MesureUP Flashcards

1
Q
  1. You are using a multimeter to test a network cable for a break. What reading would indicate that there is a break in the cable?
    Choose the correct answer

A. 0 amps
B. 0 volts
C. Infinite resistance
D. No resistance

A

C. Infinite resistance

When you are using a multimeter to test a network cable for a break, a reading of infinite resistance would indicate that there is a break in the cable. A multimeter is a diagnostic device that combines several tools into one. A multimeter has two probes, a function selector, and a display. You can use a multimeter to measure resistance in ohms, to measure voltage in volts DC or AC, or to measure current in amperes (amps). When you measure resistance, you can identify a faulty cable.

No resistance, or near no resistance, is the reading you should expect when testing cable continuity with a multimeter. This does not indicate any type of error.

A measurement of 0 amps or 0 volts. If you are measuring resistance, you are measuring ohms, not amps or volts.

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2
Q
  1. A user plans to purchase a new iPhone at an Apple Store. What should the user do with his current iPhone to ensure a seamless transition prior to entering the store?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Back up the iPhone to his computer.

B. Send the configuration details of the iPhone to the Apple Store.

C. Synchronize the iPhone to iCloud.

D. Purchase a USB data transfer cable.

A

C. Synchronize the iPhone to iCloud.

The user should synchronize his iPhone to iCloud. iCloud is Apple’s cloud-based file storage service. At the Apple Store, the technician can restore the data from the user’s iCloud account to his new device to ensure a seamiess transition.

The user should not send the configuration details of the iPhone to the Apple Store. This is not required to switch from an older device to a newer one.

The user should not back up the iPhone to his computer because the scenario does not mention that the user will bring the computer to the Apple Store. The technician would need local access to the computer to restore the data on the old device to the new iPhone.

The user should not purchase a Universal Serial Bus (USB) data transfer cable because the data transfer occurs over the Internet using WIFi Ethernet.

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3
Q
  1. A customer has an Android smart phone. The customer is concerned about data security and wants to know what data is backed up automatically.

What data is backed up to Google automatically by default? (Choose three.)
Choose the correct answers

A. Game progress

B. Photos

C. Logins

D. Chrome browser data

E. Contacts, Gmail emails, and calendars

F. Google authentication data

G. Purchased apps

A

D. Chrome browser data

E. Contacts, Gmail emails, and calendars

G. Purchased apps

Explanation
Android smart phones are designed to back up part of their data to Google automatically. Data that is backed up automatically includes:

  • Contacts, emails, and calendars
  • Chrome browser data
  • Purchased apps
  • Some third party app data
  • Google Talk chat logs
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4
Q
  1. A customer wants a device that supports viewing documents while travelling. The customer wants to go with the least expensive option.
    What should you recommend?
    Choose the correct answer

A. E-reader

B. Laptop

C. Tablet

D. Smart phone

A

A. E-reader

Explanation
You should recommend an e-reader. This is the least expensive option for a mobile device that lets you view documents. They also let you view graphics in various formats. Various document formats are supported, with nearly all devices supporting text files and most supporting PDF files.

E-readers are limited functionality devices. They do not provide phone support, so you cannot send and receive calls or texts. They do have a built-in operating system, but do not support mobile apps.

All of the other options listed support viewing documents but are more expensive. Reading documents on a
tablet or laptop is much the same as reading them on an e-reader. Using a smart phone can be more difficult because of the smaller screen size.

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5
Q
  1. You are selecting a display for use by a digital artist. The display needs to have the best possible images and support the ability to turn off individual pixels.

Which type of display should you select?
Choose the correct answer

A. Plasma

B. OLED

C. LED

D. LCD

A

B. OLED

Explanation
Organic light-emitting diode (OLED) screens are the next generation in displays. OLED produces the best images of any display available on the market. It achieves this superiority by turning off individual pixels. When a pixel is black, it is the closest to the absence of black as is possible. Plasmas, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and Liquid Crystal Displays (LCDs) cannot do this. The only drawback to OLED is its high price.

While LED, LCD, and plasma can produce quality images, they cannot turn off individual pixels. Backlit

LEDs can produce area-wide dimming of pixels, but not individual pixels themselves. Only OLED screens can do this.

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6
Q
  1. Which component should be upgraded FIRST to use the workstation described below for virtualization purposes and to install a few Windows Servers and Linux machines?
CPU x64 base clock: 3.9 GHz 
CPU cores: 4 
TDP: 51W 
Storage: 512 GB SATA SSD 
RAM: ECC 8 GB 
Optical drive: none 
USB: 3x USB 3.0, 2x USB 2.0 

Choose the correct answer

A. Optical drive

B. RAM

C. CPU

D. Storage

A

B. RAM

Explanation
The system might not have enough random access memory (RAM) to run multiple virtual machines (VMs). For example, Windows Server 2019 requires at least 2 GB of RAM.

Virtualization allows a company to minimize the hardware cost by deploying multiple servers on a single platform.

Central Processing Units (CPUs) and hard disks are rarely a bottleneck for a virtual system. The configuration uses a high-end 64-bit 4-core CPU and a solid-state drive (SSD) disk.

An optical drive is not required for a virtual machine. An administrator should use an International Standards Organization (ISO) image or mount a virtual hard disk (VHD) file to install an operating system. Both Windows and Linux can be downloaded as an ISO file.

The presented system will be an efficient virtualization platform after upgrading the RAM to 16 or 32 GB. The system will allow the company to create a small virtual environment.

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7
Q
  1. A company is concerned about the potential for theft of laptop computers purchased to replace user desktops. The laptops should be used as user desks only. The company is looking for a way to prevent the theft of the laptops.
    What should you recommend?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Install cable locks.

B. Install or enable LoJack support.

C. Password protect the operating system and BIOS.

D. Encrypt the laptop hard disk.

A

A. Install cable locks.

Explanation
You should recommend installation of cable locks. This is the surest way to prevent the physical theft of devices. Most cable locks attach to a slot known as the Kensington Security Slot or K-Slot. Removing the device requires unlocking or cutting the cable. This slot is found on laptop computers, desktop computer cases, and most high-value removable peripherals.

You should not recommend password protecting the operating system and BIOS as a way to prevent theft. These actions make it harder to access a device if stolen. They do nothing to prevent physical theft, but they may help to deter information theft.

You should not recommend that ke company encrypt the laptop hard disk. This can be done to help protect the data on the disk, but it does nothing to prevent theft.

You should not recommend that the company install or enable LoJack support to prevent theft. This would make it easier to locate and recover a device if it is stolen. It would not prevent physical theft.

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8
Q
  1. You replace a laptop’s cracked LCD panel with a new panel of the same type. You restart the laptop. The new panel works properly, but you are unable to detect or connect to your office WIFI signal.

You need to determine the cause and correct the problem. What is most likely wrong?
Choose the correct answer

A. The WIFI modem is incompatible with the LCD panel.

B. The WIFI antenna cable is disconnected.

C. The WIFI modem is not properly seated.

D. The LCD panel is interfering with the wireless signal.

A

B. The WIFI antenna cable is disconnected

Explanation
The most likely problem is that the WIFI antenna cable is disconnected. The WIFI antenna on most laptops with an internal modem is installed in the laptop frame. The frame must be disassembled when you replace the LCD screen, and there is a risk that the antenna cable can get disconnected or damaged during the process.

It is unlikely that the WIFI modem is not properly seated. The WIFI modem is installed on the system board

and is not directly accessed when you replace an LCD panel, so it is very unlikely that it would come unseated.

The LCD panel is not interfering with the wireless signal. An LCD pane! does not generate a signal that would interfere with communications.

It is very unlikely that the WIFI modem is incompatible with the LCD panel because you replaced the original panel with the same type of panel. Even then, there is no reason to suspect that the LCD panel would result in an incompatibility.

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9
Q
  1. You need to install a new mass storage device in a laptop. You want to optimize disk read and write perfor” mance. The device should support standard disk configuration utilities.

Which type of device should you install?
Choose the correct answer

A. USB 3.0 HDD

B. SAS SSD

C. NVMe SSD

D. SATA HDD

A

C. NVMe SSD

Explanation
You should install a non-volatile memory express (NVMe) solid state drive (SSD). An SSD is a solid state device based on high-speed persistent memory with significantly faster read and write performance than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs). SSD supports multiple interfaces, including NVMe, serial ATA (SATA), and serial SCSI (SAS). NVMe provides the best performance. NVMe is a host adapter technology that connects through the Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCle) bus.

You should not install an HDD. Of all HDD options that are presented, SATA would give the better performance, but it would not be equal to using an SSD.

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10
Q
  1. A laser printer is printing dim printouts.

What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Choose the correct answer

A. The paper is damp.

B. The drum or imaging kit needs to be replaced.

C. The paper rollers are dirty.

E. The fuser assembly needs to be replaced.

A

Explanation
Dim printed images are usually caused by a drum or imaging kit that is near the end of its lifetime and needs to be replaced.

Damp paper and dirty paper rollers are usually associated with paper jams. Damp paper can also cause the printer to pick up multiple sheets of paper. A worn pad that separates the sheets can also cause a printer to grab multiple sheets of paper.

When the fuser assembly needs to be replaced, the toner will not adhere to the page.

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11
Q
  1. You are replacing the motherboard, processor, memory, and video adapter in a computer.

When you assemble the computer and power it on, the computer appears to begin the startup process, but then & beeps several times and stops.
What should you do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Check the power connection to the motherboard.

B. Check all the fans.

C. Check the Web site of the motherboard manufacturer for the beep codes.

D. Reseat the memory.

A

C. Check the Web site of the motherboard manufacturer for the beep codes.

Explanation
When a computer fails to start and emits a series of beeps, there is a hardware error of some sort. It could be an ill-seated component like memory or the processor, or it could be the fans if the motherboard is set to require a certain fan speed. The only sure way, other than checking every component, is to see what the beeps mean by going to the Web site of the motherboard manufacturer and looking up the beep codes for that motherboard.

You should not check the power connection to the motherboard. If there is no power to the motherboard, it would not be able to beep.

While reseating the memory could fix the problem, you should check the beep codes first so you know what component is causing the problem.

It is somewhat likely that a disconnected or slow fan could cause the problem, but the best course of action is to look up the beep codes so you know for sure and do not ‘have to check every component.

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12
Q
  1. You are experiencing dropped packets over your network. You suspect a faulty router and want to determine exactly where the packets are being dropped.

Which tool should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. ping

B. ipconfig

C. tracert

D. nslookup

A

C. tracert

Explanation
You should use tracert. Tracert is a command-line utility that you can use to track the route that a data packet takes to a specified destination. You can use tracert to determine where the packets are being dropped.

You should not use ipconfig. The ipconfig command-line utility is used to obtain IP configuration

information. You can also use ipconfig to release or renew a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) lease. Ipconfig does not determine where packets are being dropped.

You should not use ping. The ping command is used to test connectivity and verify the TCP/IP stack. The

ping command sends test data packets to verify connectivity to another computer using Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). Ping does not determine where packets are being dropped.

You should not use nslookup. The nslookup command-line utility is used to verify that Domain Name System (DNS) name resolution is functioning correctly. Nslookup does not determine where packets are being dropped.

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13
Q
  1. You are configuring an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain member computer running Windows 8.1 for client virtualization. The host computer is configured with the following
  • Dual core processor
  • 8 GB RAM
  • One network adapter

The guest operating system is running Windows 8. The guest operating system can connect to local resources but cannot access the network.

What is most likely wrong?
Choose the correct answer

A. You need to rename the guest virtual machine.

B. You need to upgrade the guest to Windows 8.1.

C. You need to configure the virtual network adapter (virtual switch).

D. You need to install an additional network adapter.

A

C. You need to configure the virtual network adapter (virtual switch).

Explanation
You need to configure the virtual network adapter, which is called a virtual switch in Windows 8.1. When

you configure a guest operating system, you can configure a virtual network adapter to communicate through the host computer’s network adapter.

There is no need to install an additional physical network adapter. A single physical network adapter can support multiple virtual network adapters.

You do not need to rename the guest virtual machine. There is nothing to indicate a name conflict or a need to rename the computer.

There is no need to upgrade the guest operating system. Windows 8 is supported as a client Hyper-V guest.

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14
Q
  1. Which protocol uses port 110?

Choose the correct answer

A. HTTPS over SSL/TLS

B. POP3

C. FTP

D. SMTP

A

B. POP3

Explanation
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses port 110. POP3 is the protocol used by local e-mail clients to connect to the mail server to get mail.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port 20 for data transfer and port 21 for control.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses port 443.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25. SMTP is used by mail servers for sending and receiving mail and by many mail clients for sending mail to the mail server.

