Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Challenger 350 Flashcards rev0124 > Merged This Into "Systems" Deck > Flashcards

Merged This Into "Systems" Deck Flashcards

Learn operationally relevant systems information

1
Q

Left hydraulic system

(9 items)

A

Upper rudder PCU

Inboard elevators

Inboard multifunction flight spoilers

Inboard ground spoilers

ALTN Flaps

Gear

Nose wheel steering

Left T/R

Inboard brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Right hydraulic system

(9 items)

A

Lower rudder PCU

Outboard elevators

Outboard multifunction flight spoilers

Outboard ground spoilers

Flaps (Normal)

Gear Down assist

PTU

Right T/R

Outboard brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ditching Switch Operation

(3)

A

Depressurizes the cabin

Shuts off air conditioning

Closes Outflow valve.

*This sequence is only active in the automatic mode and is inhibited above 15000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IASC

A

1 IASC is always primary

Integrated Air System Controllers

Pressurization control

Two IASC controllers, 1 Manual control

Controls primary outflow valve through AUTO drive mechanism

(Secondary independent drive mechanism control valve in manual mode)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prepressurization Mode

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Active when thrust levers advanced to take off position

Achieves cabin pressure of 300’ below field elevation

This reduces noticeable cabin pressure change at takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Takeoff and Return To Base Sequence

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Maintains 300’ below field elevation until 6000’ AGL or 10 minutes

*If descent is initiated the cabin descends to take off field elevation and the cabin altitude does not have to be reset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Manual pressurization knob

A

12 o’clock position Rate is zero

2/3’s travel is about 1000 fpm

Full deflection is about 2500fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CLIMB mode

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Automatically controls cabin climb rate according to theoretical schedule of cabin altitude versus aircraft altitude

Also takes into account the rate of climb and landing field elevation.

Typical climb rates are 300-500 fpm with max rate of 635 fpm at lighter weight and best climb

*Above 25000, high rates of climb (>6000 fpm) may cause cabin rate of climb to exceed 635 fpm max and should be avoided for auto overpress protection and cabin comfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CRUISE MODE

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Active when aircraft rate of climb <500 from for >10s

Aircraft is climbing at any rate with aircraft altitude greater than 25000’

Cabin altitude is set according to predetermined schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Depressurization sequence on ground

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

After landing or aborted takeoff:

Aircraft depressurizes at rate of 500 fpm

Outflow valve drives to fully open

Outflow valve then remains fully open while on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GEAR WARNING

Non-mutable

A

Any gear not down/locked …and

RADALT < 500’ …and

Left and right thrust levers < 26° …Or

flaps > or = 27°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GEAR WARNING

Mutable

A

Gear not down and locked …and

Radio altimeter invalid …and

TLA < 26°…and

Altitude is <15,000’ …and

Airspeed <170 with flaps <3° …or

Airspeed <160 with flaps <13°’ …or

Airspeed <155 with flaps >13°

*When RADALT INOP Gear Warning is mutable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Brake system ground mode

A

Ground mode allows hydraulic pressure to brake actuators.

Activated when gear down …and

Either WOW active for >5 sec …or

Wheel spin up above 50 KTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Brake Control Unit - BCU

A

Provides anti-skid protection down to 10 KTS

Commands braking pressure of 350 psi for 4s after gear retraction

Removes hydraulic pressure from brakes when:

Both WOW(off), and gear up and locked, and wheel speed zero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nose Wheel Steering

(5)

A

Active when left hydraulic system pressurized

Nose Gear down and locked

WOW

NWS selected ON

No faults noted by SCU (steering control unit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PSEU

A

Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit

Gear retraction and extension control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gust lock

A

Locks ailerons only

These are the only non-hydraulic flight control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MDC Maintenance Diagnostic Computer

A

Can display data on top half of right MFD

Initiate by simultaneously pressing A/ICE, ECS, and FUEL on the MFD Control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ENG accessory Gearbox items

(6)

A

Air turbine starter

GEN

FUEL pump

Oil pump

Reservoir HYD PUMP

PMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

APR ARMED

A

Armed for takeoff when thrust levers at T/O detent,

Engaged when lever set at APR (beyond takeoff position)

Also:

Armed for go around when flaps >20° OR flaps and gear down.

Automatically engages with engine split of >15% N2

Can be manually turned off on engine panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

AIR TURBINE STARTER Disengage

A

N2 46.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When will HYD SHUTOFF VLV close

(2)

A

Fire switch depressed

or

Shut off valve closed

Fluid temp above 135°C (skydrol boiling point)

23
Q

What are the HYD DCMP power sources?

A

Left DCMP = RIGHT MAIN BUS

Right DCMP = LEFT ESSENTIAL BUS

24
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

When does it run?

A

To aid in gear retraction

Comes on when gear is being retracted and

Left EDP pressure is low

25
Q

What does the AUX HYD system power?

A

Assists the lower rudder PCU

26
Q

How are gear up locks released?

A

When extension commanded, gear initially over stows the gear, releasing the mechanical up locks.

This allows mechanical up lock hook to be retracted for extension.

Mechanical Right hydraulic gear asssit

27
Q

The GEN overload message comes on at what load?

