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Mesa Airlines - 18JAN2019 > Mesa ERJ175 Aircraft Study Guide > Flashcards

Mesa ERJ175 Aircraft Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance

A

To the extent necessary to comply with an RA (Resolution Advisory)

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2
Q

LOC Back Course approaches using IESS

A

Not Authorized

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3
Q

AC POWER

A

2 IDGS (integrated drive generators) - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
APU Generator - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
1 AC GPU (Ground Power Unit) - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
1 RAT (Ram Air Turbine) - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
1 inverter - 250V

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4
Q

1 IDG can power both AC buses

A

On ground and in flight

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5
Q

APU can power both AC buses

A

On ground

In flight up to FL330

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6
Q

GPU can

A

Power both AC buses

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7
Q

IDGS (Integrated Drive Generators)

A

Primary AC power source
One on each engine
AUTO - system logic controls contactor
OFF - opens contactor
DISC - mechanically disconnects the CSD (constant speed drive) from IDG
Flight crew can not reconnect the IDG only MX
Amber light when accompanied by EICAS oil message indicates IDG disconnect is required

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8
Q

APU

A

Secondary power source

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9
Q

Required for APU start

A

BATT 1 and 2 or BATT 1 and the DC GPU are required for APU start

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10
Q

BATT 1 is used to control

A

APUs FADEC

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11
Q

BATT 2 is isolated from the network during APU start to exclusively power the

A

APU START BUS

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12
Q

Minimum must be noted during safety and power on checklist to consider APU start

A

22.0 VDC

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13
Q

Minimum required to close the battery contactor

A

18 VDC

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14
Q

Minimum BATT 2 temperature for start

A

-20C

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15
Q

AC GPU (Ground Power Unit)

A

Secondary AC power source
Can be turned ON via three different buttons
* One located on the AC GPU panel
* One located opposite the FWD lav
* One located in cockpit on the overhead panel
CAS message, master caution flasher and aural warning will occur should the parking brake be released and the AC or DC GPU is still connected.
AVAIL - GPU is properly connected and power requirements are satisfied.
IN USE - powering AC system

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16
Q

What is the AC electrical system’s priority?

A

Onside (IDG)
Inside (APU)
Outside (GPU)
Cross-side (Other IDG)

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17
Q

Inverter

A

Converts DC Power to AC Power. Powers the AC STANDBY BUS when normal AC power source is not available.

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18
Q

RAT (Ram Air Turbine)

A

Emergency AC power source
No altitude or airspeed restriction for deployment
Automatically deploys if both AC buses lose power during flight to supply the ESS BUSES
Manual deployment ( approx 8 sec) the aircraft’s batteries provide power
A minimum of 130 knots airspeed is required
Below 130 knots
* RAT will provide power only to AC ESS
* BATTS will provide power to DC ESS and AC STANDBY
* As airspeed decreases, load shedding occurs until AC ESS is no
longer powered.

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19
Q

DC ELECTRICAL POWER

A

3 TRUs - 28VDC, 300A
2 batteries - 24VDC, 27AH
1 DC GPU - 28VDC

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20
Q

TRUs (Transformer Rectifier Units)

A

Primary DC power source
Converts 115VAC into 28VDC
Each works in isolation from the other

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21
Q

How many networks make up the electrical system on the airplane? Why?

A

2 independent networks

Redundancy and fault isolation

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22
Q

What happens if a power generating source fails?

A

Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation.

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23
Q

What components power the AC system?

A 
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
APU
Inverter
Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
AC GPU receptacle
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24
Q

DC HOT BUS 1

A 
Engine 1A/2A fire extinguisher 
Engine fuel shutoff valve 1
Hydraulic shutoff valve 1
Engine 1 oil level indication
Courtesy/Service Lights
DC ceiling lights
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25
Q

DC HOT BUS 2

A 
Engine 1B/2B fire extinguisher 
Engine fuel shutoff valve 2
Hydraulic shutoff valve 2
Engine 2 oil level indication 
CMC
Panel Refuel
Water and waste system
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26
Q

What components power the DC system?

A

2 NiCad batteries
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
DC GPU receptacle

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27
Q

How does the IDG maintain a stable power output?

A

A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the accessory gear box.

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28
Q

What monitors and controls the IDGS?

A

Each has a generator control unit (GCU)

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29
Q

Can one IDG supply the entire electrical system?

A

Yes

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30
Q

What will cause the Amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?

A

High oil temperature

Low oil pressure

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31
Q

If an IDG is manually disconnected can it be reconnected by the flight crew?

A

No, this is a maintenance function.

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32
Q

What is the primary purpose of the AC generators?

A

To power the AC BUSES and AC ESS BUS which…

Power the 3 TRUs, 1, 2 and ESS

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the TRUs?

A

To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC

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34
Q

Can the APU replace a failed IDG?

A

Yes

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35
Q

How is it known that the AC GPU is plugged in and the outside GPU panel button displays IN USE?

