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Mesa Airlines - 18JAN2019 > GOM STUDY GUIDE > Flashcards

GOM STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

What Documents and Equipment are required in a crew member’s flight bag?

A 
Airman Certificate
Medical
FCC Radio/Telephone Permit (Captain Only)
Mesa Airlines ID
Jeppessen Pubs
Training Folder ( During any training event)
Flash Light
Extra Eye Glasses (If Prescribed)
Passport
Writing Pen
Log Book (non-original)
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2
Q

What are the current revisions to the GOM and CFM?

A

Mesa-air.com
Technical Publications Department will update the Manual Currency List (MCL) on a weekly basis and crews must ensure Aircraft Publications Currency List is up to date.

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3
Q

Can dispatch occur with only one Jeppesen Airway Manual? If so explain what is required.

A

One set of Jeppesen charts may be waived at the discretion of the Chief Pilots office.

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4
Q

Describe Exemption 11152 (Lost Certs)?

A

An exemption that allows a pilot to perform their 121 crew member duties without having in their possession the FAA issued airman certificate or medical certificate if insufficient time exists to contact the FAA in Oklahoma City.

Contact Crew Tracking
Pilots Identity/Legality will be confirmed
Temporary Airman Cert letter will be issued
Letter is valid for 7 days
Only valid for contiguous 48 states
Request fax from FAA within 72 hours under exemption
Within 24 hours of receipt of fax, send it to crew quals

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5
Q

What is your show time? What if another crew member is not there within 10 minutes?

A

45 minutes prior to departure time.
Call the missing crew member, if that doesn’t work…
System Operational Control will be contacted and they will try to locate the missing crew member.

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6
Q

How does a Pilot maintain currency for FAR 121 operations (ground training, proficiency check, line check, landings)?

A
  1. AQP
  2. 3 TO/Lnd in A/C type or Sim within preceding 90 days
  3. Contact Systems Control for any procedural or operational changes
  4. Review NOTAMS, Airport and Navaid info, Enroute charts and Avaible alternate airports
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7
Q

Define “low time SIC”.

A

SIC that has less than 100 hours in 121 and on type

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8
Q

What limitations exist for a “low time SIC”?

A

Restricted from taking off or landing if:

  1. SARA
  2. Vis less than 3/4 mile/RVR 4000
  3. Contaminated runway
  4. Braking action less than “good”
  5. 15 Knts crosswind
  6. Windshear
  7. PIC Discretion
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9
Q

Define a “high minimums” Captain

A

Captain that has less than 100 hours as PIC (IOE time is included

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10
Q

What limiations exist for a “high minimums” Captain?

A

Add 100’ and 1/2 SM to the MDA/DA for landing minimums. Apply same to takeoff minimums for takeoff alternate requirements. Alternate airports requires 300’/1SM minimum

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11
Q

Describe the ways to be qualified for a particular SARA airport.

A

Made a takeoff and landing within preceding 12 months, or PIC must review the pictorial Jepps plates that apply to the airfield.

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12
Q

Define consolidation of knowledge and skills?

A

New pilot must log 100 hours in 120 days following initial checkride, Sim hours do not count.

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13
Q

What are the pairing requirements (green on green).

A

PIC or SIC MUST have 75 hours on type.

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14
Q

What are your minimum Initial Operating Experience (IOE) requirements?

A

25 Hours

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15
Q

Does FAR Part 91 flying apply to the flight duty period and rest requirements?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Are all Mesa Airlines flight operations “unaugmented”?

A

Yes

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17
Q

Can deadhead transportation be considered part of a rest period?

A

No

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18
Q

When does a flight duty period (FDP) begin and end?

A

Starts when reporting for duty with the intent to fly (45 minutes prior to pushback) and ends when the aircraft is parked with no further intent to fly.

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19
Q

Do Mesa Airlines pilots ever move to a different theater?

A

No. “Different Theater” locations separated by more than 60 degrees of longitude.

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20
Q

You start your flight duty period at 0445. What is your maximum flight time?
How about 0700? 2030?