A

501 AMPS

28
Q

What inputs arm the GROUND SPOILERS in AUTO mode

(4)

A

Inputs come from :

RADALT

Wheel Speed

WOW

TLA

29
Q

When do GROUND SPOILERS extend in MANUAL ARM

A

Thrust Levers Idle and WOW only

*Manual Arm mode does not provide additional input protection available in AUTO.

30
Q

ALTN FLAPS

A

When ALTN FLAPS selected:

Left HYD system pressure powers flaps.

Flow restricted

(to prioritize gear actuation)

Takes over 1 min to extend flaps from 0°-20°

Normal flaps (R) HYD system = O°-30° is 20 seconds

31
Q

CONFIGURATION TRIM

A

Stab trim automatically adjusts when gear and flaps are extended to smooth out oscillations

32
Q

Min Speed to extend FLIGHT SPOILERS

A

Vapp +8

Vapp = Vref straight in approach (Vref+8)

Vapp = Vref+10 circling approach (Vapp+8)

500’ AGL min usage

33
Q

How long may windshield heat be used when on essential power?

A

15 minutes

34
Q

Oxygen system

A

5458 liters (Long distance bottles)

Electropneumatic actuating valve (EPAV) controls O2 flow

EPAV has 3 valves :

1 is unregulated air to crew masks

2 is regulated air to pax masks

3 is unregulated air to pax masks (manual select)

35
Q

Standard Flight Deck Emergency Equipment

A

Two flashlights

One PBE (portable breathing equipment)

One crash axe

One fire extinguisher

Two life vests

36
Q

Audio panel to EMER

A

Bypasses audio panel

Can only transmit and receive on own side radio.

Left pilot on COMM 1, right pilot on COMM 2

37
Q

Ways to disengage the AUTO Pilot

(6)

A

Pressing either master disconnect switch

Activating trim switches on control wheels

Pressing AP on FGP

Pressing AP/DISC bar on FGP

Pressing either TOGA switch on TLs

Pressing the YD push button

Additonal ways to disconnect in non-normal ops, ie PITCH and ROLL disconnects

38
Q

RA INHIBIT Parameters (3)

A
  1. Descending below 900’ AGL, or climbing below 1100’ AGL

All RA’s inhibited (TA ONLY) and TA AURAL INHIBITED

  1. Descending below 1000’ AGL or below 1200’ AGL and climbing

DESCEND RA inhibited

  1. Below 1450’ AGL

INCREASE DESCENT inhibited

39
Q

DESCENT MODE

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Aircraft descends at preset rate

Varies based on aircraft rate of descent and time remaining to land.

2000 fpm aircraft rate yields 300 fpm cabin rate

5000 fpm and greater descent rate yields cabin descent of 750 fpm

Decent continues to 300’ below landing field elevation.

40
Q

What is the DCP?

A

Display Control Panel

Located outboard of FGP

Controls PFD and radio frequencies on MFD

41
Q

What is the MFD Control Panel

A

Multi Function Display Control Panel

Controls navigation displays, synoptic, e-checklist, and CAS displays on MFD

Located on center console

42
Q

What is the FGP?

A

Flight Guidance Panel

Controls Flight Director and Autopilot

Located on center of glareshield instrument panel

43
Q

What is the Reversion Switch Panel?

A

Reversion Switch Panel

Used to switch information between PFD and MFD AND between Pilot and Copilot on center console

44
Q

In AUTO mode, when will a DCMP run constant?

What is the pressure does each DCMP provide?

A

Flaps > 0

>2800 PSI

45
Q

Starter Limitations Engine

A

3 consecutive attempts, then 15min cooling

30 seconds motor after aborted start

Up to 5 min cranking

3-30-15

46
Q

Starter Limitations APU

A

Ground start:

3 start attempts, with 1min cooling intervals then 20min of cooling

followed by 2 start attempts, 1min cooling between then 40min off

Memory Aid: 3-1-20 2-1-40

Air Start: Only one airborne start attempt allowed

47
Q

ECS Temperature Ranges

Auto Manual

A

Auto range = 15-35C

(sensors in cabin and cockpit)

Manual range = 3-70C

(sensors in ducting)

48
Q

When should you disable TAWS Warnings?

A

GS = BC Approach or GS inop

Flaps = Landing less than flaps 30

Airport not in database

49
Q

What is lost with Secondary Trim use?

A

Autopilot

Mach Trim

Configuration Trim

Memory Aid: MAC (Mach)

50
Q

How are electrical buses powered?

A

Battery always powers respective Batt Bus

Batt ON powers respective Essential Bus

Generators power respective Main Bus

Aux buses powered by generators thru respective Main bus

51
Q

With a single generator in flight, what buses are powered?

With single generator on the ground, what buses are powered?

A

In flight: Operable: Essential, Main, Battery. Single gen sheds Aux buses.

On Ground: Single Gen everything is still powered

52
Q

With one engine-driven gen in flight and APU operating:

What does APU power?

A

APU gen will power the Main Bus on the side with the lost gen while in flight with one engine-driven generator on line.

53
Q

In flight, with no engine-driven gens and only APU:

What is powered?

A

In flight, APU operating with no engine-driven gens:

APU powers (R) Main , bus ties contactor closes (BTC) and powers (L) Main.

54
Q

What happens in flight with no generators?

(No APU or Engine Driven Gens online)

A

With no generators on line, each battery powers respective Batt and Essential busses, and BTC closes.

Battery duration is 1 hour in this situation

Challenger 350 Flashcards rev0124 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions