CL350 Systems (Initial & Recurent Oral) Rev0124 Flashcards

1
Q

How long can the engine starter be used?

How long does it need to cool before a further start may be attempted?

A

Cranked for up to 5 minutes,

Followed by a cooling period of 15 minutes prior to additional starts or motoring.

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2
Q

What is the valve sequence when the air source selector is selected to:

Trim Air Only

A

Left Flow Control Valve closes

Right Flow Control Valve opens

Pre-cooler Crossover Valve closes

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3
Q

Max Generator Loads w/ 1 Generator in flight

A

500 amps

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4
Q

What does the CABIN DELTA P warning CAS message indicate?

A

Cabin pressure is > 9.2 PSI or < -.5 PSI

8.8 PSI = Norm >= FL420

*Cabin = 7850’ and 8.8 PSI at FL450

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5
Q

Maximum speed for APU start

A

285 kts

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6
Q

Ram Air Valve can be operated below what altitude?

A

10,000’

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7
Q

Standby Instrument is powered by which bus?

A

Right Essential bus

*Battery pack is good for 3.5 hours.

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8
Q

Max altitude to operate APU

A

37,000’

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9
Q

Oxygen quantity and unit displayed on the outside panel?

Quantity and unit displayed inside cockpit on MFD?

A

Outside 1,850 PSI

Inside 5,458L

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10
Q

Fuel Max Imbalance Quantities

A

>13,700lbs = 250lbs

10,000-13,699lbs = 315lbs

4,700-9,999lbs = 450lbs

<4700lbs = 600lbs

Max Imbalance during gravity refueling = 250lbs

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11
Q

How long will the Essential buses and Battery buses last on battery power only?

A

1 hour

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12
Q

What happens when Engine Run switch is positioned to On?

A
  1. Fuel Pumps On
  2. FADEC initialized

*If Cabin or Cargo open White Cas turns Amber with Left Run switch

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13
Q

Which EICAS message requires immediate action?

A

Immediate: Red (warning)

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14
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU may be used for Bleed Air?

A

20,000’

“APU BLEED ALT LIMIT”
(Amber CAS)

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15
Q

When manual mode is selected on the pressurization panel the pilot is controlling what?

A

In manual mode the pilot manually controls the outflow valve (1),

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16
Q

What doors must be unlocked for flight?

A

Battery Bay

Outflow Valve

Cargo (NJ specific)

Aft Equipment bay

Memory aid: BOCA
You can leave your doors unlocked in BOCA

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17
Q

How much fuel is required to keep the Fuel/Hydraulic heat exchanger system completely submerged?

A

2,800 lbs

1,400 each side

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18
Q

After takeoff, what is the correct sequence to transfer the bleeds from the APU to the engines?

(w/ APU operating the ECS)

A

Set the bleed switches to the following:

X BLEED - Closed

L BLEED - ON

APU BLEED - OFF

R BLEED - ON

The flow is in the shape of a “C”

*Landing order is a backwards “C” - R A L X

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19
Q

Max altitude (pressure altitude) using the APU to start the left engine on the ground

A

9,000’

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20
Q

Max altitude to start APU

A

30,000’

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21
Q

What are the maximum operating speeds to extend flaps?

A

10° = 210kts

20° = 210kts

30° = 175kts

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22
Q

What is the function of the APU?

A

Supplies air and electric

(Air includes bleed air for ECS & Main engine start)

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23
Q

Max Altitude w/ Yaw Damper Off

A

31,000’

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24
Q

What is the maximum usable fuel?