A

8 Hours
0000-0459 Max 8 Hours
0500-1959 Max 9 Hours
2000-2359 Max 8 Hours

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21
Q

What is the minimum rest period required immediately prior to beginning any reserve period or flight duty period?

A

At least 10 consecutive hours, which must include at least a minimum of 8 hours of sleep opportunity.

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22
Q

What is the minimum uninterrupted sleep opportunity required within the minimum rest period?

A

8 hours

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23
Q

What is the minimum rest period required in the 168 consecutive hour period immediately prior to beginning any reserve period or flight duty period?

A

30 hours

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24
Q

If your flight duty period started at 0700 and you performed 5 takeoffs and landings, your flight duty period must end at what time? 2300 start and 4 legs?

A

0700-1159, 5 segments, max duty 12.5 hours.
2300-2359, 4 segments, max duty 9 hours.
GOM P2.6 Para 2.B Flight Duty Period table

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25
Q

What does “(M)” mean in the Remarks or Execptions column of the MEL?

A

Indicates a requirement for a specific maintenance procedure normally accomplished by maintenance personnel.

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26
Q

What does “(O)” mean in the Remarks or Exceptions column of the MEL?

A

Indicates a requirement for a specific operations procedure normally accomplished by crewmembers.

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27
Q

How many days can an aircraft be flown with a Category A MEL discrepancy? Category B? Category C? Category D? Category M?

A 
Category A: Time specified in "remarks"
Category B: 3 consecutive days
Category C: 10 consecutive days
Category D: 120 consecutive days
Category M: Not specified
Calendar days excludes date of malfuction and starts at midnight.
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28
Q

Which categories can be extended? How long are the respective extensions?

A

B can be extended 3 days

C can be extended 10 days

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29
Q

How is a write-up properly cleared or deferred?

A

By an entry into the corrective action column by a qualified mechanic stating how the issue was resolved or deferred.

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30
Q

Explain what a pilot should do if an out of date (expired) MEL item is discovered.

A

Contact Dispatch and MX control.

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31
Q

What is the procedure for a test flight? Ferry flight?

A

Test flight: Mx will write up the reason for and ask flight crew to perform test flight. Flight crew will decide if aircraft has passed flight test and if aircraft is fit to return to service.
Ferry Flight: Aircraft must be inspected for safe flight, Mx control issues permit for ferry flight which is attached to white AML log. PIC will be informed for the reason for ferry flight, only essential personnel on flight.

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32
Q

Explain the procedures that must be followed when the aircraft is refueled with passengers on board.

A

Cabin door open, F/A near statioins, fire extinguisher available, crew member briefs pax no smoking, exits clear, PIC able to talk to pax.

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33
Q

What must be done if any fuel is spilled during refueling with passengers on board?

A

Evacuate all personnel

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34
Q

Describe some important safety considerations when supervising the refueling of your aircraft

A
  • Fuel Vapors concentrate in areas surrounding aircraft varies with wind and rate of fueling.
  • Vapors are heavier than air and tend to settle and spread.
  • Concentrations are dangerously increased durign fuel spills
  • Always fuel in open air
  • Never leave the nozzle unattended
  • Smoking is prohibited within 50’ during refueling.
  • External power should not be connect or disconnected while fueling.
  • GPU should be as far away as possible.
  • Do not use electrical tools near area while refueling.
  • No fueling with lightening within 3nm radius of airport.
  • must be more than 100’ away from energized airborne radar equipment stations.
  • Do not refuel inside a hangar.
  • Captain will verify area outside for emergency pathway is unobstructed. Captain is repsonsible to ensure a suitable method of communication is established between qualified persons in a postions to monitor passenge safety and the personnel that are responsible for fueling operations. This can be done via inter-communcaitons
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35
Q

What is the minimum information required on a release?

A

A/C identification, Flight number, Altitude, IFR/VFR, Minimum Fuel, MEL, CDL.

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36
Q

How long is a dispatch release valid?

A

2 hours

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37
Q

How long is the revalidated release good for?

A

2 hours

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38
Q

Explain the procedure for making a correction or change to a dispatch release.

