Messer Practice 3 Flashcards
C6. A system administrator has been assigned the task of installing an operating system, application, and data onto a cloud-based server. Which of these best describes this scenario?
❍ A. Infrastructure as a Service
❍ B. Platform as a Service
❍ C. Hybrid Cloud
❍ D. Software as a Service
❍ A. Infrastructure as a Service
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides the CPU, memory, storage, and other infrastructure components necessary for the installation of an operating system and application.
The incorrect answers:
B. Platform as a Service
PaaS (Platform as a Service) is a cloud deployment model that provides a modular development platform. Users can create their own applications based on the hosted modules available from a PaaS deployment.
C. Hybrid Cloud
The combination of both public and private cloud deployments results in a hybrid model. This model allows organizations to provide both public services to their customers and private services to use internally.
D. Software as a Service
Software as a Service is a cloud deployment model that provides on- demand software. The user is not responsible for hosting, development, or ongoing management of a SaaS-based deployment.
C7. A network engineer is installing a device that will allow wireless devices to access the wired Ethernet network. Which of the following would BEST describe this technology?
❍ A. Hub
❍ B. Managed switch
❍ C. VLAN
❍ D. WAP
❍ D. WAP
A WAP (Wireless Access Point) is a device that bridges the 802.11 wireless network together with a wired Ethernet network. Since the WAP is acting as a bridge, it’s making forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address of the network frame.
The incorrect answers:
A. Hub
A hub is designed to connect many Ethernet devices together, but a hub does not include any technology that would allow devices to directly access a wireless network.
B. Managed switch
A managed switch provides connectivity for wired Ethernet devices, and some of the more advanced features of the managed switch allow for additional network configurations and monitoring options. However, a managed switch does not provide access to a wireless network.
C. VLAN
One of the features of a managed switch is the ability to assign interfaces to VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks). VLANs provide a way to logically separate devices on the same physical switch, but they don’t provide any access to wireless networks.
C8. A systems administrator has added a new video adapter to a desktop computer, installed the latest video driver, and rebooted the system. When the system starts, it continuously reboots before it reaches the login prompt. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Press F8 during startup and choose “Boot from last known working configuration”
❍ B. Upgrade the system BIOS using an update file from the motherboard manufacturer
❍ C. Disconnect all USB storage devices and restart the system
❍ D. Reinstall the operating system
❍ A. Press F8 during startup and choose “Boot from last known working configuration”
If a recent configuration causes a boot issue, Windows provides a way to restart the operating system using the last known working configuration. Each time Windows successfully boots, it makes a backup of that configuration. If the startup option to “boot from last known working configuration” is selected, that working backup is used instead of the current Windows configuration. This can help resolve reboot issues like those detailed in this question.
The incorrect answers:
B. Upgrade the system BIOS using an update file from the
motherboard manufacturer
There’s nothing in this question that would indicate that the BIOS is causing any issues with the computer.
C. Disconnect all USB storage devices and restart the system
If Windows tries to boot from a USB storage device and a problem occurs, an error message will be provided on the screen. The computer does not continue to reboot when attempting to boot from a USB storage device.
D. Reinstall the operating system
Since the last change to the computer was the video driver upgrade, it would be unnecessary to reinstall the entire operating system.
C9. A system administrator is configuring a lab computer that will run five servers VMs at the same time. Which of the following hardware resources will be the MOST important for this configuration?
❍ A. CPU
❍ B. Storage space
❍ C. Video adapter
❍ D. NIC
❍ B. Storage space
Adding five virtual machines to a single device would require as much storage space as five separate operating systems. Of the available options, the system storage will be used the most.
The incorrect answers:
A. CPU
The CPU utilizations required by a server can vary, but five servers at low utilizations would not be as much of a resource requirement as the storage space for the VMs (Virtual Machines).
C. Video adapter
Servers don’t often require extensive video resources, and some servers don’t even use a graphical interface. Given what we know in this question, the video adapter resources are not going to be a large resource requirement.
D. NIC The NIC (Network Interface Card) provides the network connectivity for the virtual machines. Multiple VMs can use the same physical NIC, so most environments won't need any additional physical network interfaces.
