CL350 Systems (Initial & Recurent Oral) Rev0124 Flashcards

1
Q

How long can the engine starter be used?

How long does it need to cool before a further start may be attempted?

A

Cranked for up to 5 minutes,

Followed by a cooling period of 15 minutes prior to additional starts or motoring.

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2
Q

What is the valve sequence when the air source selector is selected to:

Trim Air Only

A

Left Flow Control Valve closes

Right Flow Control Valve opens

Pre-cooler Crossover Valve closes

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3
Q

Max Generator Loads w/ 1 Generator in flight

A

500 amps

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4
Q

What does the CABIN DELTA P warning CAS message indicate?

A

Cabin pressure is > 9.2 PSI or < -.5 PSI

8.8 PSI = Norm >= FL420

*Cabin = 7850’ and 8.8 PSI at FL450

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5
Q

Maximum speed for APU start

A

285 kts

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6
Q

Ram Air Valve can only be operated below

A

10,000’

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7
Q

Standby Instrument is powered by which bus?

A

Right Essential bus

Battery pack good for 3.5 hours.

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8
Q

Max altitude to operate APU

A

37,000’

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9
Q

Oxygen quantity and unit displayed on the outside panel?

Quantity and unit displayed inside cockpit on MFD?

A

Outside 1,850 PSI

Inside 5,458L

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10
Q

Fuel Max Imbalance Quantities

A

>13,700lbs = 250lbs

10,000-13,699lbs = 315lbs

4,700-9,999lbs = 450lbs

<4700lbs = 600lbs

Max Imbalance during gravity refueling = 250lbs

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11
Q

How long will the Essential buses and Battery buses last on battery power only?

A

1 hour

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12
Q

What happens when Engine Run switch is positioned to On?

A

Fuel Pumps On

FADEC initialized

*If Cabin or Cargo open White Cas turns Amber with Left Run switch

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13
Q

Which EICAS message requires immediate action?

A

Immediate: Red (warning)

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14
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU may be used for Bleed Air?

A

20,000’

“APU BLEED ALT LIMIT”
(Amber CAS)

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15
Q

When manual mode is selected on the pressurization panel the pilot is controlling what?

A

In manual mode the pilot manually controls the outflow valve.

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16
Q

What doors must be unlocked for flight?

Why?

A

Battery Bay

Outflow Valve

Cargo (NJ specific)

Aft Equipment bay

Kept unlocked in flight for bleed line overpressure

Memory aid: BOCA
You can leave your doors unlocked in BOCA

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17
Q

How much fuel is required to keep the Fuel/Hydraulic heat exchanger system completely submerged?

A

2,800 lbs

1,400 each side

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18
Q

After takeoff, what is the correct sequence to transfer the bleeds from the APU to the engines?

(w/ APU operating the ECS)

A

Set the bleed switches to the following:

X BLEED - Closed

L BLEED - ON

APU BLEED - OFF

R BLEED - ON

“C” *Landing order is a backwards “C” - R A L X

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19
Q

Max altitude (pressure altitude) using the APU to start the left engine on the ground

A

9,000’

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20
Q

Max altitude to start APU

A

30,000’

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21
Q

What are the maximum operating speeds to extend flaps?

A

10° = 210kts

20° = 210kts

30° = 175kts

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22
Q

What is the function of the APU?

A

Supplies air and electric

(Air includes bleed air for ECS & Main engine start)

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23
Q

Max Altitude w/ Yaw Damper Off

A

31,000’

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24
Q

What is the maximum usable fuel?

Pressure refueling
Over wing refueling

A

Pressure: 14,150lbs

Over wing: 13,000lbs

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25
Q

Aux Hydraulic pump pressure

A

2,500 - 3350 psi

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26
Q

Where is the Therapeutic O2 outlet located?

A

Behind the VIP seat, just ahead of the Emergency exit.

The mask is in drawer forward of lav.

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27
Q

When connecting External power to the aircraft, when will the AVAIL light come on?

A

When the power is the correct voltage and polarity

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28
Q

Nose wheel steering: Tiller and Rudder Pedals limits

A

Tiller: 65°

Rudder Pedals: 7°

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29
Q

Pushing the ENG FIRE switch does what 7 things?