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15
Q
  1. Which type of network connection has the highest latency?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Cable modem

B. Satellite

C. DSL

D. Dial-up

A

B. Satellite

Explanation
Satellite connections have a high degree of latency because of the time it takes for a signal to reach a satellite in low Earth orbit. Latency is the amount of time between an event and a device’s knowledge of the event. Latency (one-way) can be as much as 250 - 900 milliseconds (ms). Satellite connections have an average download bandwidth of 1 megabit per second (mbps). This is the only high bandwidth option available in many rural and remote areas.

A dial-up connection has high latency and the lowest bandwidth. The highest possible bandwidth for a dialup networking modem is 56 kilobits per second (kbps). However, noise on the phone line can significantly decrease the available bandwidth. Dial-up networks have high latency, typically about 150 - 200 ms or even more. Increases in higher bandwidth solutions has led to very limited use of dial-up connections.

A Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a high-speed Internet connection that uses the existing telephone network infrastructure. The available bandwidth depends on the Jevel of service purchased. The latency of a 256 kbps DSL connection is between 60-110 ms. The bandwidth of DSL connections can go as high as 100 Mbps for VDSL2, but 10 Mbps is more common.

Cable modem connections use the cable television network as the transmission medium. Bandwidth depends on the level of service purchased, but connections are typically high bandwidth (100 Mbps or more), low latency connections.

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16
Q
  1. You are following the CompTiA six-step troubleshooting method to repair a computer. You determine that the problem can probably be avoided in the future if proper preventive measures are applied.

During which step should these measures be applied?
Choose the correct answer

A. While verifying system functionality

B. After completing all of the troubleshooting steps

C. Immediately after determining the probable cause of the problem

D. While implementing your action plan to correct the problem

A

A. While verifying system functionality

Explanation
You would implement preventive measures as Part of step five, while testing your solution and verifying system functionality.

Preventive measures should be applied as part of the troubleshooting and repair process, not after.

The six steps in the troubleshooting model are:

  • Identify the problem.
  • Establish a theory of the cause.
  • Test your theory of the cause.
  • Establish an action plan.
  • Verify system functionality.
  • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Identifying the problem includes asking the user about symptoms and, if possible, observing the symptoms yourself. Ask the user if he has made any changes to the system recently.

Next you need to establish a theory of the probable cause of the problem. Keep in mind that the most obvious cause is very often the right answer.

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17
Q
  1. Which types of mobile devices have a built-in camera? (Choose two.)
    Choose the correct answers

A. GPS

B. Smart phone

C. E-reader

D. Fitness monitor

E. Glasses

A

B. Smart phone
E. Glasses

Explanation
Smart phones, glasses (smart glasses) typically have built-in cameras. Most smart phones have both frontand back-facing cameras. Glasses have a forward-facing camera only.

E-readers, GPS, and fitness monitors do not include a camera. These are the most limited, specialized devices that support fewer features than “smart” devices.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is a RAM feature that is used in critical infrastructure servers where in-memory data corruption is unacceptable?

Choose the correct answer

A. Buffered RAM

B. Double-sided RAM

C. ECC

D. Parity

A

C. ECC

Explanation 
Error Correcting Code (ECC) is a feature that is used in critical infrastructure servers where in-memory data corruption is unacceptable. ECC technology detects memory-based data errors and corrects them before the RAM module passes the data for further processing or persistent storage. 

Parity is a RAM feature that is used by the RAM module to perform checksum validation of in-memory data. The parity function can detect but not correct memory-related errors.

Buffered RAM makes in-memory data storage more efficient by allocating extra storage space for data prior to its transmission to the central processing unit (CPU). This feature improves memory efficiency but does not detect or correct errors.

Double-sided RAM is a RAM module with chips that are soldered to both sides of the printed circuit board (PCB). The RAM form factor is not involved with detecting or correcting errors.

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19
Q
  1. A business customer called to ask for your advice. The customer wants to be able to distribute draft copies of documents for review and comment. The review copies should include the document formatting. Employees will be using iOS, Windows, and mobile devices to review the documents.

What technology should the customer use?
Choose the correct answer

A. Print to PDF

B. Print to image

C. Print to XPS

D. Print to text

A

A. Print to PDF

Explanation
The customer should print documents for review to PDF. The PDF format is considered as standard for documents and is supported on the broadest assortment of platforms. The PDF standard has been an open standard since 2008. Fonts used are embedded in the document and formatting is maintained. It is also possible to add comments to PDF documents and edit the document with some applications.

A large number of applications are available that let you select PDF output as a printer. Many applications also support exporting directly to PDF.

The customer should not print documents for review to the Open XML Paper Specification (XPS). It is similar to PDF in that it is page description language but is not supported on as many platforms as PDF. The only operating system with native XPS support is Windows (Windows Vista and later) and most applications do not directly support XPS. XPS was developed by Microsoft and released under a royalty-free patent license. The format has had very limited popularity since its introduction and is not recommended for general use.

The customer should not print the document for review to an image file. An image file would let users view the document, but not comment. Also, compatibility with different platform would depend on the image format used.

The customer should not print the document for review to text: This would not save the fonts or formatting of the document.

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20
Q
  1. A user is replacing the power supply on his desktop computer. The computer includes a 3.5-inch floppy disk drive. Which connector type must the replacement power supply support to ensure a successful repair? |
    Choose the correct answer

A. An 8-pin External Power Supply connector

B. A 4-pin Molex connector

C. A 20-pin ATX connector

D. A4-pin Berg connector

A

D. A4-pin Berg connector

Explanation
To power the floppy drive, the user needs to ensure that the replacement power supply includes a 4-pin

Berg connector. This is a +5V power cable that is considered to be legacy due to the large-scale absence of 3.5-inch floppy drives in modern desktop computers.

The user does not need a 4-pin Molex connector to power the floppy drive. The +5v 4-pin Molex is = normally used to power Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) hard drives or optical drives.

The user does not need an 8-pin External Power Supply connector to power the floppy drive. This +12V connector and cable are used to provide some central processing units (CPUs) with additional power.

The user does not need a 20-pin Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) connector to power the floppy drive This +12V connector and cable is used to power the motherboard.

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21
Q
  1. An administrator manages a server with five disks that are configured as a RAID 5 array. One of the hard drives fails. Which two actions should he perform? (Choose two.)
    Choose the correct answers

A. Replace the failed drive.

B. Repair the RAID array using a utility program.

C. Restore the RAID array from a backup.

D. Perform a low-level format of the failed drive.

A

A. Replace the failed drive.

B. Repair the RAID array using a utility program.

Explanation
The administrator should replace the failed drive and repair the Redundant Array of Independent Disks

(RAID) array by using a utility program. The repair program depends on the RAID controller manufacturer or on the operating system.

A RAID 5 array is a collection of three or more physical hard drives that are configured to appear to the host computer’s operating system as a single volume. Data is striped horizontally across all drive members, and redundantly stored data means that the array can rebuild the contents of a single failed member drive.

The administrator should not perform a low-level format of the failed drive. This does not have any testorative effect on the failed drive or on the RAID 5 array.

With a RAID 5 configuration, the loss of a drive is inconsequential. The array can rebuild the data from the failed drive by accessing redundant (parity) data that is stored on the other disk array members. Therefore,

the administrator does not need to restore the RAID array from a backup. This is only necessary when the RAID 5 array loses a second member.

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22
Q
  1. A customer has questions about connection technologies. The customer is considering installing a contactless payment point-of-sale (POS) terminal in his business. He is worried about interference with Wi-Fi and Bluetooth peripherals currently in use in his business. He wants to know the type of connection required for POS transactions.
    What type of connection is used?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Lightning

B. Bluetooth

C. Wi-Fi

D. NFC

A

D. NFC

Explanation 
Connectional payment (also known as "tap-and-pay” and by other terms) uses near field communication (NFC) technology to communicate with devices set up for payments, such as smart phones. NFC operates in a different frequency spectrum than Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or ISM (industrial, scientific and medical band of 13.56 MHz). NFC communicates through magnetic loop induction between two devices. This is a low-power connection and requires the devices to be within 4 inches (10 cm) of each other. Because of the different spectrum and short range, it does not interfere with Bluetooth or Wi-Fi communications. 

You will find some devices that are both Bluetoothand NFC-enabled. With these devices, NFC is used to make the initial connection between the devices and then Bluetooth is used for data transfer because of its higher data rates. The connection is then dropped after the transfer.

A Lightning connection is a wired connection used by iPhone and iPad devices for data and power and
would not work in this scenario.

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23
Q
  1. A small development group meets offsite. Group member laptops are configured with WIFI and Bluetooth support. The WIFI at the meeting site does not provide Internet access. Members can access the Internet on their cellular phones.
    You need to configure Internet access for group member laptops. You need to optimize performance.
    What should you configure?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Bluetooth partnering

B. Mobile tethering

C. Ad hoc networking

D. Bluetooth network

A

B. Mobile tethering

Explanation
You should configure mobile tethering by using one of the cellular phones with Internet. Mobile tethering lets you configure a mobile hot spot with the phone acting as an access point. This would provide internet connectivity for the laptops through a WIFI connection with the phone.

You should not configure Bluetooth networking or Bluetooth pairing. Bluetooth pairing is the process of connecting a device, such as a laptop or cell phone, with peripherals. A Bluetooth network is a type of personal area network (PAN) made up of multiple Bluetooth pairings. While you might be able to provide

Internet access, access performance would be slow.

You should not configure ad hoc networking. An ad hoc network is made up of unmanaged peer-to-peer connections between devices. An ad hoc network could be used to enable the laptops to communicate with each other but does not provide for optimal Internet access.

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24
Q
  1. A laser printer is experiencing paper jams.
    What should you do?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Clean the fuser assembly roller with water on a fibrous cleaning towel.

B. Use the maintenance software to realign the guide rollers.

C. Clean the rubber guide rollers using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel.

D. Replace the fuser assembly.

A

C. Clean the rubber guide rollers using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel.

Explanation
You should clean the rubber guide rollers using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel. The guide rollers are responsible for moving the paper through the printer. They should be a little rough but clean. When they get dirt or paper dust on them, it can cause paper jams. You can clean them using alcohol on a fibrous cleaning towel. If they become too smooth, you can use alcohol on a non-metallic scouring pad to make them rough so they work better.

Replacing the fuser assembly will not resolve the problem. The fuser assembly is used to fuse ink to the paper, not to move the paper through the printer.

You should not clean the fuser assembly roller with water on a fibrous cleaning towel. A dirty fuser assembly roller is not the problem. Also, you should not use a fibrous cleaning towel and water to clean the fuser assembly roller. You should use alcohol and a soft cloth. You must be very careful not to scratch the fuser assembly roller.

You should not use maintenance software to realign the guide rollers. Ink jet printers include maintenance software, which can be used to realign the print heads. Laser printers have maintenance kits that contain spare parts.

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25
Q
  1. A support agent receives a call from a customer. The customer has bought a new high-end Windows 10 laptop and is concerned about an unknown port that looks similar to a micro USB connector, What is the MOST likely port described by the customer?
    Choose the correct answer

A. USB Type C

B. Mini USB

C. Lightning Port

D. eSATA

A

Explanation
The customer has bought a laptop with a USB type C port (USB-C). This is the most likely connector to be installed on a high-end device. it measures 8.4mm by 2.6mm and is very similar to the micro USB port found in mobile phones. USB-C supports the latest USB 3.1 standard, offering data transfers up to 10 Gbps. A USB-C cable is reversible, which makes it easier to use than the old USB 2.0 and USB 3.0 cables.

It is unlikely the customer is describing a lightning port. A lightning port is a popular connecter on mobile devices manufactured by Apple.

It is unlikely the customer has an External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA) or mini USB port. These ports are not installed on high-end slim laptops. eSATA is an interface for device storage. Mini USB is twice as thick as micro USB and is considered a legacy connector type.

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26
Q
  1. Which statements correctly characterizes network cable types and their usage? (Choose two.)
    Choose the correct answers

A. Category 6 cable supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet.

B. Fiber optic cable is primarily used for networking within a single building.

C. Plenum-rated cable is primarily used to reduce EMI.

D. STP cabling is limited to up to 500 meters.

E. STP cable is more resistant to interference than UTP cable.

A

A. Category 6 cable supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
E. STP cable is more resistant to interference than UTP cable.

Explanation
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable is more resistant to interference than Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable. STP cable has an outer metal shielding that surrounds each copper wire pair. This outer shielding minimizes the electromagnetic interference (EMI). EMI might still occur, but it is much less likely. You should note that | fiber optic cable eliminates EMI completely because it uses transmitted light rather than an electronic signal. |

Plenum-rated cable is not primarily used to reduce EMI. An enclosed space, such as above a drop ceiling or below a raised floor, that is used for heating, ventilation, or air conditioning is known as a plenum. Plenum-rated cable is used in such areas. Plenum-rated cable has a special coating that does not burn as easily and that reduces the amount toxic fumes released when it does. Fire and building codes often require plenum-rated cable for specific locations.