A

Ground service bus is in use

Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use

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36
Q

If the airplane is using the AC GPU and the APU is started what should the pilot be sure to do?

A

Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection.

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37
Q

What will charge the batteries?

A

Any AC Power Source

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38
Q

How long will the aircrafts batteries last with no recharging?

A

10 minutes

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39
Q

What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?

A

For APU start when batteries<22.0 VDC, or

If battery temp is colder than -20 degrees C.

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40
Q

What is the minimum battery temp for APU start?

A

-20C

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41
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery buss-ties?

A

18 volts

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42
Q

What battery is used for the APU start?

A

BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus

BATT 1 powers the FADEC & EICAS for monitoring

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43
Q

What is the purpose of the inverter?

A

Converts 28 VDC from the batteries to 115 VAC to power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available.

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44
Q

What is on the AC STANDBY BUS?

A

Engine exciters 1A and 2A

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45
Q

What powers the RAT?

A

Airflow turns the RAT propeller which spins the turbine inside

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46
Q

When will the RAT deploy?

A

Automatically deploys if AC BUSES are not powered

Manually by the pilot

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47
Q

How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power?

A

8 seconds

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48
Q

Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment?

A

No, batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSES and AC STANDBY BUS

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49
Q

What does the RAT power?

A

ESS BUSES

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50
Q

What is the minimum airspeed for the RAT?

A

130 knots

Load shedding occurs below this speed

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51
Q

When is the RAT icon displayed on the electrical synoptic page?

A

When the RAT is deployed

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52
Q

What manages the electrical system?

A

4 integrated control centers (ICC)

2 secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA)

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53
Q

What is an ICC?

A

An electrical control device, which provides power distribution and protection for electrical loads.

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54
Q

What is an SPDA?

A

An electrical load -management unit that distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic and performs BITs on many components.

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55
Q

Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote electronic CBS?

A

ICC CBs can only be reset by maintenance

SPDA CBs can be reset via the MCDU

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56
Q

How many fuel tanks does the airplane have?

A

2 integral tanks

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57
Q

Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?

A

Left tank

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58
Q

What is the primary ejector pump?

A

Venturi pump with no moving parts and no electrical power used by the respective engine.
Powered by motive flow.

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59
Q

What types of fuel pumps are in each wing?

A

Primary ejector pump
ACMP
DCMP
3 scavenge pumps

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60
Q

What is the main purpose of the ACMP?

A

Backup pump in case of primary ejector pump failure.
Engine start.
Crossfeed operations.

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61
Q

What is the purpose of the DCMP?

A

• Used for APU or engine start if AC power or the ACMP is not available

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62
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

A

Maintains fuel level in the collector box

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63
Q

What pump(s) is used once an engine is started?

A

• Associated primary ejector pump

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64
Q

What is the purpose of the collector box?

A
  • Keeps the fuel pumps submerged

* Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine

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65
Q

What is the surge/vent tank?

A
  • Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level
  • Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling
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66
Q

Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard?

A

No

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67
Q

What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?

A

Crossfeed valve is opened

• Commands the ACMP 2 to ‘ON’ to provide fuel from the right tank to both engines

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68
Q

What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?

A

• Pull the associated engine fire extinguishing handle

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69
Q

When will the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented?

A
  • 660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank

* Fuel low level caution (gauge indications turn yellow only) occurs at 1320 lb. in associated tank.

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70
Q

What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?

A
  • Engines
  • APU
  • Cargo Compartments
  • Lavatories
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71
Q

Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?

A
  • Yes
  • Cockpit 1 hand-held Halon fire extinguisher
  • Cabin 3 hand-held Halon Fire extinguishers (1 fwd & 2 aft), one water extinguisher (aft, aircraft right)
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72
Q

How are the engines and APU protected from fire?

A
  • Engines 2 Halon fire bottles

* APU 1 Halon fire bottle dedicated to the APU only

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73
Q

Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?

A

Yes

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74
Q

What is the power source for engine and APU fire detection and protection?

A
  • Engine Detection DC ESS
  • Engine Protection HOT BATT
  • APU Detection DC ESS
  • APU Protection DC ESS
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75
Q

Describe the engine and APU fire detection system.

A
  • Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine

* APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops)

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76
Q

Describe the fire test

A

• Press and hold the test button on the overhead panel for a minimum of 3 seconds, but no more than 10 seconds if the APU is running or it will automatically shut down the APU.
• Aural warnings
o Fire bell
o Triple chime

• Visual indications
o Overhead panel
Fire handle 1
Fire handle 2
Cargo smoke (FWD) extinguisher button
Cargo smoke (AFT) extinguisher button
APU extinguisher button
APU EMER STOP (top half of button)
o Glareshield
Master warning light (left)
Master warning light (right)
• EICAS
o ENG 1 FIRE (CAS message)
o ENG 2 FIRE (CAS message)
o CARGO FWD SMOKE (CAS message)
o CARGO AFT SMOKE (CAS message)
o APU FIRE (CAS message)
o FIRE (Engine 1 ITT gauge)
o FIRE (Engine 2 ITT gauge)
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77
Q

What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?