  1. Pressure refueling
  2. Over wing refueling
A
  1. Pressure: 14,150lbs
  2. Over wing: 13,000lbs
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25
Aux Hydraulic pump pressure
2,500 - 3350 psi
26
Where is the Therapeutic O2 outlet located?
Behind the VIP seat, just ahead of the Emergency exit. The mask is in drawer forward of lav.
27
When connecting External power to the aircraft, when will the AVAIL light come on?
When the power is the correct voltage and polarity
28
Nose wheel steering: Tiller and Rudder Pedals limits
Tiller: 65° Rudder Pedals: 7°
29
Pushing the ENG FIRE switch does what 7 things?
1. FADEC commands engine shutdown 2. FIREX bottle ARMED lights illuminate 3. FIREX arms extinguisher bottle squibs 4. Fuel is shutoff 5. Pneumatic is shutoff 6. Hydraulic is shutoff 7. Electric (Generator) is selected offline
30
EICAS shows messages in what order?
Order of importance, Order of occurrence
31
How long does the Aft Equipment bay light stay on?
20 Minutes After 15 Minutes the lights will flash for 10 seconds and then turn off
32
IP air is used for what systems? What is the max PSI?
IP = Intermediate Pressure Valves 1. Engine Starting 2. Environmental Control System 3. Pressurization Max 50 PSI (+/-3)
33
Which system uses HP air?
1. Wing and Engine Anti-Ice Max 36 PSI (+/-3) HP = High Pressure Turbine = Hot Temp, lower speed air
34
Configuration Warning
Parking Brake Disconnects (2- Pitch and Roll) Flaps Autopilot Spoilers Trims (3 - Aileron, Stab, Rudder) Memory Aid: PDFAST
35
Which spoilers act as multifunction spoilers?
1,2 and 7,8 (Outboard)
36
What is ROLS?
Remote Oil Level Sensor
37
What is the normal takeoff thrust for the HTF7350 engine?
7,372 lbs Flat rated at ISA+15c at sea level APR Increases power to +20c
38
Bleed air switches are normally positioned:
All on, or all off
39
What does IASC stand for?
Integrated Air System Controller ECS and Pressurization Control
40
When are select EICAS messages inhibited for takeoff and landing?
Takeoff: Airspeed above 80 kts until above 400 feet Landing: Below 400 feet until less than 40 kts.
41
When does the CVR start recording and how long does it last?
Starts recording when Battery power is applied and records for 2 hrs
42
Max Generator load with 2 Generators on the ground
400 amps
43
HP air provides air for which system and at what PSI?
Anti-Ice @ 36 psi
44
Max Generator Load (Transient)
600 amps for 5 minutes
45
Under what conditions must ENG Anti-Ice be operating on the ground? In the air? When should WING Anti-Ice be operating?
Engine Anti-ice system must be on while on the ground with 1. With snow, ice, standing water or slush present 2. \<10°C OAT In the air? 1. With snow, ice, standing water or slush present 2. \<10 TAT Wing Anti-Ice must be on while on the ground with 1. With snow, ice, standing water or slush present 2. \<5°C OAT In the air, Wing Anti-Ice must be on if ICE DETECTED or in icing conditions and speed below 210. Anti Ice should be off \<-40 SAT
46
Wing anti-ice fails in what position?
Fails (spring loaded) to the CLOSED position
47
Following an aborted start, how long must the engine be dry motored before an additional start may be attempted?
30 seconds
48
What is the power source for the Left DCMP? What is the power source for the Right DCMP?
Left DCMP: Right Main Bus Right DCMP: Left Essential Bus
49
How many Air Data Computers are in the CL350?
2
50
What EICAS Message will be displayed with Anti-Ice systems off and ICE DETECTED? Anti-Ice System on?
Anti-Ice Off: Amber ICE DETECTED CAS Anti-Ice On: Cyan ICE DETECTED CAS
51
Where is the fuel/hydraulic heat exchanger located?
Wing fuel tanks
52
APU Planned Fuel Burn
150 pph
53
What does the Ditching switch do?
1. Depressurizes the cabin (via open outflow valve) 2. Disables the ECS (Flow Control Valves) 3. Closes the outflow valve
54
With less than 1,000 lbs of fuel per side, limit flight to less than?
30 Minutes
55
When will the Auxiliary buses load shed?
Single generator operation in flight.
56
After shutdown, what is the time range to check the oil?
5 to 30 minutes after shut-down
57
Total Circuit Breaker panels
8 total CB panels 2 in cockpit (Cockpit prep check) 2 in galley (Cockpit prep check) 1 in galley storage 1 behind mirror in lav 2 in aft equipment bay
58
What is the fire detection system called? How many fire detection loops are there and where are they located?
FIREX-CU Fire Detection and Extinguishing Control Unit. 2 detection loops in each of the engines and APU, and a single loop in the main gear wheel well provide information to FIREXCU.