Fiber optic cable is not primarily used for networking within a single building. UTP cable would generally be used in this case. It is the most common type of cabling used for shorter distances because it is less expensive. Fiber optic cable provides faster transmissions over longer distances than copper wire and is the most secure type of cable. Fiber optic is sometimes used to meet special configuration requirements, such has high speed data storage networks.

STP cabling is not limited to up to 500 meters. STP cabling is limited to no more than 100 meters. The limit is the same for UTP cable.

Category 6 cables support the 1OOBASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), 1OOOBASE-T/1000BASETX (Gigabit Ethernet), and 10GBASE-T (10-Gigabit Ethernet) standards.

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27
Q
  1. When you turn on your laptop, you hear the hard drive spinning, but you see nothing on the display.
    What should you do first?
    Choose the correct answer

A. Disassemble the laptop and reseat the video card.

B. Connect an external monitor and toggle the display to it.

C. Replace the power adapter.

D. Replace the LCD screen.

A

B. Connect an external monitor and toggle the display to it.

Explanation
You should connect an external monitor and toggle the display to it. Before disassembling the laptop, you should to try to determine whether or not the problem is with the LCD screen. You can connect an external monitor and toggle the video to the external monitor. If the external monitor displays information, then the problem is likely the LCD or the internal video cable. If the external monitor does not display information, it is likely some other problem. You can usually use a function key on laptop keyboards to toggle between displays.

You should not disassemble the laptop and reseat the video card first. You might need to do this, but it is better to analyze the problem before proceeding to disassemble the unit.

You should not check the power adapter. In this case, the hard drive is spinning, so you obviously have power.

You should not replace the LCD screen first. You should first determine if the problem is with the LCD screen.

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28
Q
  1. A technician wants to improve performance on an Intel processor-based laptop that is used for high-level gaming. She replaces the existing memory with two 8 GB memory modules. The memory is designed as high-performance RAM and can operate at levels higher than DDR industry standards.

The technician restarts the computer and discovers that memory is configured to the DDR industry standard. The technician needs to configure memory to optimize performance. The effort required should be kept to a minimum.
What should the technician do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Enable SPD.

B. Configure XMP.

C. Disable Automatic Configuration.

D. Manually set memory clocking.

A

B. Configure XMP.

Explanation
She needs to configure Extreme Memory Profiles (XMP), which is an Intel technology for supporting highperformance RAM. This is an extension to Serial Presence Detect (SPD), which is used to configure default memory settings that are based on installed memory.

XMP is enabled through Basic Input/Output System (BIOS), typically with two profiles available. Profile 1 is the more conservative setting and is designed to provide stability while improving memory performance. Profile 2 is more aggressive in its performance settings but can result in stability problems in some situations.

She should not enable SPD. SPD is enabled by default, and there is no reason to make any changes to SPD. SPD is used to detect the installed memory and to configure the memory based on the standard default settings. Configuring XMP will override SPD.

She should not disable Automatic Configuration, if that is supported by the computer BIOS. You would disable this setting if you wanted to manage memory configuration parameters individually and manually.

She should not manually set memory clocking. This is only one of the settings that are necessary if you want to manually configure the memory for optimization.

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29
Q

What is the purpose of cloud metered services?
Choose the correct answer

A. Pay-per-use billing structure

B. Limited access bandwidth

C. Shared public resources

D. Failure detection and reporting

A

A. Pay-per-use billing structure

Explanation
Metered services refer to a pay-per-use billing structure where the tenant is billed based on resource use rather than on provisioned resources. Accurate billing
requires accurate monitoring and reporting by the cloud provider, sometimes referred to as measured services.

Metered services are not a way to limit access bandwidth. This is accomplished through various bandwidth throttling methods.

Metered services do not refer to shared public resources. Providing resources
that can be shared as needed between tenants and adjusted as necessary is referred to as resource pooling.

Metered services are not related to failure detection and reporting. Failure detection and reporting is accomplished through different technologies and by activity monitoring.

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30
Q

Your customer wants to deploy a new IP phone. He finds a label on the device that says PoE-enabled.
What device should you install in the local area network to support this phone?
Choose the correct answer

A. PoE battery

B. PoE switch

C. PoE computer

D. PoE firewall

A

B. PoE switch

Explanation
You should recommend a Power over Ethernet (PoE) switch. PoE allows you to send electrical power using a standard Ethernet cable. You do not need a separate power supply for this phone. You should use a PoE switch in your network or buy a PoE injector to send electrical power to a network device. You would use this solution for IP phones, wireless access points), IP cameras, etc.

You should not recommend a PoE firewall. A firewall is a special network device that is designed to protect your network. You do not place a firewall as a dedicated PoE device for a local area network

Computers and batteries do not offer PoE features. You should use a PoE switch or injector.

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31
Q

A customer reports hearing a loud, periodic clicking sound from within the computer chassis. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Choose the correct answer

A. Incorrectly installed RAM

B. Overclocked CPU

C. Overpowered fan

D. Hard drive head crash

A

D. Hard drive head crash

Explanation
The most likely cause of the periodic clicking sound is a hard drive head crash. A broken mechanical hard disk drive (HDD) may have a misalignment between its read write heads and disk platters. The clicking is due to the physical collision of the actuator arm with the hard disk drive chassis. A head crash is a very serious problem and signals imminent hard drive failure and data loss. The customer should back up the disk data as quickly as possible and replace the drive.

The problem is likely not caused by an overpowered fan. A case fan that receives too much power will not work or create a whirring/buzzing noise fan blade overwork.

The problem is likely not caused by an overclocked Central Processing Unit (CPU). CPU overclocking involves manually overriding the default CPU clock speed to improve the performance of the system without additional hardware costs. However, if the CPU is overclocked too aggressively, a popping sound and smoke may appear from within the chassis. This means that the processor is burned out because it is overpowered.

The problem is likely not caused by incorrectly installed Random Access Memory (RAM). If you install RAM modules incorrectly, the computer may not Start.

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32
Q

An administrator runs diagnostics on a desktop PC and receives several SMARTrelated errors. Which computer subsystem is most likely at risk?
Choose the correct answer

A. Memory

B. Network

C. Processor

D. Storage

A

D. Storage

Explanation
Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (SMART) errors may indicate a computer storage system problem with the mechanical hard disk drives (HDDs) or solid-state drives (SSDs).

SMART is a storage diagnostics feature that was developed by IBM. Today, it is a vendor-neutral standard. SMART-enabled diagnostic programs can analyze hard drives to the sector level and report on the health of the device, including how close the device is to failure.

SMART is not related to other computer subsystems such as the memory, processor, or network.

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33
Q

You support a laptop owner who has been using the laptop at home for several years. Now the user reports that the laptop is unstable and shuts down suddenly after a few hours of use.
What should you do first?

A. Check and replace the battery.

B. Check and clean the CPU heat sink and fan.

C. Replace the motherboard.

D. Replace the memory

A

B. Check and clean the CPU heat sink and fan.

Overheating is a common cause of sudden shutdowns after hours of operation. Because the laptop is several years old, it might have accumulated enough dust in the CPU heat sink and fan to cause the laptop to overheat. You should check and clean the heat sink and fan as a first step.

You should not replace the motherboard or the memory as the first step. A fault in either could cause sudden shutdowns, but it is too early in the troubleshooting process to take such drastic and expensive actions.

You should not check and replace the battery. There is nothing in the scenario to suggest that a faulty battery is to blame.

CompTIA lists the following guidelines for working on laptops:

  • Document and label cable and screw locations.
  • Organize parts.
  • Refer to manufacturer documentation.
  • Use appropriate hand tools.
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34
Q

You help a customer configure synchronization with iCloud. The customer is synchronizing an iPhone and a PC running Windows 8.

What information can be automatically synced between the devices? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. Calendars

B. User data

C. Web browser bookmarks

D. Music files

E. Program settings

A

A. Calendars

C. Web browser bookmarks

Explanation
When you set up iCloud synchronization, you can sync mail, contacts, calendars and tasks, bookmarks, and Photo Stream between an iPhone and a PC running iCioud Control Panel for Windows. Mail, contacts, and calendars require

Outlook 2007 or later on the PC. Bookmarks require Internet Explorer 8 or later.

Automatic synchronization is not supported for music file, program settings, and user data.

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35
Q

You help a customer configure synchronization with iCloud. The customer is synchronizing an iPhone and a PC running Windows 8.

What information can be automatically synced between the devices? (Choose two.)

A. Calendars

B. User data

C. Program settings

D. Web browser bookmarks

E. Music files

A

A. Calendars

D. Web browser bookmarks

Explanation
When you set up iCloud synchronization, you can sync mail, contacts, calendars and tasks, bookmarks, and Photo Stream between an iPhone and a PC running iCloud Control Panel for Windows. Mail, contacts, and calendars require Outlook 2007 or later on the PC. Bookmarks require Internet Explorer 8 or later.

Automatic synchronization is not supported for music file, program settings, and user data.

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36
Q

You are selecting a removable storage option for a specialized application. The solution must meet the following requirements:

  • Minimum 500 GB capacity
  • Extreme temperature (-20 degrees C)
  • Resistant to physical shock
    What should you use?
    Choose the correct answer

A. SSD drive

B. HDD drive

C. Blu-ray disk drive

D. SDHC card

A

A. SSD drive

You should choose a solid-state drives (SSD) for this application. SSD drives support capacities of up to 20 TB in theory, with current maximums around 3 TB, and operating temperatures as low as -55 degrees C. They have no moving parts and are effectively immune to physical shock.

You should not choose a hard disk drive (HDD). HDDs typically cannot operate at lower than O degrees C. They are also highly susceptible to physical shock.

You should not choose an SDHC card or Blu-ray disk solution. The maximum capacity for an SDHC card is 32 GB. For a Blu-ray disk it is 128 GB.

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37
Q

You are diagnosing a problem with a laser printer. When the laser printer prints, each page has white vertical lines running down it.
What two techniques should you try first? (Choose two.)

A. Clean the corona wire.

B. Clean the photosensitive drum.

C. Reinstall the printer driver.

D. Shake the toner cartridge.

E. Replace the fuser assembly.

A

A. Clean the corona wire.

D. Shake the toner cartridge

Explanation
When a laser printer prints pages with vertical white lines, it can mean that the toner cartridge is clogged so toner is not being distributed evenly. One of the first things you should try is to shake the toner cartridge to try to remove the clog.

You can also try cleaning the corona wire. When the corona wire is dirty, the image cannot be properly transferred to the paper at the dirty spots. This translates into white lines or streaks running up and down the page. Most laser printers have some kind of brush for cleaning the corona wire.

The problem is probably not caused by a dirty photosensitive drum. A dirty or scratched photosensitive drum can cause a mark on the paper that repeats at regular intervals. A dirty drum will not normally cause white vertical lines.

You should not replace the fuser assembly. A problem with the fuser assembly would generally result in smudges or blotches on the page. It is not the first thing to check when diagnosing white lines on the page.

The problem is most likely not related to the printer driver. The printer driver is responsible for translating application and operating system commands to a language the printer can understand. Vertical white lines are caused by an ink distribution problem, not a translation problem.

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38
Q

A user needs to configure her printer to print on both sides of each page. How should she configure her ‘ print job settings?
Choose the correct answer

A. Enable report pages

B. Enable cover pages.

C. Enable collation.

D. Enable duplex.

A

D. Enable duplex.

Explanation
She should enable duplex on her printer so the device prints on both sides of each page. Normally, this option appears as part of the printer driver and management software, which is accessible from the operating system of the host.

She should not enable collation. Collation refers to aggregating multi-page documents, with or without a staple binding. For instance, printing two copies of a three-page document would print the first copy before the printer moves on to the second copy.

She should not enable cover pages. A cover page serves as an easier way to separate a print job from the print jobs of others in a shared printer environment.

She should not enable report pages. Report pages contain printer and print job metadata that may be useful to a technician who is troubleshooting the printer.

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39
Q

An administrator needs to prepare a USB thumb drive for a user. The user will plug the drive into his Windows 10 computer and transfer files up to 6 GB to the thumb drive. Which file system should he choose?
Choose the correct answer

A. NTFS

B. Hierarchical File System Plus (HFS)+

C. FAT32

D. NFS

A

A. NTFS

Explanation
The administrator should format the Universal Serial Bus (USB) thumb drive with New Technology File
System (NTFS). NFTS supports file sizes larger than 4 GB and is supported natively in recent Windows Client and Windows Server operating systems.