A
  • Closes respective engine fuel SOV
  • Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV
  • Closes respective engine bleed SOV
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78
Q

What is the indication of an APU fire?

A
  • Fire bell
  • Red stripe in the EMER STOP button
  • APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
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79
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?

A

Only on the ground

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80
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

APU shuts off immediately without a 1 minute cool down.
APU fuel SOV closes.
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

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81
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates.

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82
Q

Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?

A

No

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83
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?

A

3 detectors in the FWD compartment.

2 detectors in the AFT compartment.

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84
Q

What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?

A

Recirculating fan shuts off.

Ventilation outflow valve closes.

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85
Q

What is the purpose of this. (Recirculating fan shuts off and ventilation valve closes) if smoke detected?

A

Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment.

Prevents Halon agent from escaping into the aircrafts cabin.

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86
Q

How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?

A

2 bottles used for both compartments.

1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle

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87
Q

What is the difference between the high-rate bottle and the low-rate bottle?

A

high-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately.

Low-rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time.

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88
Q

How long will the low-rate bottle remain active in the compartment?

A

60 minutes

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89
Q

Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment?

A

No, only one compartment may be selected (fwd or aft)

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90
Q

What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke has been detected?

A

High rate bottle discharges immediately.
Low rate bottle discharges after one minute if airplane is in flight.
If airplane is on the ground the low rate bottle will NOT automatically discharge.

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91
Q

During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?

A

Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again.

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92
Q

How can the low rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground?

A

The extinguishing button must be pushed again.

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93
Q

Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is detected?

A

Yes, the high rate bottle extinguishing button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle.
The low rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight.

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94
Q

How are the lavs protected from fire?

A

Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached.

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95
Q

What kind of APU is on the aircraft?

A

Sundstrand APS 2300

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96
Q

Describe the APU

A
  • Constant speed
  • Single-stage impeller with a 2-stage axial-flow turbine
  • Independent oil system
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97
Q

What controls the APU?

A

A dedicated FADEC

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98
Q

What battery is used for the APU start?

A
  • BATT 2 powers the starter

* BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring

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99
Q

What is the fuel source for the APU?

A
  • Right fuel tank

* Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve

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100
Q

What fuel pump is used for APU start?

A

Batteries ‘ON’ only DC fuel pump in right tank

AC powered airplane ACMP 2

Right engine running Ejector fuel pump

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101
Q

Will the APU shutdown automatically if speed and acceleration rate isn’t reached in starting cycle time?

A

Yes

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102
Q

What does moving the APU start switch to ‘OFF’ do?

A
  • Initiates normal APU shutdown
  • 1-minute cool down
  • No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute)
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103
Q

Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?

A

Yes, by moving the START switch back to ‘ON’ before the 1 minute cool down is over.

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104
Q

How is the APU shutdown immediately?

A

APU emergency stop button

No 1 minute cool down period

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105
Q

What will happen if batteries are turned OFF during the

1 minute cool down period?

A

APU will shut down immediately

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106
Q

When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur?

A 
Ground
• overspeed
• underspeed
• FADEC critical fault
• Fire
• overheat
• high oil temperature
• low oil pressure
• sensor failure

Flight
• overspeed
• underspeed
• FADEC critical fault

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107
Q

Can the APU be started after a critical fault?

A

No

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108
Q

What systems use hydraulic power?

A 
Flight controls
Spoilers
Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Wheel brakes
Thrust reversers
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109
Q

How many hydraulic systems are on the airplane?

A

3 independent systems

HYD 1, HYD 2, and HYD 3

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110
Q

Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system?

A

No

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111
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane?

A

6 total. 2 Engine driven, 4 AC motor pumps.

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112
Q

What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems?

A
  • Pumps
  • Accumulator
  • Reservoir
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113
Q

What is the purpose of the accumulator?

A
  • Maintain constant pressure covering transient demands

- Helps to avoid pump cavitation

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114
Q

When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate on the ground?

A

Ground

  • Flaps greater than zero AND
  • Thrust lever set to takeoff, or
  • Groundspeed greater than 50 kts

Flight

  • Engine failure or EDP failure
  • Flaps > 0
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115
Q

What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system?

A

Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Onboard brakes

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116
Q

What is the PTU?

A

Power Transfer Unit.

Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure.

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117
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

A

To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure.

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118
Q

When will the PTU automatically activate?

A

During takeoff and landing with flaps >0,if

  • Engine 2 fails, or
  • EDP 2 fails
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119
Q

How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2?

A

Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2

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120
Q

What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?

A

Backup for flight controls

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121
Q

Why does HYD ACMP 3A pump switch have an ON position and HYD ACMP 3B have an AUTO position?

A

HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation.

HYD ACMP 3B pump is a backup and automatically activates if HYD ACMP 3A fails.