C10. A user would like a tablet that can control the television volume and cable box channels at home. Which of the following tablet features would MOST likely be required?
❍ A. NFC
❍ B. Bluetooth
❍ C. IR
❍ D. Hotspot
❍ C. IR
IR (Infrared) communication is a line-of-sight connection that is commonly used for low-bandwidth applications over a relatively short distance. Infrared is commonly used to control televisions and other home entertainment systems.
The incorrect answers:
A. NFC
NFC (Near Field Communication) is designed to send small amounts of data over a short distance. NFC is commonly used in smart phones and smart watches as a method of payment at a credit card terminal.
B. Bluetooth
Bluetooth is a useful high speed network to use over a relatively short distance, such as a single room. Bluetooth is not commonly used to control home entertainment systems.
D. Hotspot
Hotspots are a method of wirelessly connecting multiple devices through a single Internet-connected device. It’s common to use smartphones and dedicated hotspot hardware to provide this connectivity.
C11. Which of the following would provide segmentation of broadcast domains on the same physical switch?
❍ A. VLAN
❍ B. DNS
❍ C. VPN
❍ D. DHCP
❍ A. VLAN
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is used to segment interfaces on a single switch or across multiple switches. This allows a network administrator to separate networks on a single switch instead of installing multiple physical switches.
The incorrect answers:
B. DNS
DNS (Domain Name System) is commonly used to translate between fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) and IP addresses. DNS does not provide a method of network segmentation.
C. VPN
VPN (Virtual Private Networks) are used to securely communicate over an encrypted tunnel across the network. VPNs are commonly used to provide remote access to an organization’s network from an insecure network or location.
D. DHCP
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP address configurations on network devices. DHCP is not used for network segmentation.
C12. A user is reporting that every page printed from a networked laser printer appears as garbled graphics and text characters. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
❍ A. Incorrect printer driver
❍ B. Damaged network cable
❍ C. Printer is low on memory
❍ D. Toner is low
❍ A. Incorrect printer driver
The printer driver formats the print job into a language that the printer can understand. If the incorrect driver is used, the language sent to the printer may not be interpreted correctly and the output may appear very different than the original document. In extreme cases, the output may appear as readable pages of garbled text and graphics.
The incorrect answers:
B. Damaged network cable
A bad network cable would limit the speed or prevent the transmission of print jobs to the printer. The network frames include error checking, so any data corrupted as it traverses the network would not be accepted by the printer. A bad cable would not cause the final output to be garbled or difficult to read.
C. Printer is low on memory
A printer low on memory would print part of the rendered page. The portion that was rendered would appear normal and would not be garbled or difficult to read.
D. Toner is low
Low toner would cause the output to appear faded. Low toner would not cause the final output to be garbled.
C13. During a presentation in a conference room, the lamp in an LCD projector is turning off every five minutes and back on five minutes later. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue?
❍ A. The video cable is faulty
❍ B. The display lamp has failed
❍ C. The cooling process is failing
❍ D. The display resolution is incorrect
❍ C. The cooling process is failing
If an LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) projector becomes overheated, it will automatically turn off to protect the bulb and other components. This is similar to the automatic protections found in laptop and desktop computers, and once the system cools down it can be restarted. If the cooling fans are blocked or not working, this process may continue the cycle until the cooling problem is resolved.
The incorrect answers:
A. The video cable is faulty
A bad video cable would display corrupted or missing information on the screen, but it would not cause a projector to power down.
B. The display lamp has failed
If the lamp has failed, then there will be no output from the projector. A bad bulb would not commonly cause the projector to rotate through five- minute use cycles.
D. The display resolution is incorrect
A bad display resolution may show a skewed or non-proportional output on the projected image. A bad display resolution would not cause the projector to power off.
C14. A system administrator has just completed a memory upgrade on a database server. When starting the system, this message is displayed: “Boot Device Not Found.” The BIOS configuration does not show any hard drives in the system. Which of the following would be the NEXT best troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Replace the hard drive
❍ B. Upgrade the BIOS
❍ C. Check the hard drive cables
❍ D. Modify the BIOS boot sequence
❍ C. Check the hard drive cables
A memory upgrade would require work inside of a computer case, and it’s very easy to accidentally unseat or disconnect other cables. Since the only change was the memory upgrade, a change to the storage subsystem would not be expected. The most likely cause would be a cable issue.
The incorrect answers:
A. Replace the hard drive
Without knowing the exact reason for the error, a complete hard drive replacement would be premature. Before making such a drastic change, it would be useful to check cables and run diagnostics before determining any hard drive issue.
B. Upgrade the BIOS
An older BIOS (Basic Input Output System) can potentially cause issues with memory upgrades, but those issues would not affect the operation
of the hard drive. In this scenario, upgrading the BIOS would not be the first troubleshooting choice, and it probably wouldn’t be part of the overall troubleshooting process.
D. Modify the BIOS boot sequence
If one storage device was trying to boot before the hard drive, then modifying the boot sequence would be the correct course of action. In this example, the only change was to the memory and not the boot process.
C15. If a laptop’s inverter is faulty, which of the following would be the MOST likely result?
❍ A. The battery will not recharge
❍ B. The system will not power on
❍ C. The screen will be difficult to see
❍ D. The USB interfaces will not be powered
❍ C. The screen will be difficult to see
The inverter is used to convert the DC (Direct Current) power inside of the laptop to AC (Alternating Current). The AC power is then used to power the CCFL (Cold Cathode Florescent Lamp) backlights found in older laptop computers. Without the backlight, it will be very difficult to see the information displayed on an LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) screen.
The incorrect answers:
A. The battery will not recharge
Inverters are not used in the circuit that recharges a laptop battery.
B. The system will not power on
A bad power supply might cause the laptop to stay powered off, but a bad inverter will not affect the power-on process.
D. The USB interfaces will not be powered
The inverter is specific to the backlight power and is not used for powering the USB interfaces.
C16. What is the most common use for the switch on a computer’s power supply?
❍ A. Sets the input voltage
❍ B. Controls the speed of the CPU
❍ C. Sets the cooling fan speed
❍ D. Boots from different operating system partitions
❍ A. Sets the input voltage
The input voltage to a power supply should match the capabilities of the power supply unit. Many power supply units are auto-switching, and they will automatically adjust between 120 volts and 240 volts based on the input voltage. Alternatively, some power supply units have a switch that must be manually set to specify input voltage.
The incorrect answers:
B. Controls the speed of the CPU
The speed of the CPU (Central Processing Unit) is controlled from the BIOS (Basic Input Output System). The CPU speed would not be based on a power supply switch.
C. Sets the cooling fan speed
The cooling fan speeds are often managed from a fan controller on the motherboard. Fan speeds are not configured from the power supply.
D. Boots from different operating system partitions
The boot manager of a computer determines which operating system will start during the booting process. The boot partition is not configured from the power supply.
C17. Which of these devices would be required to use an 802.1Q trunk?
❍ A. Router
❍ B. Repeater
❍ C. Managed switch
❍ D. Cable modem
❍ C. Managed switch
A managed switch includes features not found in an unmanaged switch, such as traffic prioritization, redundancy support, remote management, and VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) support for connectivity to other switches via 802.1Q.
The incorrect answers:
A. Router
A router does not connect to other routers with 802.1Q trunks.
B. Repeater
Repeaters are relatively straightforward devices that do not have complex connectivity requirements to other devices.
D. Cable modem
Cable modems are designed to convert signals from coax cable networks to Ethernet. Cable modems do not interconnect VLANs with other switches using 802.1Q.
C18. Rodney, a user in the manufacturing department, would like to have a local backup of his iPhone data. Which of the following would provide this backup?
❍ A. Download the phone data from iCloud
❍ B. Use iTunes to perform a local backup
❍ C. Connect the iPhone directly to an external storage device
❍ D. Connect using USB and copy the files from File Manager
❍ B. Use iTunes to perform a local backup
Apple’s iTunes application can be used to manage iOS devices, and it also includes a backup and restore feature. Backups can be performed over a wireless connection or from a directly connected iOS device.
The incorrect answers:
A. Download the phone data from iCloud
iCloud provides a backup process for iOS devices, but it doesn’t provide direct access to this backup information. Information such as pictures and contact information is available online, but the full backup is not available from iCloud.
C. Connect the iPhone directly to an external storage device
Although some iOS devices support copying information to an external storage device, a full backup cannot be completed by connecting to an external storage device.
D. Connect using USB and copy the files from File Manager iOS devices will not appear as a drive in Windows File Manager.
C19. A network administrator needs to connect Ethernet between two buildings that are located across the parking lot from each other. The total distance between the buildings is approximately 400 meters. Which of the following technologies would be the BEST choice for this installation?
❍ A. Coax
❍ B. Category 6A
❍ C. Fiber
❍ D.UTP
❍ C. Fiber
Fiber optic communication can extend over very long distances using light instead of radio frequencies. Since the maximum supported distance of most Ethernet connections using copper are one hundred meters, any type of connection that needs additional distance would be a good candidate for fiber optic cabling.
The incorrect answers:
A. Coax
Copper coaxial cabling has similar Ethernet distance limitations to twisted-pair copper cabling. Fiber optics allows the signal to extend well beyond the limitations of copper.
B. Category 6A Category 6A (Augmented) is a specification of twisted pair copper cabling, and the longest supported distance of Ethernet over Category 6A is one hundred meters.
D. UTP
UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cabling can support up to one hundred meters of Ethernet signal, but fiber optics can extend well beyond this limitation.
C20. A systems administrator needs to configure a smartphone to retrieve email messages from the corporate mail server. Which of the following protocols could be configured for this purpose? (Pick TWO)
❍ A. IMAP ❍ B. AFP ❍ C. SMTP ❍ D. LDAP ❍ E. POP3 ❍ F. SNMP ❍ G. SMB
❍ A. IMAP
❍ E. POP3
The two most common protocols used to retrieve email messages are IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3).
The incorrect answers:
B. AFP
AFP (Apple Filing Protocol) is used to manage files in macOS.
C. SMTP
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a common email protocol used for sending mail and is not used for retrieving mail.
D. LDAP
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is used to store and retrieve information in a network directory. One common use of LDAP is to centralize authentication on a large distributed network.
F. SNMP
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is commonly used to gather statistics from network devices such as routers, switches,
and servers.
G. SMB
SMB (Server Message Block) is a common file and printer sharing protocol on Microsoft Windows devices.
C21. An administrator would like to maintain an inventory of company-owned smartphones in a central database. Which of the following would allow the administrator to identify a unique physical mobile device?
❍ A. IP address
❍ B. IMEI
❍ C. Phone number
❍ D. PRL
❍ B. IMEI
The IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) is a unique number associated with a physical device. No other mobile phone or cellular device in the world shares the same IMEI, so it’s a common way to reliably identify a unique mobile device.
The incorrect answers:
A. IP address
An IP (Internet Protocol) address can change often, and many smartphones will have more than one IP address assigned at a time. IP addresses are not tied to a single device, so it would be common for different devices to use the same IP address over time.
C. Phone number
Although a phone number is often associated with a person or entity,
it’s very easy to move a phone number from one device to another. The administrator would not want to use a phone number if they were looking to identify a specific physical device.
D. PRL
Some cellular provides will maintain a PRL (Preferred Roaming List) that the phone uses to connect to the desired cellular tower. Many devices on the same cellular number will share similar PRL values, so this would not be a good way to keep track of a physical device.
C22. Which of these cloud computing architectures would BEST describe several organizations sharing the same resources?
❍ A. Community
❍ B. IaaS
❍ C. Public
❍ D. Hybrid
❍ A. Community
A community cloud model is often used by multiple organizations to build a pool of resources with their combined financial contributions. This multi-tenant model provides a shared cloud-based deployment to organizations with similar goals and objectives.
The incorrect answers:
B. IaaS
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud deployment model that provides processing power, memory, and storage. The user of this service would provide and manage the operating systems and applications.
C. Public
A public cloud-based service is one that is available to anyone on the Internet.
D. Hybrid
A hybrid cloud deployment model is a combination of both public and private clouds. Some organizations will deploy services that are used by anyone on the Internet, but may also require services that would be used privately by internal users.
C23. What port should be configured in a firewall to block secure terminal communication?
❍ A. 23
❍ B. 443
❍ C. 22
❍ D. 110
❍ C. 22
Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), the encrypted terminal communication protocol.
The incorrect answers:
A. 23
Telnet (Telecommunications Network) is the protocol used for terminal communication, but Telnet communicates insecurely without encrypting the data.
B. 443
Web servers commonly use port 443 to sent encrypted browser traffic using SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security). Browser traffic is not commonly used for terminal communication.
D. 110
POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) uses port 110 to retrieve messages from an email server.
C24. The cooling fan controller in a server is failing. The server administrator has tested possible reasons for the failures and has created a plan for correcting the issue. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Verify the fan controller is working properly
❍ B. List possible reasons for the controller failure
❍ C. Present the plan to the change control team
❍ D. Test for full functionality
❍ C. Present the plan to the change control team
Change control is an important part of the troubleshooting process for any organization. When the change control committee approves the plan, the fix can be tested and the issue can be documented.
The incorrect answers:
A. Verify the fan controller is working properly
Although a plan has been created to resolve the issue, the fix has not yet been applied. The verification of the fix must wait until after the plan has been implemented.
B. List possible reasons for the controller failure
In this example, the server administrator has already listed possible reasons and tested them to see if they would resolve the issue. The next step would be to implement the changes on the server.
D. Test for full functionality
The full functionality of the system shouldn’t occur until after the resolution has been applied.
C25. A desktop administrator is troubleshooting an LCD display that shows a faint image at the bottom right
of the screen. The faint image is displayed even when spreadsheets or browser screens are shown. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for
this issue?
❍ A. Stuck pixels
❍ B. Incorrect resolution
❍ C. Bad video cable
❍ D. Burn-in
❍ D. Burn-in
If an image is shown on a screen for an extended period of time, the display may continue to show a faint “ghost” of the image after the display has changed. This burn-in may be temporary, but it can be permanent in extreme circumstances.
The incorrect answers:
A. Stuck pixels
A stuck pixel is commonly a single pixel that shows a single color, even when the display is showing a different color. There’s usually no more than one stuck pixel on a display, and that single pixel would not be large enough to show a faint image.
B. Incorrect resolution
An incorrect resolution may show a skewed or incorrect aspect ratio, and it would not display a faint image on the screen.
C. Bad video cable
A bad video cable might cause noise or missing information on the display, but it would not cause a faint image to constantly appear in a single place on the screen.
C26. A systems administrator is troubleshooting a laptop that appears to boot normally, but nothing appears on the LCD display. After closer inspection, the administrator notices that text appears on the display but the output is so faint that it’s difficult to see anything. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
❍ A. The video card is faulty
❍ B. The laptop is not receiving enough power
❍ C. The video driver is not configured properly
❍ D. The inverter is faulty
❍ D. The inverter is faulty
The inverter on some LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) screens is used to convert the internal DC (Direct Current) to AC (Alternating Current) for use by the CCFL (Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp) backlights. If the inverter has failed, the backlights will not operate and it will be very difficult to read the information on the LCD screen.
The incorrect answers:
A. The video card is faulty
The video card would not commonly control the brightness of the backlight, and a faulty video card would most likely not display any information on the screen.
B. The laptop is not receiving enough power
If the laptop was not receiving enough power for the backlight, then it’s unlikely that it would be receiving enough power to start the computer.
C. The video driver is not configured properly
A bad video driver might display output at an incorrect resolution or aspect ratio, but it would not disable the LCD backlight.
C27. A network administrator has installed a fifty meter network connection from one side of the building to
the other, and now he would like to make sure that the punch-downs and crimps are connected to the correct pins on each side. Which of these tools would be the best way to confirm the wiring map?
❍ A. Multimeter
❍ B. Cable tester
❍ C. Toner probe
❍ D. Loopback plug
❍ B. Cable tester
A cable tester can quickly perform a wire map to determine if all of the wires were properly crimped or punched down on both ends of the cable.
The incorrect answers:
A. Multimeter
A multimeter can provide continuity testing for wire mapping, but the two ends of the wires need to be close enough for both multimeter probes to reach the end of each wire. In this example, the wires have already been installed across a fifty meter distance.
C. Toner probe
Tone generators and inductive probes are useful for identifying the ends of a cable across a long distance, but they won’t provide any information about the wire map.
D. Loopback plug
A loopback plug can help when diagnosing a physical network interface, but loopback plugs can’t provide any information about the wire map of an existing cable run.
C28. Which of these characteristics would be MOST associated with a thin client workstation?
❍ A. Multiple CPUs
❍ B. Specialized GPU
❍ C. Network connectivity
❍ D. Maximum RAM installed
❍ C. Network connectivity
Thin client computers are viewing applications that are run on a separate computer across the network, so the hardware requirements would be minimal. Since most of the application use occurs across the network, the NIC (Network Interface Card) would be an important component of any thin client.
The incorrect answers:
A. Multiple CPUs
Thin clients don’t run applications locally, so CPU usage would be at a minimum. Multiple CPUs would certainly not be a requirement with a thin client.
B. Specialized GPU
Most thin clients are viewing and controlling an application that’s running on a remote computer. Most integrated GPUs (Graphical Processing Units) can handle the requirements of a thin client, so specialized or high- end graphics adapters are not commonly needed.
D. Maximum RAM installed
The applications running on a thin client are being processed on a remote computer, so the memory requirements of a thin client would be minimal.
C29. A user in the shipping department would like to connect multiple displays to a desktop computer. Which of the following would support this requirement? (Pick TWO)
❍ A. RJ45 ❍ B. Lightning ❍ C. Fiber ❍ D. HDMI ❍ E. DB-9 ❍ F. DVI-D
❍ D. HDMI
❍ F. DVI-D
HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) and DVI-D (Digital Visual Interface-Digital) are two common video connections. Some video adapters will provide multiple video connection types and allow different video outputs for each interface.
The incorrect answers:
A. RJ45
RJ45 (Registered Jack 45) is the common copper wire interface for Ethernet networks. Video displays don’t commonly use RJ45 connectors.
B. Lightning
Apple’s Lightning connectors can be used to send video from a mobile device, but desktop computers don’t use the Lightning interface.
C. Fiber
Fiber optic connections are commonly used for long-distance network connections. Fiber optics are not commonly used for video links.
E. DB-9
DB-9 (D-subminiature Size B - 9 pin) is an interface that would be more correctly called DE-9 to specify its size E connector. DB-9/DE-9 is designed for the slower speeds of serial connections and is not used for video interfaces.
C30. A user is trying to listen to a playlist on a pair of wireless speakers, but the speakers are not visible from the music app. The user has restarted the smartphone and the speakers, but the problem has not been resolved. Which of the following would be the BEST way to correct this issue?
❍ A. Restart the smartphone
❍ B. Pair the smartphone with the speakers
❍ C. Replace the speakers
❍ D. Install updated drivers in the smartphone
❍ B. Pair the smartphone with the speakers
A Bluetooth device must be paired with a mobile phone or tablet to appear available to applications. Once the Bluetooth speakers are paired with the smartphone, the speakers should appear in the music app.
The incorrect answers:
A. Restart the smartphone
This wireless speaker issue doesn’t appear to be related to a problem with the operating system. If the speakers don’t appear on the smartphone now, then they probably won’t appear when the system restarts.
C. Replace the speakers
The root cause of this issue isn’t yet known, so replacing the speakers would not be the best course of action. External speakers are commonly connected using Bluetooth, so the first troubleshooting steps should include verifying Bluetooth connectivity.
D. Install updated drivers in the smartphone
The smartphone does not need additional device drivers to use external speakers over Bluetooth. The software required to operate Bluetooth speakers is already installed on the smartphone.
C31. A network administrator has configured a wireless network to use two contiguous 20 MHz bonded channels on the 2.4 GHz band. Which of these wireless standards is in use?
❍ A. 802.11ac
❍ B. 802.11b
❍ C. 802.11n
❍ D. 802.11g
❍ C. 802.11n
The 802.11n standard can operate with 20 MHz channel bandwidths or two contiguous 20 MHz channels to provide a 40 MHz channel bandwidth. If the 802.11n network is using the 2.4 GHz range, much of the available bandwidth will be consumed with this single 40 MHz transmission range.
The incorrect answers:
A. 802.11ac
The 802.11ac standard uses 80 MHz channels, with an option for 160 MHz contiguous or non-contiguous channels.
B. 802.11b
802.11b uses the 2.4 GHz range, but operates using a single 22 MHz channel.
D. 802.11g
802.11g also operates in the 2.4 GHz range, but uses a single 20 MHz channel.
C32. A system administrator has found that other companies in the same office building have been connecting to her private wireless network. Which of the following would limit this access to the wireless network?
❍ A. Enable WPA2 encryption
❍ B. Change the wireless channel
❍ C. Assign QoS values
❍ D. Configure NAT
❍ A. Enable WPA2 encryption
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access II) encrypts network traffic and prevents unauthorized users from accessing the wireless network.
The incorrect answers:
B. Change the wireless channel
All wireless channels are accessible by all wireless devices. Modifying the wireless channel can help avoid existing wireless interference, but it won’t keep other users from accessing the wireless network.
C. Assign QoS values
QoS (Quality of Service) is used to set traffic flow priorities on the network. QoS is not used to limit outside access to a wireless network.
D. Configure NAT
NAT (Network Address Translation) allows a device to convert source and/or destination IP addresses as they flow through a device. NAT is not a security feature, and NAT is not used to limit outside access to a wireless network.
C33. A network engineer is installing a cable modem at a remote site. Which of these connectors would commonly be found on a cable modem?
❍ A. BNC
❍ B. eSATA
❍ C. SCSI
❍ D. F-connector
❍ D. F-connector
The F-connector is the common coax screw-on connector used for television cable or cable modems. A cable modem installation will often use coax from the cable provider, and the F-connector is used to connect the coax to the cable modem.
The incorrect answers:
A. BNC
BNC (Bayonet Neill–Concelman) connectors are used for coax connections, but they are not commonly associated with cable television or cable modems. Enterprise network and video links are commonly associated with BNC connections.
B. eSATA
eSATA (External Serial ATA) is a standard for connecting external storage devices to a computer or laptop. eSATA is not associated with cable modems or network connections.
C. SCSI
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) connectors are most commonly used with storage devices and storage subsystems. SCSI connections would not be used with cable modems.
C34. A technician has just upgraded the memory on a desktop computer. After the computer runs for a few minutes, the system locks up completely and does not respond to keyboard or mouse input. After rebooting, no error messages are found in Event Viewer. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step?
❍ A. Reinstall the operating system
❍ B. Upgrade the BIOS
❍ C. Update device drivers
❍ D. Run hardware diagnostics
❍ D. Run hardware diagnostics
Issues that result in the system hanging without any additional information can be frustrating to troubleshoot. Since there are no error messages or log entries associated with the issue, the best option would be to perform a hardware diagnostic and at least confirm that the hardware is working
as expected.
The incorrect answers:
A. Reinstall the operating system
Without any error messages or log entries, there’s no way to know if the operating system is the issue. Instead of making such a significant change, it would be useful to gather more information about the current system and any potential issues.
B. Upgrade the BIOS
There’s no evidence that the BIOS is associated with these lockup issues, and it would be unusual for a BIOS to be the root cause of this issue. Because of these reasons, upgrading the BIOS and making a change to the computer would not be the best next troubleshooting step.
C. Update device drivers
A bad device driver can certainly cause problems with a system, but normally there would be an operating system error or Windows Stop message that would provide more information. Before making any changes, it would be good to rule out any hardware problems first.
C35. Which of these network types would MOST likely be categorized as a WAN?
❍ A. A point-to-point connection to an office in another country
❍ B. A fiber connection to a building across a campus ❍ C. A connection to a remote office on the other
❍ D. A link between a mobile device and an automobile
❍ A. A point-to-point connection to an office in another country
WAN (Wide Area Network) connections are between locations in different cities, states, or countries.
The incorrect answers:
B. A fiber connection to a building across a campus
A network within a building or a campus is categorized as a LAN (Local Area Network).