59
Under what condition(s) will the Bus Tie Contactor open?
2 or more generators online.
60
When crossing the holding fix for a hold manually entered in the FMS, what is displayed at the bottom of the legs page at 6L?
Exit Hold
61
Ditching switch is available below what altitude and mode?
15,000' in Auto pressurization mode only
62
How long will the main batteries last in the event of a total loss of generator power?
1 hour ESSCs open Bus Tie Contactor closes Batteries directly power their essential busses and battery busses only, and shares loads through the closed Bus Tie.
63
Pax oxygen masks stop delivering oxygen when descending through what cabin altitude ?
9,500' + - 500 feet.
64
Which EICAS message requires prompt action?
Prompt: Amber (caution)
65
With Emergency Lights armed, when will they illuminate?
Loss of right Main Bus power.
66
Oxygen masks auto deploy at what cabin altitude?
14,500' +/- 500 feet. (EPAV)
67
What is the purpose of the Scavenge Ejectors?
Transfer fuel from the lowest inboard section of the wing to the Collector Tank.
68
What is the battery life of the Standby Indicator?
3.5 hours Powered normally via Right Essential Bus
69
What happens when an ENGINE FIRE is detected?
MW illuminates 3 Chimes ENG FIRE CAS Message Aural "Engine Fire" FIRE on N1 (red) Engine fire switch illuminates
70
What is the purpose of the PTU?
Assists with gear retraction with loss of pressure in left hydraulic system due to Left EDP (engine driven pump failure). Memory Aid: PTU = Pick Tires Up
71
When will the DCMP Hydraulic pumps run continuously?
With flaps beyond 0 degrees
72
How many Ice detectors are required to generate an ICE DETECTED CAS message?
One
73
Where is the oxygen service point located?
Right side of fuselage, directly forward of the right engine.
74
What PSI is a fully charged oxygen system?
Outside: 1850 PSI at the fill port Inside: 5,458L Oxygen quantity is displayed on MFD EICAS and SUMMARY synoptic pages.
75
How many Ice detectors are installed on the CL350?
2
76
What does the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) power?
FADEC @ \>45% N2 With total loss of power, PMAs still operate ... You don't lose engine power and control!
77
Which primary flight control system does not have hydraulic assist?
Ailerons
78
What is the EPAV?
Electro Pneumatic Actuating Valve | (Oxygen Control)
79
Describe the main batteries in the CL350?
24V NICADs (2) 44 amp/hr
80
Which doors are monitored by the door warning system?
Main Emergency Cargo Aft Equipment Bay Battery Bay Memory Aid: MECAB
81
Where does the APU receive it's fuel?
Right collector tank Collector tanks hold 500lbs
82
Min fuel for go-around
1,000 Lbs
83
What happens when you turn on the battery switches (ground ops)?
1. Batteries connect to their respective Essential busses. 2. All buses are powered 3. IRS begins aligning (cyan message on PFD) 4. CVR turns on
84
With torque link attached what is the limit of rotation of the nose gear?
120° with torque links attached, and NWS de-energized Exceeding 120° causes "NWS LIMIT EXCEEDED" CAS message. Indicating pins shear at 123° Torque links may be disconnected to allow towing at any angle
85
Max altitude to use APU electric?
30,000'
86
When should you manually select engine ignition ON?
1. Contaminated runways 2. Moderate or heavier rain 3. Moderate or greater turbulence 4. In the vicinity of thunderstorms
87
What are the meanings for the following synoptic colors: Red, Amber, Green, White
Red - Exceedence Amber- Component failure no flow, energy, or pressure Green - Normal with flow White - Normal without flow
88
How many igniters does each engine have?
2
89
What is the minimum pavement width required to make a 180 degree turn?
58' Includes a 5 ft safety margin
90
Pressurization System Ops: What causes the following CAS message: Amber CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message Red CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message
Amber CABIN ALTITUDE: 8,500' Cabin altitude (Caution) Red CABIN ALTITUDE 9400' Cabin Altitude (Warning) \*Airports above 7850' MSL resets CAS messages to: Caution: Add 650' to highest planned field elevation Warning: Add 1550' to highest planned field elevation
91
Under what conditions will the main door caution (amber) CAS message display?
Left engine run switch on Aircraft is on the ground Main door is not fully secured
92