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122
Q

What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source?

A

HYD ACMP 3A only

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123
Q

In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?

A

HYD 3 accumulator.

After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A.

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124
Q

In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?

A

No. A flow litter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power to prevent a RAT stall.

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125
Q

What does the AMS use bleed air for?

A

WHEEEP

  • Water Pressure
  • Hot air leak detection
  • ECS heating and cooling
  • Engine Start
  • Engine and wing anti ice
  • Pressurization
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126
Q

How many AMS controllers are installed?

A

1 controller with 2 channels which control the respective on-side system.

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127
Q

What happens if a channel fails?

A

The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS.

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128
Q

What provides air for the AMS?

A
  • Engine Bleeds
  • APU Bleed
  • External pneumatic source
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129
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A

WEEE

  • Water pressurization
  • Engine Start
  • Engine and wing anti ice
  • ECS (heating and cooling)
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130
Q

What is external pneumatic air used for?

A
  • ECS on the ground

- Engine start on the ground

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131
Q

Where is the external ground source panel located?

A

Lower fairing between the wings

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132
Q

What is the primary use for APU bleed air?

A
  • ECS on the ground
  • Engine starting on the ground
  • Electrical source
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133
Q

Can Engine bleed air flow-back to the APU?

A

No. A check valve prevents flow-back

134
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?

A

6th Stage and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)

System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure

135
Q

What is the normal pressure for any engine operation?

136
Q

What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?

A

Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS

137
Q

What cools the pre-cooler?

A

Ground N1 fan

Flight N1 fan or ram air

138
Q

What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?

A

Engine bleeds and packs.
APU bleed.
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti ice system.

139
Q

Do both loops have to function in order to detect on overheat condition?

A

Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat

140
Q

How many ECS packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?

A

2 independent packs (1 & 2).

Each engine provides bleed air to its respective pack.

141
Q

Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?

A

Yes, up to FL310

142
Q

Can a single bleed source power both packs?

A

Yes, through the crossbleed valve

143
Q

What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?

A

52% fresh air to 48% recirculated air

144
Q

When are the recirculation fans commanded off?

A

Cockpit switch
Smoke detected in the recirculated bay
DUMP button is pressed
Respective pack is commanded off

145
Q

What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYs cool?

A

FWD & CTR E-BAY. 3 fans each pull air from cabin to bay
AFT E-BAY Natural air flow from cabin to bay

146
Q

What is the Emergency RAM Air Ventilation activated?

A

Both packs commanded or failed OFF below 25,000 ft. MSL (via left side and electronically controlled).
Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via right side)

147
Q

How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?

A

2 channels, one active and one in standby mode

148
Q

Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation?

A

FMS or can be manually selected

149
Q

What happens when the dump button is pressed?

A

Commands both ECS packs OFF.

Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft. at a rate of 2000fpm.

150
Q

Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400 ft?

A

Yes, by using manual mode.

Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leak.

151
Q

In manual mode will the cabin depressurize in flight?

152
Q

What is the bleed system priority in flight?

A

Onside engine
Opposite engine
APU (if available)

153
Q

If the engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority.

A

APU has priority if
Aircraft on the ground
Wheel speed is < 50 knots
Opposite engine bleed pressure is not enough for engine start

154
Q

When will the crossbleed valve automatically open?

A

Only one side bleed source is available.
Engine 2 start in the air.
Engine 1 start in the air if APU is not available.

155
Q

What are some things that will close the ECS packs?

A
  • Any engine start if the APU is the bleed source.
  • Engine start on the ground.
  • Respective bleed system duct leak.
  • Bleed air source not available for the pack.
  • TL set to max Takeoff
  • REF A/I Set to ALL on takeoff
  • REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
156
Q

When are the ECS packs recovered?

A

TL not MAX, and
Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
Airplane is > 9700 MSL with one engine operating

157
Q

What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay?

A

Both recirculation fans deactivate.
Cargo recirculation fan deactivates
Cargo outflow valve closes

158
Q

Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level & landing elevation from?

A

FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure.
LFE may be manually inputted

159
Q

What color is the LFE on the EICAS?

A

Green FMS input

Cyan Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)

160
Q

What is the ABORT mode?

A

Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if

  • Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
  • Airplane has not climbed > 5,000 AFE or>10,000 MSL.
161
Q

What sources are used for anti-icing and de-icing?

A

Bleed air heat and electric heat

162
Q

What uses bleed air for ice protection?

A

The engine lips and 3 outboard slats

163
Q

What uses electric heat for ice protection?

A
  • Smart probes
  • Total Air Temperature probes
  • Windshields
  • Water lines
  • Pressurization static port
164
Q

If an engine fails, does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection?

A

Yes, the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings. The failed engine’s lip is not heated.

165
Q

How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection?

A
  1. There are 2 for redundancy.
166
Q

How long will the de-icing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?

167
Q

If ICING on the MCDU is set to OFF and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?

A

Not until 1700ft or 2 minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first.