A

Contact dispatch to obtain an amended release or a pen and ink is allowable. PIC makes changes, writes down Z Time and dispatcher’s initials.

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39
Q

How much fuel must be carried for an FAR 121 flight?

A

Fly to the destination, most distant alternate, then an additional 45 minutes under normal fuel burn.

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40
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be filed?

A

When reported visibility at departure airport is below landing minimums for runway in use.

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41
Q

When a takeoff alternate is required, explain what conditions must be met in order for it to be a legal alternate.

A

Must be on the release, and within 1 hour flight time at normal cruise speed, still air with one engine inop.

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42
Q

When must a destination alternate be filed?

A

Weather at destination 1 Hour before to 1 hour after arrival time below 2000’ ceiling and 3 miles of visibility (1-2-3 rule).

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43
Q

Explain the process of deriving alternate weather minimums.

A

One approach, add 400-1 to lowest mins.

Two independant approaches, add 200-1/2 to lowest mins.

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44
Q

Explain the purpose of Exemption 3585 (17347)

A

Allows dispatch when conditional language in the TAF (TEMPO, PROB, BECMG) of destination or first alternate is below minimums at ETA. The main body of the TAF must still show weather above mins at ETA

45
Q

When must a second alternate be filed under Exemption 3585 (17347)?

A

If destination and first alternate shows WX below mins in the TAF (conditional phrases)

46
Q

What is the lowest weather allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the destination under 3585 (17347)?

A

1/2 of the lowest visibility.

47
Q

What is the lowest weather allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the first alternate under 3585 (17347)?

A

1/2 of the lowest visibility and ceiling for the approach

48
Q

What must be added to a dispatch release for a flight operating under Exception 3585 (17347)?

A

Second alternate where METAR/TAF are above alternate WX minimums

49
Q

How does Mesa Airlines define marginal conditions?

A

500’ ceiling and 1 Mile visibility

50
Q

When is a second alternate required under the marginal conditions rule?

A

WX conditions forcasted for both destination and first alternate are “marginal” (below 500/1)

51
Q

Does the marginal conditions rule apply to weather conditions at ETA or +/- 1 hour of ETA?

A

ETA

52
Q

Does the marginal conditions rule apply only to the remarks section of the weather forecast?

A

No, entire body

53
Q

When applying to marginal conditions rule to your alternate airport, do you add 500 and 1 to the derived alternate minimums or the approach minimums?

A

Only to the approach minimums

54
Q

What passengers are unacceptable for transport?

A
  1. Infants on life support
  2. infants less than 1 day old
  3. UM under 5 years of age
  4. UM interline under 8 years of age
  5. Pregnant within 7 days of due date
  6. Passengers on oxygen or life support
  7. Passengers who can’t sit upright
  8. Barefoot passengers
  9. People under the influence
  10. Armed (other than LEO)
  11. Passengers that don’t fit in the seat
55
Q

What is the minimum age that infants can be legally transported?

A 
7 Days (United)
1 Day (USAir/American)
Both airlines allow earlier with doctor's letter
56
Q

What is the minimum age that unaccompanied minors can be transported for on-line travel?
For inter-line travel?

A

5 years online

8 years interline

57
Q

What restrictions exist when carrying pregnant passengers?

A

Letter from doctor dated within 72 hours if due within 7 days

58
Q

How intoxicated can a passenger be if Mesa Airlines is to deny boarding?

A

“The appearance of intoxication”

59
Q

Who is authorized to carry firearms on Mesa Airlines aircraft?

A

Government employees or officials on duty LEO, FAM

60
Q

How many, if any, low risk prisoners can Mesa Airlines carry?

A

No limit except seating configuration.

61
Q

How many, if any, high risk prisoners can Mesa Airlines carry?

A

One

62
Q

How many guards are required when carrying low risk passengers? High risk passengers?

A

Low risk: one guard per two prisoners for less than 4 hour flight, two guards for flights over 4 hours.
High risk: 2 guards required always

63
Q

Who cannot occupy an emergency exit seat?

