d. Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure.

A

b. Bypass air to that passing through the combustion section.

71
Q

What is required to be in the relight envelope?

a. Be above a certain maximum altitude and below a certain minimum airspeed.

b. Contains the in-flight restart igniter plugs.

с.Be below a certain altitude and above a certain airspeed

d. 1st class stamps

A

с.Be below a certain altitude and above a certain airspeed

72
Q

precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during:

a. flight through sandy conditions

b. flight through heavy tropical rainstorm

c. flight through very dry air

d. ground running

A

b. flight through heavy tropical rainstorm

73
Q

The Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler does what?

a. maintains the oil at a precise constant temperature

b.heats the fuel and cools the oil

c. bypasses oil to the engine if the oil pressure filter becomes blocked

d.Heats the oil and cools the fuel

A

b.heats the fuel and cools the oil

74
Q

In a Turbo Prop engine with a turbine-driven reduction gearbox and a separate HP spool;

a. The Free Turbine is able to maintain a constant speed while the HP spool speed varies only if the Bleed air is on.

b. The Free Turbine can maintain a constant speed while the HP spool speed varies with power setting.

c. The turbine that drives the propeller is on the same spool as the compressors.

d. The free turbine will drive a separate compressor to the HP spool.

A

b. The Free Turbine can maintain a constant speed while the HP spool speed varies with power setting.

75
Q

during the Brayton cycle, with regard to time, combustion in the flame tube is:

constant
continuous
random
intermittent

A

continuous

76
Q

the n1 gauge is showing REV in amber, what does this mean?

A

doors unlocked

sf final (4 decks)

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