Safety valves are set to relieve pressure at what PSI?
Over Pressure at 9.4 PSI Under Pressure at -.5 PSI (2 valves)
93
Which buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight?
Battery and Essential buses only. 1 hour of Ops. Aux buses shed with one generator operating.
94
What electronically controls the landing gear system?
PSEU Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit.
95
Takeoff and Return to Base sequence is active until what parameters have been met?
Climb above 6,000' or 10 minutes after departure *Pressurization maintains departure field elevation
96
Pressing EMER DEPRESS does what in: Auto mode? Manual mode?
Auto mode: 2,500' fpm up to 14,000 +/-100' Manual mode: 3,000' fpm up to 14,500' +/- 500'
97
Where are the Fire Extinguishers located?
Fire Extinguishers (3) Locations: Cockpit (under right seat) Forward Coat Closet (bottom shelf) Lavatory (aft of toilet seat)
98
Hydraulic Pressure for EDP? Hydraulic Pressure for DCMP?
EDP - 3000 PSI DCMP - 2,800 PSI
99
When does the FDR activate and how long can it record?
Starts with BCN selected on or WOW (weight OFF wheels) Records for 25hrs
100
What is needed in order to get TO-TO (TOGA) on the flight director?
V speeds Flaps set to takeoff Engines running
101
What is the purpose of the safety valves?
They prevent cabin overpressure and negative pressure conditions (one each)
102
How long will the Emergency lights illuminate?
15 min with normal ambient temps \*10 minutes if cold
103
Left hydraulic system | (9 items)
Upper rudder PCU Inboard elevators Inboard multifunction flight spoilers Inboard ground spoilers ALTN Flaps Gear Nose wheel steering Left T/R Inboard brakes Remember: Nose, Gear, Upper, Inboard and Left
104
Right hydraulic system | (9 items)
Lower rudder PCU Outboard elevators Outboard multifunction flight spoilers Outboard ground spoilers Flaps (Normal) Gear Down assist PTU Right T/R Outboard brakes Remember: Flap, Lower, Outboard & Right
105
Ditching Switch Operation | (3)
Depressurizes the cabin Shuts off air conditioning Closes Outflow valve. \*This sequence is only active in the automatic mode and is inhibited above 15000'
106
IASC
Integrated Air System Controllers Pressurization control Two IASC controllers and 1 Manual control #1 IASC is always primary #2 IASC takes control automatically when #1 has a fault Controls primary outflow valve through AUTO drive mechanism (Secondary independent drive mechanism control valve in manual mode)
107
Takeoff and Return To Base Sequence \*Automatic pressurization mode
Maintains 300' below field elevation until 6000' AGL or 10 minutes \*If descent is initiated the cabin descends to take off field elevation and the cabin altitude does not have to be reset.
108
Pre-pressurization Mode \*Automatic pressurization mode
Active when thrust levers advanced to take off position Achieves cabin pressure of 300' below field elevation This reduces noticeable cabin pressure change at takeoff
109
Manual pressurization knob
12 o'clock position Rate is zero 2/3's travel is about 1000 fpm Full deflection is about 2500fpm
110
CLIMB mode \*Automatic pressurization mode
Automatically controls cabin climb rate according to theoretical schedule of cabin altitude versus aircraft altitude Also takes into account the rate of climb and landing field elevation. Typical climb rates are 300-500 fpm with max rate of 635 fpm at lighter weight and best climb \*Above 25000, high rates of climb (\>6000 fpm) may cause cabin rate of climb to exceed 635 fpm max and should be avoided for auto overpress protection and cabin comfort
111
CRUISE MODE \*Automatic pressurization mode
Active when aircraft rate of climb \<500 from for \>10s Aircraft is climbing at any rate with aircraft altitude greater than 25000' Cabin altitude is set according to predetermined schedule.
112
Depressurization sequence on ground \*Automatic pressurization mode
After landing or aborted takeoff: Aircraft depressurizes at rate of 500 fpm Outflow valve drives to fully open Outflow valve then remains fully open while on the ground.
113
GEAR WARNING Non-mutable
Any gear not down/locked ...and Left and right thrust levers \< 26° ...Or flaps \> or = 27° RADALT \< 500' ...and Remember: 26, 27 & 500
114
GEAR WARNING Mutable
Gear not down and locked ...and Radio altimeter invalid ...and TLA \< 26°...and Altitude is \<15,000' ...and Airspeed \<170 with flaps \<3° ...or Airspeed \<160 with flaps \<13°' ...or Airspeed \<155 with flaps \>13° \*When RADALT INOP Gear Warning is mutable