C. A connection to a remote office on the other side of town
Networks that connect sites in the same city are MANs (Metropolitan Area Networks). MAN links are usually farther away than LANs, but not as far as a WAN.
D. A link between a mobile device and an automobile A PAN (Personal Area Network) describes the network used by an individual to connect their mobile device and accessories. For example, the Bluetooth network connecting a mobile phone with a wireless headset is a PAN.
C36. Which of these tools would be the MOST appropriate when working with 110 blocks?
❍ A. Loopback plug
❍ B. Multimeter
❍ C. Crimper
❍ D. Punch-down tool
❍ D. Punch-down tool
Punch-down tools are used to attach individual wires into punch-down blocks such as the 66 block or 110 block. The punch down tool pushes wires into the block and cuts any excess wire from the block.
The incorrect answers:
A. Loopback plug
Loopback plugs are useful when running diagnostics on physical interfaces. The loopback redirects transmitted data back to the receive interface of a device, allowing the technician to compare the data sent with the data received.
B. Multimeter
A multimeter is useful when troubleshooting voltages or continuity, but they would not be the most appropriate when working with a 66 block or 110 block.
C. Crimper
Crimpers are used to attach modular connectors to the end of a cable. With a 110 block, the wires are punched into the block instead of crimped onto an RJ45 connector.
C37. A system administrator is configuring the IP address settings on a remote server. Which of these settings would enable the server to communicate with other devices using a fully qualified domain name?
❍ A. DHCP
❍ B. IP address
❍ C. DNS
❍ D. Subnet mask
❍ C. DNS
A DNS (Domain Name System) server provides the conversion between fully qualified domain names and IP (Internet Protocol) addresses. With a DNS, we can refer to servers by their name instead of using IP addresses.
The incorrect answers:
A. DHCP
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP address configurations when a device connects to the network. Although DHCP can configure the DNS address, it’s the DNS server itself that provides the resolution between name and IP address.
B. IP address
Each device on the network is provided a unique IP address, and DNS provides the conversion between the name of the device and this unique IP address.
D. Subnet mask
Subnet masks are used by the local device to determine its IP subnet. Using a subnet mask does not provide any communication based on a fully qualified domain name.
C38. Which of the following devices makes forwarding decisions based on destination IP address?
❍ A. Repeater
❍ B. Router
❍ C. Hub
❍ D. Managed switch
❍ B. Router
A router decides the next hop of an packet based on the packet’s destination IP (Internet Protocol) address.
The incorrect answers:
A. Repeater
Repeaters are relatively simple devices that receive a signal, regenerate the signal, and then pass that signal to the next network link. Repeaters don’t examine the information in the network flow to make a forwarding decision.
C. Hub
A hub could be considered a multi-port repeater, since it doesn’t examine any of the data to determine where traffic should be forwarded. A hub receives data on one interface, and then sends that data to every other interface on the hub.
D. Managed switch
Both managed and unmanaged switches make forwarding decisions
the same way. A switch examines the destination MAC (Media Access Control) address in a frame and forwards traffic based on that address. A switch does not make decisions based on IP address.
C39. A system administrator has been tasked with running an application from one system architecture on a computer running a completely different system architecture. Which of the following would BEST describe this requirement?
❍ A. Virtualization
❍ B. Elevation
❍ C. Emulation
❍ D. Synchronization
❍ C. Emulation
The best environment for running an application is the system architecture in which it was originally designed. However, there may be instances where the original architecture may be unavailable. In those instances,
it may be possible to emulate the original system architecture on a completely different computing system.
The incorrect answers:
A. Virtualization
The hypervisor of a virtualized system is managing VMs (Virtual Machines) that have been designed for that system architecture. For example, a hypervisor on an Intel-based computer will manage VMs that are natively designed to operate on an Intel-based system.
B. Elevation
Elevation is an operating system process that allows a user to modify their effective rights and permissions. This is commonly done by administrators that will normally run with user-level permissions, but elevate their account permissions when modifications are required to the operating system or higher-level processes.
D. Synchronization
Synchronization is the process of duplicating data in different locations. We often synchronize data across our desktops and mobile devices so that all of our contacts, emails, and documents are the same across all platforms.