168
Q

Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for de-icing?

169
Q

What is protected from ice and rain?

A
  • Engine inlets
  • Wing leading edge (slats)
  • Windshields
  • Smart probes and total air temp probes
  • Water and waste drain systems
170
Q

Is the ice protection system automatic?

A

Yes, under normal conditions

171
Q

Can the pilot override the automatic system?

172
Q

How is ice detected in flight?

A
  • 2 ice detectors
  • Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it.
  • Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes.
173
Q

What compressor Stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?

A

10th High Stage Valve (HSV)

174
Q

How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice?

A
  • Engines Independent

- Wings Onside bleed

175
Q

What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?

A

The crossbleed automatically opens

176
Q

How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?

177
Q

What does selecting ALL on the MCDU provide?

A

Engine anti-ice ON when engines are running

Wing anti-ice ON at 40 KTS wheel speed

178
Q

If ALL is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?

A

1700 feet AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff, whichever happens first.

179
Q

How does the failure of one of the two power sources affect the windshield heating system?

A

On ground Inhibited.

In flight Left side is heated (right heats if left has failed).

180
Q

What does the TIMER selection on the windshield wiper switch do?

A

Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals

181
Q

What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield?

A

The wiper will stop.

To reset wiper move switch to OFF

182
Q

When do the smart probes heat?

A

When an engine is running

183
Q

Is there a test for the anti-ice system?

A

Yes, but maintenance performs this test

184
Q

How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing?

A
  • Bleeds OFF
  • Packs OFF
  • Stab Trim Full nose down
  • Flaps UP
  • Engines and APU. ON or OFF
185
Q

What types of engines are on the aircraft?

A
  • Two General Electric CF-34-8E5

* Hi-bypass, 2-spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan

186
Q

How much thrust do the engines produce?

A

• 13,800-14,200 lbs (ISA)

187
Q

Describe N1 spool

A
  • Single-stage fan

* 4-stage LP turbine

188
Q

Describe N2 spool

A
  • 10-stage compressor (gas generator)

* 2-stage HP turbine

189
Q

How many igniters per engine?

A

2 per engine

190
Q

How many igniters activate for engine start?

A
  • Ground 1 igniter ( switch in AUTO )

* Flight 2 igniters ( switch in AUTO )

191
Q

What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?

A

• Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight

192
Q

Can the igniters be turned off during flight?

A
  • The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command
  • The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only
193
Q

What controls the engine?

A
  • a two channel FADEC

* One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup.

194
Q

Is only one FADEC channel used every flight?

A

No,they automatically alternate with each engine start.

195
Q

What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?

A
  • The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions

* Configured for landing<1200’ RA, when anti-ice is ON

196
Q

What sources are available for engine starting?

A
  • APU
  • Ground source (huffed cart or air bottle)
  • Opposite Engine (crossbleed start)
  • Windmill start
197
Q

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

A

Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start or no light off

198
Q

What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a start on the ground?

A
  • FADEC will not allow FF if ITT>120C

* FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT<120C

199
Q

Describe the engine start sequence

A
  • Start switch momentarily to START:
  • 7% N2. Ignition
  • 20% N2. Fuel flow
  • 20% N2+5sec. Light off
  • 50% N2. Ignition Off
  • 50% N2. Starter Cutout
Engine stabilizes:
• N1              27%
• ITT.            460C
• N2             62%
• FF              550 lbs/hr
• Oil pressure     >25 psi
200
Q

What does WML mean on the engine indication?

A

Windmilling engine

The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or an assisted start has been commanded

201
Q

What provides under speed and over speed protection?

A

FADEC via FMU

Apx. 52% N2 and 102 N2 repectively

202
Q

What happens after 3 over speed detection events?

A

FADEC will not relight the engine

203
Q

What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

204
Q

What is ATTCS? what controls it ?

A

Automatic take off thrust control system
Provides max thrust and Reverse thrust
FADEC controlled

205
Q

What will trigger and ATTCS event?

A

N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during TOGA
Wind shear detected

206
Q

When is thrust reverse available?

A

WOW (weight on wheels)

207
Q

What happens if a thrust reverse inadvertently deploys?

A

FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE

208
Q

What engine thrust rating may only be used for 10 minutes

A

TO-1
TO-RSV
GA
GA-RSV

209
Q

What is FLEX?

A

Reduced TO thrust based on assumed temperature

Tells FADEC that is warmer than it will reduce the thrust

210
Q

Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust?

211
Q

What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly-By-Wire)?

212
Q

What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?

A

There are no higher level functions available in direct mode.

213
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?

A
  • Gain on airspeed
  • Elevator thrust compensation
  • AOA limiting
214
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?

A
  • Gain on airspeed (as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases)
  • Yaw damp
  • Turn coordination
215
Q

What is the priority for the trim system?

A
  • Back-up
  • Captain
  • First Officer
  • Autopilot
216
Q

How is roll controlled?