A
  1. Under 15 years of age
  2. Unable to physically or mentally operate door
  3. Passengers with service animals
  4. Guards or prisioners
  5. Unable to understand instructions from F/A
    Must give a verbal “Yes” to F/A
64
Q

Explain what is meant by the “Clean Aircraft Concept”?

A

No takeoff allowed with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft.

65
Q

Describe Type I fluid.

A

Mixture of glycol and water. Thin fluid applied heated. Primarily used for De-Icing (not for anti-icing). Very limited holdover time. Orange or clear in color.

66
Q

Describe Type II fluid. Type III. Type IV.

A

Type II: Thickener, shears off in excess of 30kts, clear.
Type III: Thickening fluid with properties between Type I and Type II. Yellow
Type IV: Glycol of at least 50% and thickener system. Green in color, thick and sticky, used for anti-icing (long holdover times).

67
Q

Explain what must be done if the hold over time expires after being deiced with Type 1 fluid?

A

Reapply fluid

68
Q

What must be done if Type 4 fluid is applied unevenly to the aircraft?

A

Fresh wash of Type I fluid followed by reapplication of Type IV fluid.

69
Q

Explain what factors determine the effectiveness of deicing fluid.

A

Temperature, weather, jet blast, evenness of coating.

70
Q

When does a hold over time begin?

A

Start of application to aircraft

71
Q

Explain a Pre-takeoff Check. When must it be done? Can it be done from inside the cockpit?

A

Check of aircraft wings and critical surface areas for ice, snow, frost. Must be conducted within the holdover time. Cannot be done from inside the cockpit. Qualified deice personnel can advise aircraft is clear.

72
Q

Describe some of the effects of snow, ice, or frost while on the ground.

A

Increases takeoff weight. May cause aircraft to exceed max weight limitation, create cg problems, loss of lift, increase drag, reduce controllability. Can affect critical sensing devices.

73
Q

What type of braking action report will cause Mesa to suspend operations?

A

Nil (with a MU value of 40 or less)

74
Q

According to the GOM, how far is it recommended to avoid thunderstorms by? Under what conditions can this be waived?

A

If possible, avoid turbulent cells by a horizontal distance of 20 NM, but where the radar echoes indicate a steep rainfall gradient, this distance should be increased if flying above 20000 feet.

75
Q

If you can see through the rainfall on the other side of a thunderstorm cell, is it okay to fly underneath?

A

No

76
Q

Can weather radar be used to penetrate hazardous weather?

A

No

77
Q

If radar fails while approaching an area of thunderstorms, what must be done? What if you are already in the middle of the thunderstorms?

A

Exercise extreme care, and return to departure airport or divert. If already inside and in a radar environment, request help from ATC in identifying cells. Use all available weather resources.

78
Q

Describe the procedures to be followed when flight into severe turbulence occurs.

A

Maintain wings level and the desired pitch attitude by using smooth control inputs. Do not attempt to chase airspeed or altitude.

79
Q

Describe the procedures to be followed when flight into severe icing conditions occurs?

A

Immediately request priority handling from ATC, find a route or altitude out of icing. Avoid abrupt control inputs, do not engage the autopilot, be ready for adverse trim when disconnecting the autopilot. Reduce the angle of attack if you get uncommanded roll. Don’t extend the flaps for long periods of time. Don’t retract the flaps until they are clear of ice.

80
Q

Describe the in flight conditions that are conductive to severe icing.

A

Visible rain at temperatures below 0 degrees C ambient air temperature. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 0 C

81
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

A weather phenomenon of sudden windspeed and/or direction changes over a short distance. Airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 fpm.

82
Q

Describe the conditions that are conducive to possible windshear.

A

Thunderstorms, virga, frontal activity, low level jetstream, temperature inversions.

83
Q

Explain the sterile cockpit rule.

A

crewmembers do not engage in nonessential activities that are essential to the safe operation of flight. This includes taxi, takeoff, landing, and operations below 10000’

84
Q

What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1 mile visibility down to 1/4 mile or 1600RVR?