A
  1. FADEC commands engine shutdown
  2. FIREX bottle ARMED lights illuminate
  3. FIREX arms extinguisher bottle squibs
  4. Fuel is shutoff
  5. Pneumatic is shutoff
  6. Hydraulic is shutoff
  7. Electric (Generator) is selected offline
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30
Q

EICAS shows messages in what order?

A

Order of importance, Order of occurrence

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31
Q

How long does the Aft Equipment bay light stay on?

A

20 Minutes

After 15 Minutes the lights will flash for 10 seconds and then turn off

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32
Q

IP air is used for what systems?

What is the max PSI?

A

IP = Intermediate Pressure Valves

  1. Engine Starting
  2. Environmental Control System
  3. Pressurization

Max 50 PSI (+/-3)

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33
Q

Which system uses HP air?

A

HP = High Pressure Valves

  1. Wing and Engine Anti-Ice

Max 36 PSI (+/-3)

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34
Q

Configuration Warning

A

Parking Brake
Disconnects (2- Pitch and Roll)
Flaps
Autopilot
Spoilers
Trims (3 - Aileron, Stab, Rudder)

Memory Aid: PDFAST

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35
Q

Which spoilers act as multifunction spoilers?

A

1,2 and 7,8
(Outboard)

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36
Q

What is ROLS?

A

Remote Oil Level Sensor

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37
Q

What is the normal takeoff thrust for the HTF7350 engine?

A

7,372 lbs Flat rated at ISA+15c at sea level APR

Increases power to +20c

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38
Q

Bleed air switches are normally positioned:

A

All on, or all off

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39
Q

What does IASC stand for?

A

Integrated Air System Controller

ECS and Pressurization Control

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40
Q

When are select EICAS messages inhibited for takeoff and landing?

A

Takeoff:

Airspeed above 80 kts until above 400 feet

Landing:

Below 400 feet until less than 40 kts.

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41
Q

When does the CVR start recording and how long does it last?

A

Starts recording when Battery power is applied and records for 2 hrs

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42
Q

Max Generator load with 2 Generators on the ground

A

400 amps

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43
Q

HP air provides air for which system and at what PSI?

A

Anti-Ice @ 36 psi

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44
Q

Max Generator Load (Transient)

A

600 amps for 5 minutes

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45
Q

Under what conditions must ENG Anti-Ice be operating on the ground?

In the air?

A

With snow, ice, standing water or slush present must the engine anti-ice system be on while on the ground?
<10°C OAT

In the air?
<10 TAT

Anti Ice off <-40 SAT

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46
Q

Wing anti-ice fails in what position?

A

Fails (spring loaded) to the CLOSED position

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47
Q

Following an aborted start, how long must the engine be dry motored before an additional start may be attempted?

A

30 seconds

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48
Q

What is the power source for the Left DCMP?

What is the power source for the Right DCMP?

A

Left DCMP:
Right Main Bus

Right DCMP:
Left Essential Bus

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49
Q

How many Air Data Computers are in the CL350?

A

2

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50
Q

What EICAS Message will be displayed with Anti-Ice systems off and ICE DETECTED?

Anti-Ice System on?

A

Anti-Ice Off:

ICE DETECTED in Amber

Anti-Ice On:

ICE DETECTED in Cyan

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51
Q

Where is the fuel/hydraulic heat exchanger located?

A

Wing fuel tanks

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52
Q

APU Planned Fuel Burn

A

150 pph

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53
Q

What does the Ditching switch do?

A
  1. Depressurizes the cabin
  2. Disables the ECS (Flow Control Valves)
  3. Closes the outflow valve
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54
Q

With less than 1,000 lbs of fuel per side, limit flight to less than?

A

30 Minutes

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55
Q

When will the Auxiliary buses load shed?

A

Single generator operation in flight.

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56
Q

After shutdown, what is the time range to check the oil?

A

5 to 30 minutes after shut-down

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57
Q

Total Circuit Breaker panels

A

8 total CB panels

2 in cockpit (Cockpit prep check)

2 in galley (Cockpit prep check)

1 in galley storage

1 behind mirror in lav

2 in aft equipment bay

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58
Q

What is the fire detection system called?

How many fire detection loops are there and where are they located?

A

FIREX-CU

Fire Detection and Extinguishing Control Unit.

2 detection loops in each of the engines and APU, and a single loop in the main gear wheel well provide information to FIREXCU.