The administrator should not use the File Allocation Table 32-bit (FAT32) file system because FAT32 has a 4GB maximum file size limit.

The administrator should not use Hierarchical File System Plus (HFS+). This is an Apple-native file system that is used on computers that run macOS. However, HFS+ does have a maximum file size of 2 GB.

The administrator should not use the Network File System (NFS). NFS is a file access protocol that allows users to access files across a network and that is used by Linux and/or macOS computers.

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40
Q

You are configuring a router for a business customer’s network. The customer has provided you with a list of network protocols and services that the router needs to support. The customer wants to use only wellknown ports. You need to configure open ports as necessary in the router.

Select the appropriate port for each protocol.

HTTP 
HTTPS
DNS
RDP
POP3
A

Explanation
HTTP, which is used for non-encrypted communication with web sites and servers, uses port 80.

HTTPS, which provides secure, encrypted communication with web sites and servers, uses port 443.

Domain Name System (DNS), which maps device names to IP addresses, uses port 53.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is used for remote system management and accessing a desktop remotely, uses port 3389.

POP3, which is used by a client to receive email, uses port 110.

These are all well-known ports.

Port 25 is used with the SMTP protocol to deliver email from a client to a mail server.

Port 3724 is used by a multiplayer game for online play.

41
Q

You are helping a customer choose an appropriate CPU for a computer. The computer will be used in a home computer for business applications and some gaming. The customer is considering a single core Intel CPU with hyper-threading.

What are considerations when installing a CPU with hyper-threading?
Choose the correct answer ‘

A. The motherboard must have dual front side busses.

B. CPU performance will be roughly equivalent to a dual core processor.

C. The motherboard BIOS must support hyper-threading.

D. The operating system will report the computer as having a single processor.

A

C. The motherboard BIOS must support hyper-threading.

Explanation
The motherboard BIOS must support hyper-threading. It must also have a chipset that supports hyperthreading.

Hyper-threading is a multi-thread technology that enables a CPU to support two sets of processes in a single CPU core at the same time. Performance increases over a standard single-core processor are typically 30% when supporting multi-threaded applications.

The performance of a CPU with hyper-threading is not as good as that of a dual-core processor. This is because most core resources are shared in hyper-threading, but separate core resources are provided ina multiple core processor.

The operating system will not report the computer as having a single processor. The computer has, in effect, two logical processors and the operating system will detect two processors in use.

There is no requirement for dual front side busses or other motherboard resources. All motherboard resources, including busses, are shared between the logical processor threads.

The front side bus provides the communication path between the CPU and the northside chipset, which acts as the memory controller for the computer. This technology is used on Intel motherboards, but not AMD motherboards.

42
Q

A company uses a RAID 5 disk subsystem for data storage. The RAID subsystem is a network-attached storage system accessed via the LAN.

Users start complaining about slow performance when retrieving data from the NAS. Performance when accessing other network resources is not affected.
What is the most likely cause?
Choose the correct answer

A. Multiple hard disks have failed.

B. The network is experiencing an external attack.

C. Disk fragmentation has reached a critical level.

D. A hard disk has failed.

A

D. A hard disk has failed.

Explanation
The most likely cause is that one hard disk in the RAID subsystem has failed. A RAID 5 configuration requires a least three hard disks with data and parity information spread across all of the drives. When one drive fails, data must be regenerated during read access, slowing data access. It is necessary to replace the hard disk and recover the data. Data recovery, depending on the amount of data and number of hard disks involved, can be & very lengthy process.

The procedure for replacing a failed hard disk in a disk subsystem is usually relatively simple. in nearly all cases, you should only need simple tools, such as a screwdriver. it may be necessary to run a recovery utility after replacing the hard disk to restore striping.

The problem is not multiple disk failures. RAID 5 can compensate for the loss of one drive, but only one drive. Loss of multiple drives would case the RAID subsystem to fail.

It is not likely that the problem is caused by excessive fragmentation. Because of how data is broken up and written across multiple drives, fragmentation is not a serious problem. In effect, data is being fragmented as ts being written.

Fragmentation can be a problem in some disk configurations, but would not result in a sudden performance toss. instead, you would expect users to see a gradual drop in performance.

It is not likely that the network is experiencing an external attack. Some types of attacks, such as a Denial of Service (DoS) attack, can slow network performance. This usually happens because the network is being flooded with high levels of traffic. However, the loss of performance would likely be occurring throughout the network, not just when reading data from the server.

43
Q

A customer complains that a smart phone’s touchscreen is unresponsive. The customer has tried restarting and resetting the phone.
What should you suggest the customer try next?
Choose the correct answer

A. Remove the battery, wait, and then replace the battery.

B. Reset the screen connection.

C. Contact the manufacturer for repair.

D. Initialize the phone to factory settings.

A

C. Contact the manufacturer for repair.

Explanation
You should have the customer contact the manufacturer repair. The only steps that a customer can really

perform to try to fix the problem are restarting and resetting the phone. Most customers are not qualified to disassemble a phone to reset the connections or replace the touchscreen.

You should not have the customer remove the battery, wait, then replace the battery. If resetting the phone didn’t fix the problem, it is extremely unlikely that this would help.

The customer has already initialized the phone to factory settings. That is what happens when you reset the phone.

44
Q

A customer wants to set up a set of speakers and needs to be able to stream sound to them from a smart phone from anywhere in the room.
What connection type should the customer use?
Choose the correct answer

A. Audio cable

B. NFC

C. Wi-Fi

D. Bluetooth

A

D. Bluetooth

Explanstion
The customer should use Bluetooth speakers. This would enable a wireless connection between smart phone and the speakers with sufficient range to meet the solution requirements.

The custorner should not use Wi-Fi. Wireless speakers use Bluetooth rather than Wi-Fi.

The custorner should not use near field communication (NFC). NFC is limited to no more than about 4 inches (10 cm), so & could not meet the solution requirements. Some references report the range as 20 cm, Dut 10 cm és the most commonly referenced range.

You can find speakers that support a configuration known as Bluetooth plus NFC. NFC is used initially to conhgure the connection and the Bluetooth is used to stream the signal.

The customer should not use an audio cable. This would be an inconvenient solution. Depending on the size of the room, it might not be possible to find a long enough cable.

45
Q

A customer calls to complain about short battery life on a newly purchased phone. The phone is the same manufacturer, but a different model, than the user’s previous phone and has a larger screen. The customer wants recommendations to increase battery life.
What should you recommend?

A

Explanation
You should recommend that the customer disable GPS and location services. All hardware radio apps can be big power draws. This also applies to Bluetooth and Wi-Fi.

You should recommend that the customer restrict background data. This will prevent the phone from polling for updates to email, social media, and so forth. Preventing this polling will help to reduce background power requirements.

You should recommend that the customer watch the signal strength. When in areas with no signal or a very weak signal, if the customer does not need to make calls, text, or use email, the phone should be placed in Airplane mode. Otherwise, the phone will draw power continually searching for a stronger signal.

Although it is not listed, you should recommend that the user disable any apps not in use and limit background apps.

You should not recommend that the customer turn off the phone when not in use. The phone uses more power starting up than it does when in sleep mode.

You should not recommend that the customer fully discharge then recharge the battery. Fully discharging the battery can make it unstable and could cause charging problems.

46
Q

You provide support for users at your company. The network is configured as a large routed wide area network (WAN). A user calls you and is unable to reach a server on a remote subnet. Testing indicates that other users on the local subnet with that user are also unable to connect to the server.

You need to try to determine where communication is failing.
What should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. Tracert

B. Netdom

C. Netstat

D. Ping

A

A. Tracert

Explanation
You should use the tracert command. The most likely problem is that a router somewhere between the source and destination is failing. The tracert command sends a message to each router along the path to a destination and reports back the result. This should allow you to see when the message reaches the failing router.

Tracert is a Windows command. The equivalent UNIX/Linux command is traceroute.

You should not use the ping command. Ping lets you test communication with a single destination. It would let you verify whether or not you can communicate with a remote server, but not tell you where communication is failing. The ping command is the same for UNIX/Linux and Windows.

You should not use the netdom command. This is a Windows command for Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) management. it can be used for various purposes, such as joining a computer to a domain or establishing domain trust relationships, but not to test network router communications.

You should not use the netstat command. The netstat command lets you collect and display detailed information about network communication and port use, but not communication paths. The netstat command is the same for UNIX/Linux and Windows.

47
Q

You replaced a mini-PCl wireless adapter in a laptop and installed the driver software from the manufacturer’s Web site. The adapter appears in Device Manager with no warning icon, but when you go to Networks and Wi-Fi, Windows reports that there are no wireless networks in range. Several other computers nearby have strong connections to a wireless network.

What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Choose the correct answer

A. You did not install the correct driver for the adapter.

B. The wireless adapter is disabled.

C. You did not properly connect the antenna wires.

D. You did not attach a power cable to the adapter.

A

C. You did not properly connect the antenna wires.

Explanation
The most likely cause of the problem is that you did not properly connect the antenna wires. Laptops with internal wireless adapters usually have an internal antenna. That antenna must be connected to the wireless adapter for the adapter to be able to connect to wireless networks. If you do not properly connect the antenna, the adapter will appear to be functioning properly in Device Manager, but it will be unable to detect wireless networks.

The problem is not that you did not attach a power cable to the adapter. Mini-PCI cards do not require separate power cables. They draw power from the mini-PCl slot.

The problem is not that you did not install the correct driver. If you did not install the correct driver, there would probably be an indication of a problem in Device Manager.

The problem is not that the wireless adapter is disabled. If the wireless adapter was disabled, you would not see the Wi-Fi section in Networks.

48
Q

A customer wants to improve performance for USB devices on a computer. You install an expansion card with four USB 3.0 ports.

What is the transfer rate supported by USB 3.0?
Choose the correct answer

A. 20 Gb/s

B. 12 Mb/s

C. 5 Gb/s

D. 280 Mb/s .

A

C. 5 Gb/s

Explanation
The USB 3.0 standard supports a theoretical transfer rate of 5 Gigabits per second (Gb/s). The practical limit is closer to 3 Gb/s.

USB 1.0 supports a maximum of up to 12 Mb/s. USB 2.0 supports a maximum of up to 280 Mb/s. No current USB standard supports 20 Gb/s.

All higher USB standards are backward compatible with slower USB devices, supporting transfer rates as low as 1.5 Mb/s.

49
Q

A user boots up a desktop PC and opens a web browser to access the Internet. The system displays an error saying that a website cannot be found. The system reports that no network connection has been found. The technician suspects that the TCP/IP stack has been corrupted. What should the technician do to test the TCP/IP stack?
Choose the correct answer

A. Verify the MAC address.

B. Check the device firewall.

C. Use the ipconfig command.

D. Ping the loopback interface.

A

D. Ping the loopback interface.

Explanation
The technician should ping the loopback interface to verify that the TCP/IP protocol stack is properly installed. The most common loopback address for IPv4 is 127.0.0.1. A huge advantage of using this solution is that access to the physical network is not required.

The technician should not check the local firewall. There are no firewall rules to allow the operating system to verify TCP/IP settings.

The technician should not check the Media Access Control (MAC) address. This does not solve the issue because a MAC address is just a hardware address of a network interface card (NIC).

The technician should not use the ipconfig command. The ipconfig command shows TCP/IP settings but does not test the TCP/IP stack.

50
Q

A customer has had a tablet for over two years. The customer complains that the tablet’s battery is not charging. The indicator lamp is illuminated on the tablet when it is connected to the charger. The customer has tried shutting the tablet down and restarting.
What is the most likely problem?
Choose the correct answer .

A. Device charging port damaged

B. Damaged cable

C. Battery not completely discharged

D. Bad battery

A

D. Bad battery

Explanation
The problem is most likely a bad battery. The Lithium-ion batteries used in mobile devices have a limited lifespan, usually rated in charge cycles. The battery won’t charge or becomes unstable after that limit is reached. Many manufacturers recommend turning a mobile device completely off periodically to help
preserve the battery life.

The problem is not likely to be a damaged cable or charging port. In either case, the charge indicator on the device would probably not illuminate.

The problem is not that the battery is not completely discharged. Manufacturers strongly recommend that you do not let the battery discharge completely. This can make the battery unstable and shortens the battery life.

51
Q

A customer is installing a multifunction printer in a home office. The customer wants to be able to print from a laptop or mobile devices from any location, including when traveling for business. The customer has asked you for advice.
What technology should you recommend?
Choose the correct answer

A. Bluetooth

B. AirPrint

C. Cloud printing

D. 802.11ac

A

C. Cloud printing

Explanation
You should recommend cloud printing. Cloud printing gives you the ability to print from any device with an Internet connection to the configured printer. Many printers now come with cloud printing capability builtin. Printers that do not directly support cloud printing can be configured for cloud printing, but must be
connected to a PC with the Google Chrome browser installed.

You should not recommend AirPrint. AirPrint is an Apple Computer proprietary printer technology that makes it possible to print to a networked printer. This is used for printing over a network, not for direct
support of printing over the Internet.

You should not recommend Bluetooth. Bluetooth technology is a short-range peer-to-peer technology that enables a device to connect directly with a peripheral.

You should not recommend 802.11ac. This is the latest 802.11 wireless networking standard, but is not required for printing over the Internet.

52
Q

A company uses an online database to store information about all production servers, using short descriptions. The database has five categories: print servers, file servers, authentication servers, syslog servers and mail servers.
A technician receives a request to add three servers to the database based on the description provided by the server team.

How should the technician categorize the servers? To answer, choose the appropriate server category from the drop-down menu for each description.
Choose the correct options

A

Explanation
The technician should assign the Linux-based server running the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Server
(RADIUS) to the authentication servers. The server is responsible for checking credentials and granting access to virtual private network (VPN) users.

The technician should assign the server using Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 110, 25, and 143 to email servers. Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) uses TCP port 110 to retrieve emails. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses TCP port 25 to send emails. Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) uses TCP port 143 to sync emails. .

The technician should assign the server that collects firewall logs to syslog servers. A System Logging Protocol (Syslog) server is a central repository for network logs and system events.

The technician should not categorize any of the servers as a print server or a file server. Print servers are responsible for managing printers and incoming print jobs. File servers allow end users to access files using a dedicated protocol, such as Server Message Block (SMB) or File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

53
Q

What communication technology is used with the mobile pay technology used during point of sale (POS) checkouts?
Choose the correct answer

A. Cellular

B. NFC

C. Wi-Fi

D. Bluetooth

A

B. NFC

Explanation
Near field communication (NFC) is the communication technology used with mobile pay. NFC enables a smart phone to communicate with an NFC-enabled POS terminal to pay for a transaction. Devices must be within 4 inches (10 cm) to communicate over NFC.

Wi-Fi is a wireless technology used for wireless networking. It is used in home and home office, business networks, and public hot spots.

Bluetooth is a wireless communication technology used for communication with peripherals and other Bluetooth-enabled devices. It can also be used to establish a persqnal area network (PAN) Cellular is the communication technology used by smart phones and cellular phones for placing phone cails, and for most devices or Internet access.

54
Q

A customer computer has four memory slots. He installs two dual-channel RAM modules but discovers that the RAM is operating in single-channel mode. What should he do to troubleshoot this issue?
Choose the correct answer

A. Read the motherboard manual.

B. Flash the system BIOS.

C. Modify the CPU stock

D. Replace both RAM modules.

A

A. Read the motherboard manual.

Explanation
He should read the motherboard manual to learn which Random Access Memory (RAM) slots he should use to install a pair of dual-channel memory modules. Oual-channel configuration allows both RAM slots to send and receive data simultaneously. It also doubles the throughput of the memory data. Dual-channel capability is a function of the motherboard memory controller.

He should not flash the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS). He should first verify that he instalted the RAM modules correctly. The scenario does not indicate that the BIOS program is out of date

He should not replace both RAM modules. The scenario stipulates that the RAM is detected and working but is running in single-channel mode instead of dual-channel mode.

He should not modify the central processing unit (CPU) clock. This is called overclocking. This will void his manufacturer warranty and can produce instability across the entire system. CPU overclocking is undertaken to increase system performance without paying for a CPU or motherboard upgrade, at the expense of system stability.

55
Q

A customer is choosing a processor for a new computer and needs to decide on whether to use a processor that supports hyperthreading or a dual-core processor.
How do the two processor types differ? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. The operating system recognizes a dual core processor as two processors and a processor with hyperthreading as one processor.

B. A dual core processor has two independent caches. A processor with hyperthreading has one cache.

C. A dual core processor provides better performance for multithreaded applications than a hyperthreading processor.

D. A dual core processor has two internal data buses. A processor with hyperthreading has one.

E. Dual core processors use more power than processors with hyperthreading.

A

B. A dual core processor has two independent caches. A processor with hyperthreading has one cache.

C. A dual core processor provides better performance for multithreaded applications than a hyperthreading processor.

Explanation
A dual core processor has two physical processor cores built into one processor. A processor with hyperthreading has one physical core, but it is used as two virtual processors. Both provide better performance than a single processor, but a dual core processor has better performance than a processor with hyperthreading, especially when supporting multithreaded applications.

All of the circuitry in a processor with hyperthreading is shared between the two virtual processors. In a dual core processor, most of the circuitry is shared, but some is duplicated, including the internal cache. In both, there is a single internal data bus.

The operating system will see both dual core processors and a pracessor with hyperthreading as two processors.

Dual core processors use less power than processors with hyperthreading.

56
Q

You are troubleshooting a computer that will not boot. The power supply fan works, but the computer will not start and you cannot detect any other activity when you turn the computer on.
What should you try?
Choose the correct answer

A. Use a multimeter to check the voltage at the outlet.

B. Replace the AC power cable.

C. Verify that correct driver for the power supply is installed.

D. Verify that the power supply is connected to the motherboard

A

D. Verify that the power supply is connected to the motherboard

Explanation
You should verify that the power supply is connected to the motherboard. You know that the power supply is receiving power from the outlet because the fan is running. However, it might not be supplying power to the motherboard. Therefore, you should verify that it is properly connected to the motherboard. It is also possible that the power supply is faulty.

There is no need to use a multimeter to check the voltage at the outlet. You know the outlet is supplying power because the fan is working.

There is no need to replace the AC power cable. You know the power cable is transmitting current because the fan is working.

Power supplies do not require drivers. They are the first thing to start up and supply power to the other devices in the computer.

57
Q

A customer is setting up to run a small business from a home office. The customer wants to host a web server-from home and provide easy public access to the web server, but he wants to protect the internal home office network that already exists.

The network is configured with private IP addresses. The customer has already configured the network to enable devices on the network to access the Internet.

You help the customer configure his router.

What technology should the customer configure to accomplish this?
Choose the correct answer

A. DMZ

B. Qos

C. DNS

D. NAT

A

A. DMZ

Explanation
The customer should deploy a demilitarized zone (DMZ), also referred to as a perimeter network, to protect the internal home network. A DMZ is a perimeter network that acts as a buffer between the Internet and the internal network. Resources that need to provide public access, like the web server, are deployed on the DMZ for easy access. Internal resources are shielded behind the DMZ.

The customer should not configure NAT to meet the solution requirements. Network Address Translation (NAT) is the process of converting private network addresses to a public address for use on the Internet. Internal clients can be configured with private addresses and still access Internet resources through the NAT server. The customer probably already has NAT configured to allow the computers on the existing network reach the Internet.

The customer should not configure Domain Name Services (DNS) to meet solution requirements. A DNS server maps IP addresses to computer names. In a small home office, this is usually not needed internally. ONS service would probably be provided by the customer’s Internet service provider (ISP).

The customer should not configure Quality of Service (QoS) to meet solution requirements. QoS is a technology for managing and optimizing network traffic to give priority to time-sensitive traffic, such as IP telephony.

58
Q

A customer calls to tell you that a mobile phone is not working properly. The customer can get sound out of the phone’s speaker, but not through physically connected headphones. The customer tested the headphones with another device and they worked.

The customer has tried restarting the phone and reports that the headphone jack is clear of dust and debris.
What should you have the customer try next?
Choose the correct answer

A. Reset the phone.

B. Clean the charging port.

C. Remove the battery, wait a few seconds, and then replace the battery.

D. Have the phone serviced to replace the headphone jack.

A

A. Reset the phone.

Explanation
You should have the customer reset the phone, but you should first warn the customer that this can result in data loss. Resetting the phone returns it to factory settings so all personal settings are lost by this process. The customer should make sure that the phone has been backed up, such as to a cloud-based backup, before resetting the phone.

You should not have the customer send the phone for servicing to replace the headphone jack. This may be necessary if all other solutions fail and the user does not want to just use Bluetooth headphones.

You should not have the customer clean the charging port. Dirt or debris in the charging point can cause a device to think it is connected to a docking station. However, if this were the case, the phone’s built-in speaker would not work.

You should not have the customer remove the battery, wait a few seconds, then replace the battery. This is effectively the same as restarting the phone and unlikely to correct the problem.

59
Q

You are selecting a power supply to install in a computer.
What should you do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Determine wattage requirements by adding the requirements for all motherboard components, hard drives, and peripherals.

B. Determine capacity requirements by adding the requirements for the hard drive and all peripherals.

C. Install the lowest wattage power supply that matches your motherboard’s form factor,

D. Install the highest capacity power supply that matches your motherboard’s form factor.

A

A. Determine wattage requirements by adding the requirements for all motherboard components, hard drives, and peripherals.

Explanation
You should determine wattage requirements by adding the requirements for all motherboard components, hard drives, and peripherals. A powet supply converts alternating current (AC) power to direct current (DC) power. Each component in your computer requires a specific voltage of electricity (3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V) from the power supply. These different voltage circuits are called rails. In addition, each component consumes a certain number of watts. For example, a network interface card may consume 4 W, and a hard disk drive may consume 5 - 15 W. You need to add the wattage requirements for each motherboard component and each peripheral and then choose a power supply that provides more than the required output.

You should not install the lowest wattage power supply that matches your motherboard’s form factor. The power supply’s form factor determines whether the shape of a power supply will fit a specific motherboard.

If you do not use many peripheral slots, you might be able to get by with the lowest wattage power supply. However, you need to determine the power requirements of your computer to know.

You should not install the highest capacity power supply that matches your motherboard’s form factor. Capacity determines the output voltage of a power supply, which is measured in watts. You need to determine the voltage requirements of all motherboard components, hard drives, and peripherals.

You should not determine capacity requirements by adding the requirements for the only the hard drive and all peripherals. Motherboard components also have wattage requirements that you must consider.

60
Q

You are building a computer for a customer. The customer will use the computer primarily for CAD/CAM applications. The customer will be doing a lot of 3D rendering, and performance is a critical requirement.

You are installing an ATX motherboard with four color-coded DDR3 memory slots. The motherboard supports dual channel memory architecture. The customer wants you to install at least 8 GB of RAM memory.
What should you do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Install two 8 GB memory modules in the same colored slots.

B. Install two 4 GB memory modules in different colored slots.

C. Install two 4 GB memory modules in the same colored slots.

D. Install a single 8 GB memory module.

A

C. Install two 4 GB memory modules in the same colored slots.

Explanation
You should install two 4 GB memory modules in the same colored slots. Installing two modules in the same colored slots lets you take advantage of the dual channel interleaved architecture. Each different color represents a different channel.

You should not install a single module or modules in slots with a different color. For most manufacturers, this means the memory will be using a single channel and will not be interleaved, so it will not be as efficient as using interleaved memory channels.

61
Q

Which of the following solutions should be used to meet the requirements of a gaming system that will be overclocked?
Choose the correct answer

A. Dual CPU radiator

B. Stock CPUfan

C. Liquid cooling

D. USB 3.0 external fan

A

C. Liquid cooling

Explanation
Liquid cooling, also known as water cooling, is a recommended solution for a gaming platform that will be overclocked. It is a quiet and inexpensive way to keep the temperature down.

Overclocking raises the stock clock rates of a central processing unit (CPU), graphics processing unit (GPU), and random access memory (RAM). Many modern motherboards allow end users to overclock the entire system using the UEFI\ BIOS. Although overclocking offers a noticeable speed boost, it can damage computer hardware.

Stock CPU fans and radiators are not recommended for overclocked systems. Stock fans and radiators come with a CPU and will be inefficient when the CPU is overclocked.

A USB 3.0 external fan is not designed to cool hardware components effectively. You should use a liquid cooling solution.

62
Q

You want to access the Internet through your laptop using your mobile phone, using the options shown in the exhibit. Which option should you tap to enable this feature?
Choose the correct answer

A. Arplane mode

B. Location

C. Hotspot

D. Sync

A

C. Hotspot

Explanation
You should tap the Hotspot icon to create a portable wireless hotspot and connect a laptop to it. You could access additional settings to change the password and the name of the portable hotspot. You could also use a USB or Bluetooth connection for tethering.

You should not tap the Location icon. The Location feature is used to provide better search results and tips based on your location.

You should not tap the Sync icon. You would use the Sync option to synchronize your mobile data.

You should not tap the Airplane mode. You would use airplane mode to turn off mobile connections, Wi-Fi, radio, and Bluetooth to meet the airline regulations or save power.