A

Two operative RVR systems, all available RVR reports are controlling (except far-end). At least one of : high intensity runway lights, centerline lights, centerline markings.

85
Q

What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1600RVR down to 1200RVR touchdown/1000 rollout RVR?

A

RVR equipment and daytime runway centerline markings, HIRL, centerline lights.
At night, HIRL or runway centerline lights.

86
Q

What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1200/1000RVR down to 500/500/500 RVR

A

Operating runway centerline lights and operating HIRL lights, RVR equipment.

87
Q

You are released for a flight with an alternate airport listed. While enroute the alternate airport weather drops below the derived alternate minimums. Can you continue?

A

No flight is allowed to continue if alternate drops below minimums.
A new alternate may be selected.

88
Q

Assume that a reroute by ATC will delay your flight. How long can the delay be before the Captain must take action? Explain what this action will be.

A

Notify dispatch when delay exceeds 15 minutes.

89
Q

What should be done in the event of engine failure enroute?

A

Must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.

90
Q

Describe the conditions that must exist in order to accept a visual approach.

A

Airport in sight and in a position that allows a descent to be made with normal maneuvers and maintain a safe obstacle clearance

91
Q

At non-tower airports, when must you monitor CTAF and perform self-announce procedures?

A

10 minutes prior and no less than 10 miles from airport.

92
Q

What is required to proceed beyond the final approach fix?

A

Visibility required for the approach

93
Q

What should you do if the weather falls below minimums before you reach the final approach fix? What if you are inside the FAF?

A

Before: do not commence the approach.
After: continue the approach to mins

94
Q

What is required to descend below DA or MDA?

A

Visual observation of the runway environment approach lights, runway markings.

95
Q

Describe an arrival with a “descend via” clearance

A

Comply with all speed restrictions, follow the lateral paths, descend at discretion to comply with all altitudes of a STAR.

96
Q

Describe a departure with a “climb via” clearance.

A

Comply with all speed restrictions, follow the lateral path, climb at discretion to comply with all altitudes of a SID.

97
Q

RVSM Minimum Required Equipment?

A
  • (1) Autopilot Must be operational
  • (1) Altitude Alerting System Must be operational
  • (2) Altitude Reporting Transponder One must be operational
  • (2) Air Data Computers Two must be operational
98
Q

RVSM Airspace

A

FL290 to FL410

99
Q

What is the lowest visibility Mesa uses for takeoff?

A

500 RVR

100
Q

When do you need to wear shoulder harness?

A

During all critical phases of flight.

101
Q

When is an Approach Briefing required?

A

IMC and at Night

102
Q

The aircraft is airworthy until when?

A

Scheduled maintenance or when unscheduled maintenance occurs.

103
Q

What does an FAA inspector need to show to ride jump seat?

A

110A credentials

104
Q

What are the Dispatcher responsibilities?

A
  • Monitoring the progress of the flight
  • Issue information necessary for the safety of flight
  • Delay or cancel a flight
  • Ability to reroute or redirect a flight based on economic considerations
105
Q

What documents are required to fly?

A 
QRH
Deice Flow Chart
EPC
MEL/CDL
Airworthiness and Registration 
Radio Station Certificate
Normal Operation Checklists
Icing Conditions, Cold Weather and Cold Soak Operations
Lightning Strike, Turbulent Air Penetration, Hot Weather
Cat II Procedures Checklist
Jump Seat Briefing Card
W/B Manifest
E175 Passenger Count Card
106
Q

Cockpit Emergency Equipment?

A 
Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)
Fire Extinguishers
Crash Axe
Life Vests
Escape Ropes
Flashlights
107
Q

Max amount of Dry ice per flight?
Per passenger-
Total-

A

5.5 lbs checked and 5.5 lbs carry on

441 lbs

108
Q

What conditions must exist to accept visual approach?

A

1000 foot ceilings and 3 mile visibility (Basic VFR)

109
Q

What is the minimums for standard 2 engine?

A

1SM OR 5000 RVR

Mesa Airlines - 18JAN2019 (6 decks)

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