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59
Q

When will the Bus Tie Contactorpressuria open?

A

2 or more generators online.

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60
Q

When crossing the holding fix for a hold manually entered in the FMS, what is displayed at the bottom of the legs page at 6L?

A

Exit Hold

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61
Q

Ditching switch available below what altitude and mode?

A

15,000’ in Auto pressurization mode only

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62
Q

How long will the main batteries last in the event of a total loss of generator power?

A

1 hour ESSCs open

Bus Tie Contactor closes

Batteries directly power their essential busses and battery busses only, and share loads through the closed Bus Tie.

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63
Q

Pax oxygen masks stop delivering oxygen when descending through what cabin altitude ?

A

9,500’ + - 500 feet.

64
Q

Which EICAS message requires prompt action?

A

Prompt: Amber (caution)

65
Q

With Emergency Lights armed, when will they illuminate?

A

Loss of right Main Bus power.

66
Q

Oxygen masks auto deploy at what cabin altitude?

A

14,500’ +/- 500 feet.
(EPAV)

67
Q

What is the purpose of the Scavenge Ejectors?

A

Transfer fuel from the lowest inboard section of the wing to the Collector Tank.

68
Q

What is the battery life of the Standby Indicator?

A

3.5 hours

Powered normally via Right Essential Bus

69
Q

What happens when an ENGINE FIRE is detected?

A

MW illuminates

3 Chimes

ENG FIRE CAS Message

Aural “Engine Fire”

FIRE on N1 (red)

Engine fire switch illuminates

70
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

Assists with gear retraction with loss of pressure in left hydraulic system due to Left EDP (engine driven pump failure).

Memory Aid:
PTU = Pick Tires Up

71
Q

When will the DCMP Hydraulic pumps run continuously?

A

With flaps beyond 0 degrees

72
Q

How many Ice detectors are required to generate an ICE DETECTED CAS message?

A

One

73
Q

Where is the oxygen service point located?

A

Right side of fuselage, directly forward of the right engine.

74
Q

What PSI is a fully charged oxygen system?

A

Outside: 1850 PSI at the fill port

Inside: 5,458L

Oxygen quantity is displayed on MFD EICAS and SUMMARY synoptic pages.

75
Q

How many Ice detectors are installed on the CL350?

A

2

76
Q

What does the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) power?

A

FADEC

@ >45% N2

With total loss of power, PMAs still operate … You don’t lose engine power!

77
Q

Which primary flight control system does not have hydraulic assist?

A

Ailerons

78
Q

What is the EPAV?

A

Electro Pneumatic Actuating Valve

(Oxygen Control)

79
Q

Describe the main batteries in the CL350?

A

24V NICADs (2)
44 amp/hr

80
Q

Which doors are monitored by the door warning system?

A

Main
Emergency
Cargo
Aft Equipment Bay
Battery Bay

Memory Aid: MECAB

81
Q

Where does the APU receive it’s fuel?

A

Right collector tank

Collector tanks hold 500lbs

82
Q

Min fuel for go-around

A

1,000 Lbs

83
Q

What happens when you turn on the battery switches (ground ops)?

A
  1. Batteries connect to their respective Essential busses.
  2. All buses are powered
  3. IRS begins aligning (cyan message on PFD)
  4. CVR turns on
84
Q

With torque link attached what is the limit of rotation of the nose gear?

A

120°

with torque links attached, and NWS de-energized

Exceeding 120° causes “NWS LIMIT EXCEEDED” CAS message.

Indicating pins shear at 123° Torque links may be disconnected to allow towing at any angle

85
Q

Max altitude to use APU electric?

A

30,000’

86
Q

When should you manually select engine ignition ON?

A
  1. Contaminated runways
  2. Moderate or heavier rain
  3. Moderate or greater turbulence
  4. In the vicinity of thunderstorms
87
Q

What are the meanings for the following synoptic colors:

Red, Amber, Green, White

A

Red - Exceedence

Amber- Component failure no flow, energy, or pressure

Green - Normal with flow

White - Normal without flow

88
Q

How many igniters does the each engine have?

A

2

89
Q

What is the minimum pavement width required to make a 180 degree turn?

A

58’

Includes a 5 ft safety margin

90
Q

Pressurization System Ops:

Amber CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message
Red CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message

A

Amber CABIN ALTITUDE:
8,500’ Cabin altitude
(Caution)

Red CABIN ALTITUDE
9400’ Cabin Altitude
(Warning)

*Airports above 7850’ MSL resets CAS messages to: Caution: Add 650’ to highest planned field elevation Warning: Add 1550’ to highest planned field elevation

91
Q

Under what conditions will the main door caution (amber) CAS message display?

A

Left engine run switch on

Aircraft is on the ground

Main door is not fully secured

92
Q

Safety valves are set to relieve pressure at what PSI?

A

Over Pressure 9.4 PSI
Under Pressure -.5 PSI
(2 valves)

93
Q

Which busses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight?

A

Battery and Essential buses.

94
Q

What electronically controls the landing gear system?

A

PSEU

Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit.

95
Q

Takeoff and Return to Base sequence is active until what parameters have been met?

A

Climb above 6,000’ or 10 minutes after departure

*Pressurization maintains departure field elevation

96
Q

Pressing EMER DEPRESS does what in auto mode?

Manual mode?

A

Auto mode:
2,500’ fpm up to 14,000 +/-100’

Manual mode:
3,000’ fpm up to 14,500’ +/- 500’

97
Q

Where are the Fire Extinguishers located?

A

Fire Extinguishers (3)
Locations:
Cockpit (under right seat)
Forward Coat Closet (bottom shelf)
Lavatory (aft of toilet seat)

98
Q

Hydraulic Pressure for EDP?

Hydraulic Pressure for DCMP?

A

EDP - 3000 PSI

DCMP - 2,800 PSI

99
Q

When does the FDR activate and how long can it record?

A

Starts with BCN selected on
or
WOW (weight OFF wheels)

Records for 25hrs

100
Q

What is needed in order to get TO-TO (TOGA) on the flight director?

A

V speeds
Flaps set to takeoff
Engines running

101
Q

What is the purpose of the safety valves?

A

They prevent cabin overpressure and negative pressure conditions (one each)

102
Q

How long will the Emergency lights illuminate?

A

15 min with normal ambient temps

*10 minutes if cold

103
Q

Left hydraulic system

(9 items)

A

Upper rudder PCU

Inboard elevators

Inboard multifunction flight spoilers

Inboard ground spoilers

ALTN Flaps

Gear

Nose wheel steering

Left T/R

Inboard brakes

104
Q

Right hydraulic system

(9 items)

A

Lower rudder PCU

Outboard elevators

Outboard multifunction flight spoilers

Outboard ground spoilers

Flaps (Normal)

Gear Down assist

PTU

Right T/R

Outboard brakes

105
Q

Ditching Switch Operation

(3)

A

Depressurizes the cabin

Shuts off air conditioning

Closes Outflow valve.

*This sequence is only active in the automatic mode and is inhibited above 15000’

106
Q

IASC

A

1 IASC is always primary

Integrated Air System Controllers

Pressurization control

Two IASC controllers, 1 Manual control

Controls primary outflow valve through AUTO drive mechanism

(Secondary independent drive mechanism control valve in manual mode)

107
Q

Takeoff and Return To Base Sequence

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Maintains 300’ below field elevation until 6000’ AGL or 10 minutes

*If descent is initiated the cabin descends to take off field elevation and the cabin altitude does not have to be reset.

108
Q

Prepressurization Mode

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Active when thrust levers advanced to take off position

Achieves cabin pressure of 300’ below field elevation

This reduces noticeable cabin pressure change at takeoff

109
Q

Manual pressurization knob

A

12 o’clock position Rate is zero

2/3’s travel is about 1000 fpm

Full deflection is about 2500fpm

110
Q

CLIMB mode

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Automatically controls cabin climb rate according to theoretical schedule of cabin altitude versus aircraft altitude

Also takes into account the rate of climb and landing field elevation.

Typical climb rates are 300-500 fpm with max rate of 635 fpm at lighter weight and best climb

*Above 25000, high rates of climb (>6000 fpm) may cause cabin rate of climb to exceed 635 fpm max and should be avoided for auto overpress protection and cabin comfort

111
Q

CRUISE MODE

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Active when aircraft rate of climb <500 from for >10s

Aircraft is climbing at any rate with aircraft altitude greater than 25000’

Cabin altitude is set according to predetermined schedule.

112
Q

Depressurization sequence on ground

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

After landing or aborted takeoff:

Aircraft depressurizes at rate of 500 fpm

Outflow valve drives to fully open

Outflow valve then remains fully open while on the ground.

113
Q

GEAR WARNING

Non-mutable

A

Any gear not down/locked …and

RADALT < 500’ …and

Left and right thrust levers < 26° …Or

flaps > or = 27°

114
Q

GEAR WARNING

Mutable

A

Gear not down and locked …and

Radio altimeter invalid …and

TLA < 26°…and

Altitude is <15,000’ …and

Airspeed <170 with flaps <3° …or

Airspeed <160 with flaps <13°’ …or

Airspeed <155 with flaps >13°

*When RADALT INOP Gear Warning is mutable

115
Q

Brake system ground mode

A

Ground mode allows hydraulic pressure to brake actuators.

Activated when gear down …and

Either WOW active for >5 sec …or

Wheel spin up above 50 KTS

116
Q

Brake Control Unit - BCU

A

Provides anti-skid protection down to 10 KTS

Commands braking pressure of 350 psi for 4s after gear retraction

Removes hydraulic pressure from brakes when:

Both WOW(off), and gear up and locked, and wheel speed zero.

117
Q

Nose Wheel Steering

(5)

A

Active when left hydraulic system pressurized

Nose Gear down and locked

WOW

NWS selected ON

No faults noted by SCU (steering control unit)

118
Q

PSEU

A

Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit

Gear retraction and extension control

119
Q

Gust lock

A

Locks ailerons only

These are the only non-hydraulic flight control

120
Q

MDC Maintenance Diagnostic Computer

A

Can display data on top half of right MFD

Initiate by simultaneously pressing A/ICE, ECS, and FUEL on the MFD Control panel

121
Q

ENG accessory Gearbox items

(6)

A

Air turbine starter

GEN

FUEL pump

Oil pump

Reservoir HYD PUMP

PMA

122
Q

APR ARMED

A

Armed for takeoff when thrust levers at T/O detent,

Engaged when lever set at APR (beyond takeoff position)

Also:

Armed for go around when flaps >20° OR flaps and gear down.

Automatically engages with engine split of >15% N2

Can be manually turned off on engine panel

123
Q

AIR TURBINE STARTER Disengage

A

N2 46.2%

124
Q

When will HYD SHUTOFF VLV close

(2)

A

Fire switch depressed

or

Shut off valve closed

Fluid temp above 135°C (skydrol boiling point)

125
Q

What are the HYD DCMP power sources?

A

Left DCMP = RIGHT MAIN BUS

Right DCMP = LEFT ESSENTIAL BUS

126
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

When does it run?

A

To aid in gear retraction

Comes on when gear is being retracted and

Left EDP pressure is low

127
Q

What does the AUX HYD system power?

A

Assists the lower rudder PCU

128
Q

How are gear up locks released?

A

When extension commanded, gear initially over stows the gear, releasing the mechanical up locks.

This allows mechanical up lock hook to be retracted for extension.

Mechanical Right hydraulic gear asssit

129
Q

The GEN overload message comes on at what load?

A

501 AMPS

130
Q

What inputs arm the GROUND SPOILERS in AUTO mode

(4)

A

Inputs come from :

RADALT

Wheel Speed

WOW

TLA

131
Q

When do GROUND SPOILERS extend in MANUAL ARM

A

Thrust Levers Idle and WOW only

*Manual Arm mode does not provide additional input protection available in AUTO.

132
Q

ALTN FLAPS

A

When ALTN FLAPS selected:

Left HYD system pressure powers flaps.

Flow restricted

(to prioritize gear actuation)

Takes over 1 min to extend flaps from 0°-20°

Normal flaps (R) HYD system = O°-30° is 20 seconds

133
Q

CONFIGURATION TRIM

A

Stab trim automatically adjusts when gear and flaps are extended to smooth out oscillations

134
Q

Min Speed to extend FLIGHT SPOILERS

A

Vapp +8

Vapp = Vref straight in approach (Vref+8)

Vapp = Vref+10 circling approach (Vapp+8)

500’ AGL min usage

135
Q

How long may windshield heat be used when on essential power?