A

Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)

217
Q

How many spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions?

A

5

  • 3 outboard multi-function spoilers are used to assist in roll control, as speed brakes, and as ground spoilers.
  • 2 inboard spoilers are only used as ground spoilers.
218
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lever shows deployed?

A
  • Slat/Flaps selected to 2 or greater
  • Airspeed < 180 kts.
  • TLA > 70°
219
Q

What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?

A
  • Slats extend first

- Flaps retract first

220
Q

Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into ‘DIRECT’ mode?

221
Q

Can a FCM override pilot input?

A

No, the pilot always has supreme control

222
Q

What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?

A

Artificial feel is felt at ½ the normal load

223
Q

How are the flight controls trimmed?

A
  • For Roll and Yaw: Ailerons and Rudder surface are repositioned to a new ‘neutral position’
  • For Pitch: Horizontal Stabilizer
224
Q

Will the multi-function spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’ mode?

A

Yes, for roll only and at a default fixed gain

225
Q

Will the speed brakes / ground spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’ mode?

226
Q

What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?

A
  • Horizontal stab trim operates at LO SPEED
  • Slat / flap system operates at LO SPEED
  • Slat / flap position is limited to ‘3’ to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
227
Q

How is landing gear extended and retracted?

A

Electrically commanded hydraulically actuated

228
Q

When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound?

A

IF the gear is not down and locked and
<700 RA and low TLA or
Any altitude with flaps set > 5

229
Q

Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushin the LG WRN INHIB?

A

only if both RA have failed

230
Q

What are three landing gear extension modes?

A

Normal LG lever DOWN
Electric override Bypasses PSEM to directly command selector valve
ALT gear extension Manual up-lock release opens free fall sequencing valve

231
Q

What is the purpose of the DN lOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?

A

Mechanically release the landing gear lever lock

Lock protects accidental landing gear retraction w/ WOW

232
Q

What keeps the gear locked in position?

A

Extended downlock spring

Retracted Uplock hooks

233
Q

Describe landing gear indications?

A

Green Down and Locked
White Up and locked
Amber In transit
Red Gear postion and Lever disagreement (20sec)

234
Q

How do the landing gear door actuate?

A

Mechanically

235
Q

How are the brakes commanded?

A

Brake by wire
electrically commanded hydraulically actuated
Pedal position transducers send break request to the BCM

236
Q

What protections are provided for braking?

A

Touchdown 3 seconds WOW or > 50 knts wheelspeed
Anti-skid >10 knots
Locked-wheel 33% differential, > 30 knts

237
Q

How many applications will the parking/emergency brake provide?

A

6 applications

238
Q

What stops the wheel from spinning during retraction?

A

Main gear BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels
Nose gear Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels

239
Q

Which hydraulic system controls the nose wheel steering?

240
Q

What are the limits for the nose wheel steering?

A

Angles varies with ground speed
UP to 40 knts +76
41 to 100 knts Decreases liberals from 76 to 7 degrees.

241
Q

Where can O2 pressure be read?

A
  • MFD ‘STATUS’ page (corrected for temperature)

* At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)

242
Q

Do the cockpit crew and the passengers share the same emergency oxygen?

A

• No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators

243
Q

Once the chemical O2 generators are started can they be shut off?

244
Q

What is the minimum O2 for a cockpit crew?

A
  • 2 crew “Cyan for 2”

* 3 crew “Green for 3”

245
Q

What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?

A
  • Flow of O2
  • Mask microphone
  • Flight deck speakers
246
Q

What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are not stowed?

A
  • Stops flow of O2
  • Deactivates mask microphone
  • Deactivates flight deck speakers
247
Q

What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide?

A
  • Emergency Pure oxygen with positive pressure
  • 100% Pure oxygen at all altitudes
  • Normal Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
248
Q

During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized?

A

• The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage

249
Q

What is the O2 duration for the following?

A
  • Passenger O2 12 min
  • Flight Attendant cylinder 30 min
  • PBE 15 min
250
Q

When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?

A

• Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL

251
Q

Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?

A

• Yes, via a Manual Release Tool (MRT) located at each FA station

252
Q

What does the PBE provide?

A
  • Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 41,000’ for at least 15 minutes
  • Blue indication: Good
  • Pink indication: Bad
  • Vacuum loss: Bad (even with a blue indication)
253
Q

How many portable O2 cylinders are installed in the cabin?

A
  • 2, one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section

* 2 masks per cylinder

254
Q

What is the aircraft height?

A

32’ 4”

255
Q

What is the aircraft wingspan?

A

93’ 11”

256
Q

What is the aircraft length?

A

103’ 11”

257
Q

What is the turn radius for the aircraft?

A

53’ 8” (Tail clearance is 54’ 4”)

258
Q

What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck?

A 
PBE 1
Halon 1
Flashlight 2
Life Vest 3
O2 mask 3
Crash Ax 1'
Escape Ropes 2
259
Q

What emergency equipment is located in the cabin?