63
Q

A user has a business need for a 4K-compliant monitor. Which of the following is the minimum display resolution that is necessary to support this requirement?
Choose the correct answer

A. 7680x4320 pixels

B. 2560x1440 pixels

C. 3840×2160 pixels

D. 2048x1080 pixels

A

C. 3840×2160 pixels

Explanation
To support 4K, the monitor must support a screen resolution of 3840 pixels by 2160 pixels. 4K is also known as Ultra HD (UHD) resolution. 2160p is called 4K because the display width is near 4000 pixels.

The monitor does not need a minimum 7680x4320 resolution. This resolution is called 8K, and is the current top-end display resolution available on premium televisions and monitors.

The monitor does not need a minimum 2560x1440 resolution. This resolution is called Quad HD (QHD) resolution, and is seen on gaming monitors or televisions.

The monitor does not need a minimum 2048x1080 resolution. This resolution is called 2K, and is close to the 1080p display standard.

64
Q

A small business is concerned about employees booting company PCs from CD, DVD, or USB drives. Employees should be able to boot from the internal hard disk only.

You are asked to configure the computers to ensure this.
What should you do? (Choose two.) ;
Choose the correct answers

A. Configure the boot order.

B. Disable Auto-Detection.

C. Disable TPM.

D. Set the hard disk password.

E. Set the BIOS supervisor password.

F. Set the user password.

A

A. Configure the boot order.
F. Set the user password.

Explanation
You should configure the boot order and set the supervisor password.

The boot order lets you specify the order in which devices should be used to start up the computer. For example, you could configure the computer to try to boot from CD first, and then from the hard disk. In thiscase, you should configure the boot order to have the computer attempt to boot from the hard disk, but not try to boot from any other device.

You should also set the supervisor password. This will require the user to enter the password to make any changes to the configuration settings. If you do not set the supervisor password, users would be able to go into BIOS setup and change the boot order to boot from CD or USB.

You should not set the user password. The user password is used to require the user to enter a password for system startup. You are not trying to prevent startup, just startup from devices other than the hard disk.

You should not set the hard disk password. This is used to limit access to the hard disk and encrypt the hard disk contents.

You should not disable Auto-Detection. Auto-Detection enables the BIOS to detect when a new hard disk is | installed. Disabling Auto-Detection will not affect booting from alternate sources.

You should not disable Trusted Platform Module (TPM). TPM provides security support for internally generated certificates and disk encryption. It will not affect booting from alternate devices.

65
Q

A customer wants to buy a VR headset. What is the MOST likely cable required to connect the headset to a gaming console or computer? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. USB

B. Molex

C. IDE

D. eSATA

E. HDMI

A

A. USB
E. HDMI

Explanation
Most virtual reality (VR) headsets use HDMI and USB connectors. Depending on the hardware platform, more than one cable might be required. For example, a high-end device for a desktop PC might require 2-4 USB ports. VR is a computer-simulated environment that a user can interact with.

Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) is not used by VR headsets. IDE is a legacy interface for connecting hard disks and DVD drives.

Molex is not used by VR headsets. Molex is a socket-power connection available on most power supply units (PSU).

External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA) is not used by VR devices. eSATA is an interface for external storage devices.

66
Q

You provide technical support for your company. A user wants you to configure a computer to prevent anyone else from being able to boot it. The computer is configured with UEFI and runs Windows 10.
What should you do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Set the UEFI user password.

B. Set a password through the operating system.

C. Seta password on the hard disk drive (HDD).

S. Set the UEFI supervisor (or administrator) password.

A

A. Set the UEFI user password.

Explanation
You should set the UEF! user password. When you set the password, a password is required before the user is presented with the operating system password prompt, preventing the user from booting in to the
operating system.

The Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEF!) specification was implemented as a replacement for the BIOS firmware that has been traditionally used in computers. It performs the same basic functions, such as controlling the boot order and enabling or disabling devices, but it has been updated to provide better support for new technologies. One of the major differences is in how the boot process is managed, starting the boot from a boot manager rather than the traditional boot sector, and adding the ability to prevent loading of unsigned drivers at the hardware level.

You should not set the UEF! supervisor or administrator password. This is used to limit access to UEFI configuration settings. This would help prevent modification of the UEFI configuration but not prevent system start-up.

You should not set a password through the operating system. This can help prevent another user from being able to access the computer through the operating system, but it does not prevent someone from booting the computer.

You should not set a password on the hard disk drive (HDD). Setting HDD password in the UEFI encrypts the hard disk and requires the password to access hard disk data.

Traditional BIOS supports the same password options as UEFI.

67
Q

One of your customers runs a small construction business out of a home office. The customer needs to be able send electronic copies of hard copy blueprints to suppliers and subcontractors for review. The customer has asked for your advice.

What device should the customer install and configure?
Choose the correct answer

A. Scanner

B. Set-top box

C. Touchpad

D. Graphics tablet

A

A. Scanner

Explanation
The customer should install and configure a scanner, specifically an image scanner. A scanner optically scans the document and creates an electronic file. Typically, the scanner will include software to save the image in a standard format, such as a PDF file.

Desktop scanners are available, but not commonly used as stand-alone devices. It is usually more costeffective to use a multi-function device, such as a printer that can also be used as a scanner and copier.

The customer should not install and configure a graphics tablet, also referred to as a digitizer tablet. A graphics tablet is used when drawing images and creating an electronic file from the direct input. Computer aided design (CAD) applications are usually designed to support a graphics tablet as one of their input options.

The customer should not install and configure a touchpad. A touchpad is an input device designed to emulate the functionality of a mouse.

The customer should not install and configure a set-top box. This is an input device for streaming images to a television or acting as a television tuner.

68
Q

A technician needs to configure her Windows 10 Enterprise Edition computer to test applications in a Windows 7 environment. What should she install on her workstation to accomplish her goal?
Choose the correct answer

A. Hyper-V

B. IIS

C. Legacy Components

D. Containers

A

A. Hyper-V

Explanation

The technician should install client Hyper-V on her Windows 10 workstation to test applications in a Windows 7 environment. Hyper-V enables you to create virtual machines (VMs), which are software emulations of physical computers. The technician would create a VM that runs on Windows 7. The VM runs in an isolated environment, so the testing of the application would not impact the Windows 10 workstation.

The technician should not install Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server platform. It would not solve the problem of performing an application test in a Windows 7 environment.

The technician should not install Legacy Components on her workstation. Legacy Components installs older, unsupported Windows features such as DirectPlay, which offers backward compatibility with legacy applications that rely on these components.

The technician should not install the Containers feature. Containers are isolated application instances. Although containers are similar to VMs, running an application in a container would not allow the technician to test the application in a Windows 7 environment.

69
Q

You are installing a USB 3.0 expansion card in a desktop computer. You want to optimize performance of devices connected to the card.
What type of expansion card and slot should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. PCIe

B. PCI-X

C PCI

D. AGP

A

A. PCIe

Explanation
You should use a PCle slot and card. This is the current standard for expansion cards for installation in a desktop computer. The PCle standard is a serial standard, but it supports the highest available bandwidth for standard expansion cards. Each ldne, or line of connection, supports up to 16 Giga Transfers per second (GT/s) with a theoretical maximum of 1969 Megabytes per second (MB/s). Cards are available in configurations with x1 (one lane), x4 (four lane), x8 (eight lane), and x16 (16 lane) configurations.

You should not use PCI-X. This is an older standard based on a 64-bit data bus and supporting a theoretical maximum of 1064 MB/s.

You should not use Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP). This is a 32-bit interface designed to support graphics card, but PCle x16 is replacing this as the interface of choice.

The PCI bus, also referred to as the conventional PCI bus, is the first generation of the PCI bus. It is the forerunner to the PCle PCI-X bus structure. This is an older (and slower) interface.

70
Q

A user has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. In which of the following cloud locations are his documents saved by default? .
Choose the correct answer

A. OneDrive

B. Dropbox

C. iCloud

D. FTP

A

A. OneDrive

Explanation
The documents created with Microsoft Office 365 tools are by default stored in OneDrive. OneDrive is a Microsoh cloud storage service. Files that are saved to OneDrive are available both in the Microsoft Office 36S cloud and on ail local devices with the OneDrive client installed. This includes Windows and macOS computers as well as iOS and Android mobile devices.

The documents are not by default stored in iCloud. iCloud is the Apple cloud storage service.

The documents are not by default stored in Dropbox. Dropbox is a standalone software-as-a-service (SaaS) provider.

The documents are not by default stored in a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) account. FTP is an industry Standard chent/server network file storage and transfer protocol.

71
Q

What is the length of an iPv6 address?
Choose the correct answer

A. 32 bits

B. 64 bits

C. 256 bits

D. 128 bits

A

D. 128 bits

Explanation
An Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) address is 128 bits. The host portion of the address is 64 bits and is derived from the device’s Media Access Control (MAC) address. IPv6 addresses are written in groups of four hexadecimal numbers separated by colons, such as the following example:

FE80:0000:0000:0000:0202:B3F F:FE1E:8329

IPv4 addresses are only 32 bits.

72
Q

Match each statement with the network device it best describes.
To answer, select the appropriate network device from the drop-down list.
Choose the correct options

Central connection for devices on an infrastructure wireless LAN.
[Access point]

Ethemet connection device on which all traffic into the device goes out on all ports.
[Hub]

Device that is used to fitter traffic into and out of a network and that is based on characteristics such as port use.
[Firewall]

Ethernet connection device that processes and delivers | traffic based on network adapter MAC address.
[Switch]

Connection point for incoming and outgoing cables with connections that are rearranged by physically moving cables.
[Patch Panel]

A

Explanation

An Access Point (AP) is a central connection for devices on an infrastructure wireless LAN (WLAN). An AP is necessary when a user configures an infrastructure WLAN. Along with a communication connection, an AP can provide authentication and encryption.

A hub is an Ethernet connection device on which all traffic into the device goes out on all ports except the port it came in on. Hubs are rarely used in newer LANs but can be found on legacy networks. When hubs are used for network connections, the network fully emulates a bus network infrastructure with all devices sharing the communication path. In theory, they have equal access to the network.

A firewall is a device that is used to filter traffic into and out of a network based on characteristics such as port use. Most firewalls are implemented as a feature of network routers. Firewalls are found where communication security is required, such as at the boundary of a perimeter network.

A switch is an Ethernet connection device that processes and delivers traffic based on network adapter Media Access Control (MAC) address. A switch provides more control over network traffic than a hub
because of how it manages traffic. Most switches have additional features, such as the ability to configure virtual LANs.

A patch panel is a connection point for incoming and outgoing cables with connections that are rearranged by physically moving cables. Some patch panels are based on punch-down blocks, where twisted pair wires are directly attached to the patch panel. Some only use’ RJ-45 jacks for connections, and some use a combination of both.

None of the statements accurately describes a bridge. A bridge is used to connect two networks, using the same protocol into a single network. Unlike a router, both network segments connected by a bridge are part of the same subnet. Bridges can also filter traffic by MAC addresses or block broadcast packets.

73
Q

A customer brings a smart phone in for repair. The internal speaker is not working. You have checked the volume, Cleaned dust from the speakers, restarted the phone, and reset the phone.
What should you do next?
Choose the correct answer ‘

A. Reseat the battery.

B. Reseat the speaker connection.

C. Replace the sound processor chip.

D. Clean the docking/charging port.

A

D. Clean the docking/charging port.

Explanation
You should clean the docking port next. If possible, you should complete any least invasive procedures before moving on to activities that require you to disassemble the drive. Dirt or debris in the docking port can make the phone think it is docked, which would prevent the internal speaker from working.

You should not reset the speaker connection. For most phones, this would require you to disassemble to the phone to access the speaker. If you do have to disassemble the phone, you should also use a multimeter to test resistance and continuity on the speaker itself.

You should not replace the sound processor chip. For some phones, this will require you to unsolder, and then re-solder the new chip. With others, this may not be replaceable.

You should not reseat the battery. Because you have already restarted and reset the phone, reseating the battery is unlikely to do anything.

When disassembling a device, you should follow these guidelines for easier re-assembly:

  • Document and label cable and screw locations.
  • Organize parts.
  • Refer to manufacturer resources.
  • Use appropriate hand tools.
74
Q

A computer has a 19-inch LCD display monitor attached. The screen flickers intermittently.
What should you try first to correct the problem? .
Choose the correct answer

A. Replace the video adapter.

B. Update the device driver.

C. Change the display resolution.

D. Tighten the video cable.

A

D. Tighten the video cable.

Explanation
A flickering display is most likely caused by a loose or failing video cable. You should start by tightening the cable. Next, try replacing the cable. It is also possible that the power cable is loose.

You should not replace the video adapter. A failing video adapter would more likely result in a corrupted display or no video.

You should not change the display resolution. Changing the resolution could cause less than optimal visual display, such as distorted characters, but would not cause intermittent flicker.

You should not update the device driver. The device driver would not cause this problem. It is usually only necessary to update a display device driver if potential problems are identified or for application support.

75
Q

Which network type is most vulnerable to weather-related interference?
Choose the correct answer

A. DSL

B. Satellite

C. Fiber

D. Cable modem

A

B. Satellite

Explanation
Satellite networks are most vulnerable to weather-related interference and outages. Satellite networks transmit signals between a satellite dish mounted on or near a building and a satellite in Earth orbit. Because the signal must pass through the atmosphere, weather conditions such as rain, heavy cloud cover, or even sunspots can cause disruptions. However, it is still often used because this is the only high bandwidth option available in many rural and remote areas.

Fiber networks use fiber optic cable, which is made from a special type of glass. The signal is transmitted as light waves. The cable is shielded and it is not subject to weather-related interference.

Cable modem networks use the same copper wire infrastructure used by cable television. The cable is shielded and is not generally subject to weather-related interference unless lightning or high winds knock down cables or cause power outages.

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) networks use the existing telephone infrastructure for transmission. The telephone infrastructure can sometimes be affected by a weather event, particularly if the lines are overhead or near large trees. However, they are not as vulnerable to weather conditions as satellite networks.

76
Q

You want Windows 10 computers on your network to receive an IP address automatically. What kind of server is needed to support this?
Choose the correct answer

A. DHCP

B. WINS

C. FTP

D. DNS

A

A. DHCP

Explanation
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server is needed to support automatic IP address assignment. Network computers lease IP addresses from the DHCP server. You can also have the DHCP server configure other IP configuration properties. These include primary and secondary Domain Name

System (DNS) server, default gateway, and NetBIOS name resolution method and, if appropriate, Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server.

A WINS server provides NetBIOS name/IP address resolution. A WINS server is not a required part of automatic IP address assignment.

A DNS server maps TCP/IP host (network computer) names to IP addresses and provides DNS name/IP address resolution services.

A File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server supports file uploads and downloads between the server and network computers.

77
Q

You are implementing a wireless LAN at one of your corporate offices. You need to provide the maximum data transfer rate possible.
Which wireless protocol should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

E. 802.11b

A

C. 802.11ac

Explanation
You should use 802.11ac. The 802.11ac wireless protocol supports data transmission at up to 6.77 Gbps, but realistically often provides about 600 Mbps to a client. It operates at a frequency of 5 GHz and was approved in January 2014 by IEEE. It has an outdoor range of approximately 460 feet.

You should not use 802.11n. The 802.11n wireless protocol supports data transmission at up to 600 Mbps, but realistically often provides about 300 Mbps. It operates at a frequency of 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz and has an indoor range of approximately 300 feet. It has an outdoor range of approximately 600 feet.

You should not use 802.11a. The 802.11a wireless protocol supports data transmission at up to 54 Mbps. It operates at a frequency of 5 GHz and has an indoor range of approximately 50 feet. It has an outdoor range of approximately 100 feet.

You should not use 802.11b. The 802.11b wireless protoco! supports data transmission up to 11 Mbps. It operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz and has an indoor range of approximately 150 feet. It has an outdoor range of approximately 300 feet.

You should not use 802.11g. The 802.11g wireless protocol supports data transmission up to 54 Mbps. It operates at a frequency of 2.4 GHz and has an indoor range of approximately 150 feet. It has an outdoor range of approximately 300 feet.

78
Q

You are networking computers within a single building. You need to eliminate any possibility of EMI.
Which type of cable should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. Coaxial

B. UTP Category 5e

C. UTP Category 6

D. Fiber optic

A

D. Fiber optic

Explanation
To eliminate the possibility of electromagnetic interference (EMI), you need to use fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable uses light rather than electricity to transmit data. Fiber optic cable can transmit over longer distances, is not susceptible to EMI, and is the most secure type of cable. Fiber optic cable is more expensive, so it is usually not used unless there is a compelling reason to do so, such as to eliminate any possibility of EMI or to span longer distances.

You should not use Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) Category 6 cable or UTP Category Se cable. UTP cables are often used for shorter distances, but they are susceptible to EMI. Category Se cable and Category 6 cable are used for 100 Mbps and gigabit networks. Both types of cable are limited to no more than 100 meter spans. Though not listed and depending on the environment, Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is another

possible solution. STP cable has an outer metal shielding that surrounds each copper wire pair. This outer shielding helps reduce or even eliminates EMI.

You should not use coaxial cable. Coaxial cable is susceptible to EMI.

79
Q

You need to configure media file synchronization between an iOS phone and a laptop running Windows 10. What should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. Remote Desktop

B. Sync Center

C. Microsoft Phone Companion

D. Bonjour

A

C. Microsoft Phone Companion

Explanation
You should use Microsoft Phone Companion (also called Companion for Phone). This app steps you through the process of linking your iOS (iPhone), Android, or Windows 10 phone to your PC or laptop. It then steps you through configuring synchronization. There are versions of the app available for Windows 7, Windows 8, and Windows 8.1.

Microsoft will phase out Phone Companion for Windows 10 in the future.

You should not use Sync Center. Sync Center is a Windows Control Panel utility that works with the Offline Files feature to sync your PC or laptop with files that are stored in a network location.

You should not use Remote Desktop. Remote Desktop lets you to remotely take control of another computer. It supports file transfer between computers but does not support synchronization with mobile devices.

You should not use Bonjour. This is not a synchronization utility. Bonjour lets a computer running Windows locate and use Apple printers.

80
Q

You work for an electronics retailer. Many of your customers purchase components from you to build and optimize computers for specialized applications, such as graphics editing and gaming
A customer is building a desktop computer and wants to optimize performance. The computer needs to support the latest generation AMD processors and have as many expansion slots as possible
Which type of motherboard should you recommend?
Choose the correct answer

A. Mini-ATX

B. ATX

C. ITX

D. Micro-ATX

A

B. ATX

Explanation
You should recommend an ATX form factor motherboard. The ATX form factor has been the standard for desktop computers since 1995 and continues to be the most popular choice.

You should not recommend the mini-ATX or micro-ATX (mATX) formats. Both are compatible with the ATX format and often fit in the same enclosures, but they are smaller and support fewer expansion slots.

You should not recommend the ITX form factor. ITX form factor variations, the Mini-, Nano-, and Pico-IPX forms, are designed for low-power, low-heat small form factor applications, such as thin client computers.

81
Q

Which two connector types are shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
Choose the correct answers

A. DVI-D (dual-link)

B. RJ-45

C. HDMI

D. DisplayPort

E. DVI-D (single-link)

A

C. HDMI
D. DisplayPort

Explanation
DisplayPort and HDMI are the two display connector types shown in the exhibit. DisplayPort is a 20-pin connector and High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a 19-pin connector. Both provide high-end
graphics and sound to a display device.

An RJ-45 connector is an 8 position 8 contact connector. It is associated with Ethernet cables and can create wired connections between many types of networking devices.

A DVI-D connector can have either 18 pins (for a single-link connector) or 22 pins (for a dual-link connector). The DVI-D dual-link connector looks similar to the DVI-D single-link connector. However, on the DVI-D dual-link connector, 18 pins appear to the left of an additional 4 pins.

82
Q

You are helping a customer select a SOHO broadband router to meet specific performance requirements. The router needs to be able to detect and prioritize high-quality video streaming and online gaming traffic.
What feature does the router needs to support?
Choose the correct answer ‘

A. Intelligent QoS

B. UPnP

C. Port forwarding

D. Network monitoring

A

A. Intelligent QoS
me

Explanation
The router should support intelligent Quality of Service (QoS) (also known as automatic QoS). This is a mechanism by which the router can recognize time-sensitive traffic and give it a priority to help alleviate latency or other delay and improve throughput. You can typically cenfigure basic QoS features such as the following:

  • High-quality audio and video streaming
  • Voice over IP (VoIP)
  • Online (or over the network) gaming traffic

Network monitoring is not used for traffic prioritization, but it can be used to determine how effectively network traffic is being managed. Network monitoring collects and reports on network traffic statistics. Some SOHO routers include integrated support for network monitoring.

The router does not need to support Universal Plug and Play (UPnP). UPnP is designed to facilitate automatic discovery of devices on the network.

The router does not need to support port forwarding as a way of prioritizing traffic, but this is a desirable feature when supporting online gaming over the Internet. Port forwarding works with network address translation (NAT) to support devices with a local network address when communicating over the Internet,
specifically to support connections from outside your network to a specific port or port range, such as allowing connections to a game server on your network.

83
Q

A user purchased an external USB hard drive for her Apple iMac computer. She needs the disk to use all macOS features, including Apple FileVault encryption. What should she do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Format the drive.

B. Partition the drive.

C. Defragment the drive.

D. Run a malware scan on the drive.

A

A. Format the drive.

Explanation
She should format the new drive. High-level formatting writes the file system to a disk. She should choose a native file system for macOS like Hierarchical File System Plus (HFS+), which supports all native macOS features like FileVault full-disk encryption.

She should not partition the drive unless she needs to isolate data within a single drive. Partitioning is a way to create logical boundaries within a single physical drive. Partitioning alone does not install a file system. After formatting, each partition acts as a separate physical disk.

She should not defragment the drive. Defragmentation improves disk performance by aligning allocation
units, but it does not unlock operating system-specific features. Although you could perform a defragmentation on a new drive, it would have no performance impact.

She should not run a malware scan on the drive. Malware scanning does not enable operating system features like full-disk encryption.

84
Q

You are configuring a router. You need to configure a subnet with a subnet address of 192.168.128.0 that supports a range of up to 1022 host address values. You need to stay within this limit to avoid interfering with future expansion plans. The router requires you to enter configuration information in CIDR format.
Which address should you use?
Choose the correct answer

A. 192.168.128.0/10

B. 192.168.128.0/24

C.192.168.128.0/20

D. 192.168.128.0/22

A

D. 192.168.128.0/22

Explanation
You should use 192.168.128.0/22. The number after the slash in CIDR notation indicates the number of bits in the subnet mask, which in turn determines the number of host addresses supported. A value of /22 is equivalent to a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0, which would support addresses from 192.168.128.1 through 192.168.131.254,

You should not use 192.168.128.0/24. This would be equivalent to using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and would support no more than 256 host address values.

You should not use 192.168.128.0/10. This is equivalent to a subnet value of 255.192.0.0 and 4,194,304 host addresses. The CIDR value would be invalid with the network address in this example (192.168.128.0). Assuming a network address of 192.x.x.x, the only valid network address values would be 192.0.0.0, 192.64.0.0, 192.128.0.0, and 192.192.0.0.

You should not use 192.168.128.0/20. This is a valid network address, but it provides host addresses than are stated in the requirements. it would support 4096 host addresses per subnet. This is equivalent to using a subnet of 255.255.240.0.

85
Q

An administrator opens Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to adjust the amount of RAM for a Windows Server 2012 machine. The option is greyed out. What should the administrator do first?
Choose the correct answer

A. Shut down the VM.

B. Enable UEFI BIOS.

C. Reboot the VM.

D. Reboot the Hypervisor.

A

A. Shut down the VM.

Explanation
The administrator should shut down the virtual machine (VM) and adjust the amount of random access memory (RAM). Not all hypervisors support the hot-add RAM feature. If the feature is greyed out, there is a chance that this feature is not available and the VM has to be shut down first.

A hypervisor is called a virtual machine monitor and allocates hardware resources to VMs. A hypervisor manages VMs, enabling centralized administration.

Rebooting the hypervisor or VM does nothing to solve the problem. After booting up, the RAM option will be greyed out again.

Enabling the UEFI! BIOS will not allow the administrator to hot-add or remove RAM. UEF! BIOS offers more features than the older legacy BIOS system. UEFI adds a graphical interface and offers support for drives of 2.2 TB or larger.

86
Q

Your company has decided to buy plenum-rated cables to run between two floors of the building.
What is the most likely reason for choosing this type of cable?
Choose the correct answer

A. Cost of be cable

B. Fire safety standards

C. Speed limits

D. The distance between two floors

A

B. Fire safety standards

Explanation
You should use plenum cables to meet strict fire standards. Plenum-rated cables do not emit toxic fumes and have a special fire-retardant jacket that is resistant to flames. They are commonly used in spaces above ceilings or below floors. You should verify all requirements with a fire marshal or a project manager and buy cables that meet fire and safety standards.

You should not use a PVC cable for this project, even though they are cheaper. Regular PVC cables do not meet strict fire standards.

You would use a plenum-rated cable because of fire regulations, not speed or distance factors. Plenumrated cables are more expensive, but they do not have different speed or distance ratings than cables with standard PVC coverings.

87
Q

A customer brings in a smart phone and complains that the phone’s display is too dark. The auto-brightness control is enabled on the phone. The customer has tried restarting the phone.
What should you try first?
Choose the correct answer :

A. Reset the auto-brightness.

B. Reset the phone.

C. Clean the power/data port.

D. Recharge the battery.

A

A. Reset the auto-brightness.

Explanation
You should try resetting the auto-brightness. The most likely problem is that you need to recalibrate the phone’s light sensors. The procedure to do this varies with the type of phone. For an iOS phone, you can do this by going into a dark room, turning auto-brightness off, dim the phone, and turn auto-brightness back on. For an Android phone, you will need to download an additional app to reset the sensor.

You should not reset the phone as your next step. It may turn out to be necessary, but you should try resetting the sensor first. Resetting the phone will return it to factory settings. This means all user changes will be lost.

You should not clean the power/data port. This is sometimes necessary for some problems, such as the internal speaker not working or the battery discharging quickly, but it will not help in this case.

You should not recharge the phone. If the battery has enough power for the phone to operate, then the screen brightness should work normally.

88
Q

A user requests to upgrade his desktop PC. He purchased a new SATA SSD and a technician is sent on-site to replacé the old magnetic hard disk. After removing the old disk and connecting the power and data cables, the technician realizes that the new SSD is smaller than the old disk. What should the technician do while keeping the cost to a minimum?
Choose the correct answer

A. Use adapter brackets.

B. Buy a 3.5-inch SSD.

C. Replace the chassis.

D. Install the disk on the motherboard directly.

A

A. Use adapter brackets.

Explanation
The technician should use a dedicated adapter bracket (mounting kit) to install the new disk. The standard form factor for a solid-state drive (SSD) is 2.5 inches, while for a desktop magnetic hard disk this is 3.5 inches. The technician should use an adapter to mount the disk. A modern desktop chassis might be equipped with a dedicated 2.5-inch bay for an SSD.

The technician should not buy a 3.5-inch SSD. The standard form factor for SSDs is 2.5 inches. There are 3.5-inch SSD drives, but they are expensive and hard to find. The technician should get an inexpensive adapter bracket instead.

There is no need to replace the chassis. The technician was asked to replace the disk and should use an adapter to install it.

A standard 2.5-inch SATA disk is not designed to be installed on the motherboard directly. The technician 
could use a Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) disk, which looks like a Random Access Memory (RAM) module and can be installed on the motherboard directly using a dedicated port.
89
Q

A small business is setting up a secure system room with three servers in a storage area. Space is extremely limited: The customer wants to share one keyboard, monitor, and mouse between the three computers.
What should the customer use?
Choose the correct answer .

A. MIDI interface

B. Bluetooth interface

C. Network switch

E. KVM switch

D. Rack mount

A

E. KVM switch

Explanation
The customer should use a KVM switch. KVM is an abbreviation for keyboard, video, and mouse. A KVM switch is one set of connectors that connect to a keyboard, mouse, and video. It has multiple sets of ports (usually 4, 8 or 16) that can connect to computers. The keyboard, mouse, and monitor are connected to one computer at a time. A user can switch between computers either with selection switches or a key sequence. The customer should not use a network switch. A network switch is used to provide wired Ethernet network connections between computers. This is the basis of most LANs. -

The customer should not use a Bluetooth interface. A Bluetooth interface is used to enable a computer to connect with one or more Bluetooth-enabled devices but is typically not used for device sharing where one computer out of a set has access to the device. Monitors are not built with Bluetooth interface.

The customer should not use a rack mount. A rack mount is a special type of enclosure that lets you mount multiple computers designed for rack mounting in a single enclosure. The computers typically share the same power source. A KVM switch is commonly used with rack-mounted systems.

The customer should not use a Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI). MIDI is a standard that enables a computer to control and interface with musical devices. A MiDI controller lets you play multiple instruments from a single computer.

90
Q

Another technician has been unable to correct a problem on a computer and it has been passed to you.
You want to use a methodical troubleshooting process to help you determine if the original technician missed anything.
Arrange the entries in the order in which they should be performed. Place the first step at the top of the list. ‘
Create a list in the correct order

A

CompTIA recommends that you use the following steps when troubleshooting a problem.

  • Identify the problem.
  • Establish a theory of the cause.
  • Test your theory of the cause.
  • Establish an action plan.
  • Verify system functionality.
  • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

tt is strongly recommended that you memorize these steps.

Identifying the problem includes asking the user about symptoms and, if possible, observing the symptoms yourself. Ask the user if he has made any changes to the system recently.

Next you need to establish a theory of the probable cause of the problem. Keep in mind that the most obvious cause is very often the right answer.

Testing your theory of the probable cause means determining the steps necessary to resolve the probiem. If you cannot confirm the theory, it may be necessary to either try a different theory or escalate the problem. Manufacturer documentation is often a helpful tool during this step.

Establishing an action plan means applying the steps necessary to implement the solution. Changes should be kept to a minimum. If changing out hardware components, you should only change one component at a time, test, and if necessary return the original component and try a different component.

Verifying the system functionality simply means testing to make sure that your solution worked. This is also the point at which you would implement preventative measurés, if necessary.

Finally, it is important that you fully document your solution. This includes your initial findings, the actions you took, and the results. This can be especially helpful if you encounter the problem again.

91
Q

A customer’s home office is set up with primarily Apple devices. This includes an AirPrint-enabled printer.
The customer wants to be able to configure and print to the AirPrint-enabled printer from a PC running Microsoft Windows.
What should the customer do?
Choose the correct answer

A. Disable the Windows firewall. -

B. Download and install printer drivers from Apple.

C. Install a printer-specific driver from Microsoft.

D. Install Bonjour.

A

D. Install Bonjour.

Explanation
The customer needs to install and configure Bonjour on the PC. AirPrint was a printer sharing feature introduced with Apple iOS 4.2. It is designed to support sharing an AirPrint-enabled printer with Apple devices. Windows PC support requires Bonjour and iTunes to be installed on the PC, both of which are downloaded from Apple.

The customer should not install a printer-specific driver from Microsoft or Apple. The customer should not download and install printer drivers from Apple. Printing to an AirPrint-enabled printer does not require special printer drivers, but requires Bonjour instead. The printer driver, if needed, would be downloaded from the printer manufacturer.

The customer should not disable the Windows firewall on the PC. Bonjour does require UDP port 5353 open to send and receive packets, but this is configured automatically when the Bonjour installation wizard installs Bonjour.

92
Q

Which three protocols are used to send or receive emails? (Choose three.)
Choose the correct answers

IMAP

DHCP

SMTP

SSH

TELNET

POP3

A

POP3
SMTP
IMAP

Explanation
IMAP, POP3, and SMTP are protocols designed to send, receive, and manage emails.

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) connects to a server and-accesses a message on demand. It is flexible, fast, and allows you to manage all emails easily because they are stored on a remote server. The latest version of IMAP is IMAP4. It uses TCP port 143.

Post Office Protocol (POP3) connects to a sever and retrieves all emails to store them locally. it uses TCP port 110.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send messages. It uses TCP port 25.

You would use SSH (TCP port 22) and TELNET (TCP port 23) to manage a network device or server remotely. SSH is more secure because it encrypts all trafic. TELNET is not secure. it sends everything in plain text.

You would use Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to assign IP addresses automatically in your local area network.

93
Q

You are advising a company that is planning to install [P cameras to enhance security around their building. The cameras will be located 30 meters to 60 meters from the wiring closet. Most locations do not have AC power available, and the company does not want to go through the expense of running additional power lines.
What technology would you recommend for deploying the cameras?
Choose the correct answer

FireWire

USB

Ethemet over Power ‘

PoE

A

PoE

Explanation
You should recommend Power over Ethernet (PoE) to deploy the IP cameras. PoE supplies AC power over the same Ethernet cable as the communication signal. Low-power implementations can use Cat 3 cable.

High-power implementations require Cat 5 or higher cable. PoE requires a device that can be powered over PoE and a device, such as an Ethernet switch, that can inject AC power onto the cable.

You should not recommend Ethernet over Power. Ethernet over Power is a technology that supports Ethernet signals over AC power lines.

You should not recommend either USB or FireWire. While both technologies can power devices, neither supports the distances required for the implementation. USB supports cable lengths of no more than 5 m. FireWire is limited to 4.5 m.

94
Q

You are configuring a host firewall. You need to ensure that the computer cannot respond to Telnet requests.
Which port should you block?
Choose the correct answer

23
21
110
443

A

23

Explanation
You should block port 23. Port 23 is used for Telnet traffic. Telnet increases the risk of an attack because it allows users to establish remote, clear-text sessions with the computer. You should instead use Secure Shell (SSH) for remote command line sessions, which encrypts all traffic. SSH uses port 22.

Port 21 is used for File Transfer Protocol (FTP), not Telnet. FTP is used for file transfers.

Port 443 is used for Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS). HTTPS is used for secure connections with web sites.

Port 110 is used for Post Office Protocol (POP3), which is used to receive e-mail messages.

95
Q

What type of connector is most commonly used on a UTP CAT Se cable?
Choose the correct answer

BNC

FC

RJ-45

RJ-11

ST

A

RJ-45

Explanation
RJ-45 is the modular connector used on Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cabling. It allows for 8 conductors or 4 pairs of wires.

BNC connectors are found on coaxial cable.

RJ-11 jacks are modular connectors found on household phone wire.

ST and FC connectors are used on fiber optic cable.

96
Q

A customer calls with a security-related question. The customer will be taking a laptop while on vacation and is concerned about his location being tracked while on vacation. He wants to prevent this from happening.
The customer needs to check email while on vacation and would like to be able to browse the Internet to find local attractions.
What should he do? (Choose the BEST answer.)
Choose the correct answer

Configure low power mode.

Disable Bluetooth.

Configure Airplane mode.

Diasable GPS

A

Diasable GPS

Explanation
The customer should disable GPS on the laptop. GPS makes it possible to remotely determine the physical location of the device to within a few feet. This is can be even more of a concern on wearable smart technology devices, such as smart watches or smart phones. Disabling GPS does not prevent location, or at least determining a general location, but it is a major step in that direction. A device may still be able to report some general location information based on cell phone tower or network connections, but not an exact location. GPS is necessary for an exact location.

The customer should not disable Bluetooth. Bluetooth is used to make a wireless connection with . Bluetooth-enabled peripherals. Disabling Bluetooth does nothing to meet the requirements.

The customer should not configure Airplane mode. This mode prevents all wireless and cellular communication. The customer would not be able to check email or browse the Internet.

The customer should not configure low power mode. Low power mode configures the computer for minimum power use as a way to extend battery life. This would do nothing to meet the requirements.

97
Q

You have to test the network path between you and the destination. You want to make sure that your results include IP addresses, not hostnames of routers. Which command should you use?
Choose the correct answer

ipconfig /all

ping /t

netstat /a

tracert /d

A

tracert /d

Explanation
You should use the tracert /d command to produce a table with all hops to the destination. The /d switch specifies that your results include IP addresses instead of hostnames.

You should not use the netstat /a command. You would use this command to verify protocol information and active ports.

You should not use the ipconfig /all command. You would use this command to check TCP/IP information and details about your NIC (Network Interface Card) settings: IP addresses, subnet mask, default gateway, DHCP Server, and DNS settings.

You should not use the ping /t command. You would use this command to check the connectivity between you and the destination. The /t switch enables the ping command until you stop it manually.

98
Q

You are replacing a computer in an office. The existing computer has been connected to a TCP/IP network, and you want to use the existing network card in the new computer.
Which three configuration settings would you have to ensure are set properly for the new computer? (Choose three.)
Choose the correct answers

Default gateway

Network topology

IP address

Network media

Network access method

Subnet Mask

MAC address

A

Default gateway
IP address
Subnet Mask

Explanation
Because the old computer was connected to a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network, TCP/IP needs to be configured on the new computer. The IP address is the unique network client identification address. The default gateway is the network address of the local router interface, and the Subnet Mask is used to determine whether data packets are destined for local or remote hosts. All of these need to be configured and/or assigned to the network card. This cam be done by assigning a static IP address or through automated address assignment using Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

The Media Access Control (MAC) address is the physical address of the network card. It is programmed into the card by the manufacturer.

The network topology refers to the configuration of the network (ring, bus, star, star-bus, etc.). These are not system settings.

The network media refers to the type of cable used (108ase-T, 10Base-2, Fiber, etc.). This is related to the type of network adapter used and is not configured through system settings.

The Network access method (for example, Carrier Sense-Multiple Access with Collision Detection or CSMA/CD) is determined by the type of network in use. You are using the existing card, so it already matched the type of network in use.