A

15 minutes

136
Q

Oxygen system

A

5458 liters (Long distance bottles)

Electropneumatic actuating valve (EPAV) controls O2 flow

EPAV has 3 valves :

1 is unregulated air to crew masks

2 is regulated air to pax masks

3 is unregulated air to pax masks (manual select)

137
Q

Standard Flight Deck Emergency Equipment

A

Two flashlights

One PBE (portable breathing equipment)

One crash axe

One fire extinguisher

Two life vests

138
Q

Audio panel to EMER

A

Bypasses audio panel

Can only transmit and receive on own side radio.

Left pilot on COMM 1, right pilot on COMM 2

139
Q

Ways to disengage the AUTO Pilot

(6)

A

Pressing either master disconnect switch

Activating trim switches on control wheels

Pressing AP on FGP

Pressing AP/DISC bar on FGP

Pressing either TOGA switch on TLs

Pressing the YD push button

Additonal ways to disconnect in non-normal ops, ie PITCH and ROLL disconnects

140
Q

RA INHIBIT Parameters (3)

A
  1. Descending below 900’ AGL, or climbing below 1100’ AGL

All RA’s inhibited (TA ONLY) and TA AURAL INHIBITED

  1. Descending below 1000’ AGL or below 1200’ AGL and climbing

DESCEND RA inhibited

  1. Below 1450’ AGL

INCREASE DESCENT inhibited

141
Q

DESCENT MODE

*Automatic pressurization mode

A

Aircraft descends at preset rate

Varies based on aircraft rate of descent and time remaining to land.

2000 fpm aircraft rate yields 300 fpm cabin rate

5000 fpm and greater descent rate yields cabin descent of 750 fpm

Decent continues to 300’ below landing field elevation.

142
Q

What is the DCP?

A

Display Control Panel

Located outboard of FGP

Controls PFD and radio frequencies on MFD

143
Q

What is the MFD Control Panel

A

Multi Function Display Control Panel

Controls navigation displays, synoptic, e-checklist, and CAS displays on MFD

Located on center console

144
Q

What is the FGP?

A

Flight Guidance Panel

Controls Flight Director and Autopilot

Located on center of glareshield instrument panel

145
Q

What is the Reversion Switch Panel?

A

Reversion Switch Panel

Used to switch information between PFD and MFD AND between Pilot and Copilot on center console

146
Q

In AUTO mode, when will a DCMP run constant?

What is the pressure does each DCMP provide?

A

Flaps > 0

>2800 PSI

147
Q

Starter Limitations Engine

A

3 consecutive attempts, then 15min cooling

30 seconds motor after aborted start

Up to 5 min cranking

3-30-15

148
Q

Starter Limitations APU

A

Ground start:

3 start attempts, with 1min cooling intervals then 20min of cooling

followed by 2 start attempts, 1min cooling between then 40min off

Memory Aid: 3-1-20 2-1-40

Air Start: Only one airborne start attempt allowed

149
Q

ECS Temperature Ranges

Auto Manual

A

Auto range = 15-35C

(sensors in cabin and cockpit)

Manual range = 3-70C

(sensors in ducting)

150
Q

When should you disable TAWS Warnings?

A

GS = BC Approach or GS inop

Flaps = Landing less than flaps 30

Airport not in database

151
Q

What is lost with Secondary Trim use?

A

Autopilot

Mach Trim

Configuration Trim

Memory Aid: MAC (Mach)

152
Q

How are electrical buses powered?

A

Battery always powers respective Batt Bus

Batt ON powers respective Essential Bus

Generators power respective Main Bus

Aux buses powered by generators thru respective Main bus

153
Q

With a single generator in flight, what buses are powered?

With single generator on the ground, what buses are powered?

A

In flight: Operable: Essential, Main, Battery. Single gen sheds Aux buses.

On Ground: Single Gen everything is still powered

154
Q

What happens in flight with no generators?

(No APU or Engine Driven Gens online)

A

With no generators on line, each battery powers respective Batt and Essential busses, and BTC closes.

Battery duration is 1 hour in this situation

155
Q

With one engine-driven gen in flight and APU operating:

What does APU power?

A

APU gen will power the Main Bus on the side with the lost gen while in flight with one engine-driven generator on line.

156
Q

In flight, with no engine-driven gens and only APU:

What is powered?

A

In flight, APU operating with no engine-driven gens:

APU powers (R) Main , bus ties contactor closes (BTC) and powers (L) Main.