A
  • PBEs (3)
  • Halon fire extinguishers (3)
  • Water fire extinguisher (1)
  • Flashlights (2)
  • Megaphone (1)
  • Life vests (2)
  • MRTs (2)
  • Portable O2 bottles (2)
  • First aid kits (2)
  • EEMK (1)
  • AED (1)
  • Portable ELT (1)
260
Q

The originating/receiving checklist requires Logbook, Forms and Manuals to be checked? What are you looking for?

A 
Mx log can
MEL and CDL
QRH
FMS Guide
Airworthiness and Registration
Two Normal checklists; Two Emergency Procedures checklists (EPC)
Cold Weather...,Lightning Strike...,and CAT II checklists
TOLD cards
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261
Q

Will the cockpit dome light illuminate on an unpowered airplane?

A

Only if the FA panel courtesy light switch is in AUTO

262
Q

How are the emergency lights charged?

A

4, ELPUs, emergency Light Power Units, charged off the DC BUS 1.

263
Q

How long will the emergency lights stay illuminated?

A

10 minutes

264
Q

When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?

A

Provided the switch is in AUTO, if the DC Busses lose power OR
airplanes electrical power is turned off.

265
Q

Where does the FA check the portable water quantity and waste service tank system?

A

AFT Flight Attendant panel

266
Q

What does a Waste Service Tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank Full light?

A

75 % full

Full

267
Q

What does fault light mean on the aft FA panel?

A
  • A fault in the FWD or AFT drain valve

- Water level indication is not available

268
Q

Where is door information presented?

A

MFD Status page

269
Q

What is the purpose of a vent flap on the main cabin or service doors?

A
  • A load is applied to the vent flap/locking mechanism making a door difficult to open as cabin pressure increases.
  • To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service doors.
270
Q

What happens if a pilot selects EMER on the audio panel

A
  • A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates.

- 3 hi-lo chimes sound in the cabin.

271
Q

When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed?

A

Main cabin or service door opened from outside the aircraft

272
Q

What indications are present to confirm whether or not the escape slides are Armed and Disarmed?

A
  • Armed RED ‘ARMED’ appears above the respective door handle.
  • Disarmed GREEN ‘DISARMED’ appears above the respective door handle.
273
Q

When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open?

A

30 seconds after the FA EMER CALL button has been pushed if the INHIBIT button has not been pushed by the flight crew

274
Q

What happens if the flight crew pushes the INHIBIT button?

A

The automatic function is inhibited for 500 seconds.

275
Q

What are the cockpit door blow out panels?

A

Unfolding panels in the cockpit door that help equalize pressure between the cockpit and cabin during a decompression.

Door retains full ballistic and impact characteristics if panels unfold.

276
Q

How is the DVDR activated?

A
  • Turned on through the MCDU
  • Automatically turns on when engine is running
  • Automatically turns OFF with WOW and engines not running
277
Q

How many DVDRs are installed?

A

2 —- 1 FWD 1 AFT

278
Q

How long will the DVDR record?

A

2 hours of voice and radio communications

25 hours of flight date in GMT

279
Q

Can the CVR be erased?

A

Yes the airplane must be on the ground with parking brake set

280
Q

What pressurizes the potable water storage tank?

A

Engine or APU bleed air

281
Q

If the AC GPU is to be used to power the aircraft what should be see on the GPU panel?

A

Ensure AVAIL is displayed and not IN USE

282
Q

How many displays and instruments are on during initial AC power up?

A

DUs 2 & 3
IESS and clock
MDCU 2
CCD 1

283
Q

Which displays can be reverted? Which displays can’t be reverted?

A
  • MFD can be reverted to either EICAS or PFD.

- PFD and ECIAS can’t be reverted

284
Q

Explain the AUTO function of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels

A
  • EICAS Failure each MFD displays EICAS
  • PFD Failure respective MFD displays associated PFD
  • MFD Failure No auto reversion
285
Q

Explain the PFD, MFD, EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel

A
  • PFD Respective PFD will display on the MFD
  • MFD MFD can’t be reverted
  • EICAS EICAS displays on the associated MFD
286
Q

How many ADS (air data systems) are installed and how are they assigned?

A

5 installed

  • ADS 1 Captain
  • ADS 2 FO
  • ADS 3 Standby
  • ADS 4 IESS
  • ADS 5 Flight Controls
287
Q

What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?

A
  • ADS 3 automatically becomes the source.
  • If ADS 3 fails, then the respective x-side ADS is used
    (ADS 1 reverts to ADS 2)
288
Q

What happens if the ADS button is pushed?

A
  • The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3.
  • The respective onside ADS reverts to the X-side ADS if the button is pushed a second time.
  • The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed.
289
Q

Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure?

A

No, it must be manually reverted

290
Q

What happens if the IRS button is pushed?

A

The respective IRS to the X-side IRS source

291
Q

How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed?

A

An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD

292
Q

What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS’s fail?

293
Q

What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS?

294
Q

When will the EICAS de-clutter?

A

30 second after slats and flaps are up and all systems parameters are normal

295
Q

What is the function of the EICAS FULL button?

A

Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of the EICAS

296
Q

When will the EICAS display all of its information?

A
  • When the gear is down, flaps are extended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions.
  • APU running
297
Q

What color is the course needles CDI when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?

A

FMS Magenta
VOR/LOC Green
X-side info Yellow

298
Q

What runways are included in the databse on the EGPWS?

A

Runways > 3500 ft with a published approach

299
Q

How long until impact with terrain alert on the EGPWS?

A

Red 30 sec

AMBER 60 sec

300
Q

When should the GND PROX TERR INHIB button be pushed?

A

Cancel unwanted terrain alerts when operation at airports not the in EGPWS database

301
Q

What will generate a wind shear caution? Warning?

A

Caution Increasing headwind and/or updrafts.
Warning Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind and or
downdrafts.

302
Q

What is policy for wind shear encounters?

A
  • Caution Captain/crew discretion
  • Warning Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration
    until warning ceases.
303
Q

How is the pilot alerted during wind shear?

A

Caution Amber wind shear flag on PFD/aural “CAUTION,
WINDSHEAR”.

Warning RED wind shear flag on PFD/aural “WINDSHEAR,
WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”.

304
Q

Will the autopilot deactivate during wind shear guidance?

305
Q

How long will the wind shear alerting last?

A

Until 1500’ RA

306
Q

Will the wind shear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and/or EGWPS inop?

307
Q

What is checked when the TO config. button is pressed?

A

Parking Brake Off
Spoilers Stowed (not deployed)
Flaps Set for takeoff
Pitch trim Set for takeoff

308
Q

What does a red ATT or HDG flag on the PFD indicate?

A

Attitude or heading reference can’t be determined by the associated IRS

309
Q

What does a red X on the ASI, Altimeter, or VSI indicate?

A

Airspeed, altitude, or VSI can’t be determined

310
Q

What is the function of the GND PROX GS INHIB button?

A

To cancel unwanted glide slope alerts below 2000 ft

311
Q

When will the FGCS automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle?

A

FL250

17 degrees

312
Q

What is the FPA?

A
  • Flight Path Angle is a pilots selectable pitch attitude of climb or descent.
  • FGCS adjust thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airpseed
313
Q

What does the TOGA button do?

A

On ground Activates TO guidance cross bars

In flight Activates Go around guidance

314
Q

What does the takeoff guidance crossbars do?

A
  • Maintain extended runway center line.

- Maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.

315
Q

When is the TOGA mode deactivated?

A

Another vertical mode selected
Autopilot activated
TCS is pressed

316
Q

When will the FD automatically display?

A

TOGA pressed
Autopilot is activated
Wind shear detection

317
Q

What is the function of the TCS button?

A
  • Allows manual override of the autopilot
  • When released, airplane maintains new altitude (provided ALT was the active vertical mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the LOC/GS)
318
Q

What will disengage the autopilot?

A 
AP button GP is pushed
Any manual pitch trim is activated
Either AP/TRIM DISC button is pushed
Stick shaker activated 
Windshear escape guidance is activated
Flight controls in direct mode
Aileron or elevator controls disconnected
Overpowering the yoke
Internal system failures
Internal system failures
319
Q

Can the yaw damp be deactivated if the autopilot is on?

A

Yes, it is independent of the autopilot

320
Q

When will the auto throttles engage on the ground? in flight?

A
  • On ground AT TO(GP) is armed and TLA > 50 degrees
    In flight AT(GP) is armed and airplane > 400 ft agl
321
Q

Will the auto throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions?

A

Yes up to 5 knots

322
Q

What will disengage the auto throttles?

A

AT is pushed
TLA difference > 8 degrees
TL at idle with WOW or wheel spinning
Internal system failure

323
Q

What is SPDe? What mode uses SPDe?

A
  • Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes).
  • FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents
324
Q

What is SPDt? What mode uses SPDt?

A
  • Speed on Thrust, thrust is adjusted to maintain selected airspeed.
  • FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL
325
Q

What are the AT modes?

A

SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, Hold, Retard @ 30 feet RA

326
Q

What does the LIM and OVRD mean on the FMA?

A

LIM The selected vertical mode requires more or less
engine thrust than is available
OVRD The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)

327
Q

When is CRZ automatically selected?

A
  • When +100 of selected altitude for 90 seconds

- Desired airspeed must be achieved or it will reaming in CLB mode

328
Q

What does the SRC button do?

A

Selects pilot or co-pilot as the data source for the AFCS

329
Q

What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do?

A
  • Disconnects the autopilot

- Stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held

330
Q

What does the PREV button do?

A

Allows the capture of ILS/BC while still using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE function is enabled on the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS

331
Q

Minimum runway width?

A

59 feet 2 inches

Mesa Airlines - 18JAN2019 (6 decks)

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