115
Brake system ground mode
Ground mode allows hydraulic pressure to brake actuators. Activated when gear down ...and Either WOW active for \>5 sec ...or Wheel spin up above 50 KTS
116
Brake Control Unit - BCU
Provides anti-skid protection down to 10 KTS Commands braking pressure of 350 psi for 4s after gear retraction Removes hydraulic pressure from brakes when: Both WOW(off), and gear up and locked, and wheel speed zero.
117
Nose Wheel Steering | (5)
Active when left hydraulic system pressurized Nose Gear down and locked WOW NWS selected ON No faults noted by SCU (steering control unit)
118
PSEU
Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit Gear retraction and extension control
119
Gust lock
Locks ailerons only These are the only non-hydraulic flight control
120
MDC Maintenance Diagnostic Computer
Can display data on top half of right MFD Initiate by simultaneously pressing A/ICE, ECS, and FUEL on the MFD Control panel
121
ENG accessory Gearbox items | (6)
Air turbine starter GEN FUEL pump Oil pump Reservoir HYD PUMP PMA
122
APR Operation
1. Armed for takeoff with thrust levers in T/O detent. 2. Engaged with thrust levers set to APR (beyond takeoff position) Note: Armed for go around when flaps \>20° OR flaps and gear down. Automatically engages with engine split of \>15% N2 Can be manually turned off on engine panel
123
AIR TURBINE STARTER Disengage
N2 46.2%
124
When will HYD SHUTOFF VLV close | (2)
Fire switch depressed or Shut off valve closed Fluid temp above 135°C (skydrol boiling point)
125
What are the HYD DCMP power sources?
Left DCMP = RIGHT MAIN BUS Right DCMP = LEFT ESSENTIAL BUS
126
What is the primary purpose of the PTU? When does it run?
To aid in gear retraction Comes on when gear is being retracted and Left EDP pressure is low
127
What does the AUX HYD system power?
Assists the lower rudder PCU
128
How are gear up locks released?
When extension commanded, gear initially over stows the gear, releasing the mechanical up locks. This allows mechanical up lock hook to be retracted for extension. Mechanical Right hydraulic gear asssit
129
The GEN overload message comes on at what load?
501 AMPS
130
What inputs arm the GROUND SPOILERS in AUTO mode (4)
Inputs come from : RADALT Wheel Speed WOW TLA
131
When do GROUND SPOILERS extend in MANUAL ARM
Thrust Levers Idle and WOW only \*Manual Arm mode does not provide additional input protection available in AUTO.
132
ALTN FLAPS
When ALTN FLAPS selected: Left HYD system pressure powers flaps. Flow restricted (to prioritize gear actuation) Takes over 1 min to extend flaps from 0°-20° Normal flaps (R) HYD system = O°-30° is 20 seconds
133
CONFIGURATION TRIM
Stab trim automatically adjusts when gear and flaps are extended to smooth out oscillations
134
Min Speed to extend FLIGHT SPOILERS
Vapp +8 Vapp = Vref straight in approach (Vref+8) Vapp = Vref+10 circling approach (Vapp+8) 500' AGL min usage
135
How long may windshield heat be used when on essential power?
15 minutes
136
Oxygen system
5458 liters (Long distance bottles) Electropneumatic actuating valve (EPAV) controls O2 flow EPAV has 3 valves : 1 unregulated air to crew masks 1 regulated air to pax masks (metered) in Auto 1 unregulated air to pax masks (manual select and uses at higher consumption rate) in Deploy
137
Standard Flight Deck Emergency Equipment
Two flashlights One PBE (portable breathing equipment) (one additional in lav) One crash axe One fire extinguisher (two additional: 1 in cabinet closet and 1 in lav) Two life vests
138
Audio panel to EMER
Bypasses audio panel Can only transmit and receive on own side radio. Left pilot on COMM 1, right pilot on COMM 2 Interphone routes through speakers
139
Ways to disengage the AUTO Pilot | (6)
Pressing either master disconnect switch Activating trim switches on control wheels Pressing AP on FGP Pressing AP/DISC bar on FGP Pressing either TOGA switch on TLs Pressing the YD push button Additonal ways to disconnect in non-normal ops, ie PITCH and ROLL disconnects
140
RA INHIBIT Parameters (3)
1. Descending below 900' AGL, or climbing below 1100' AGL All RA's inhibited (TA ONLY) and TA AURAL INHIBITED 2. Descending below 1000' AGL or below 1200' AGL and climbing DESCEND RA inhibited 3. Below 1450' AGL INCREASE DESCENT inhibited
141
DESCENT MODE \*Automatic pressurization mode
Aircraft descends at preset rate Varies based on aircraft rate of descent and time remaining to land. 2000 fpm aircraft rate yields 300 fpm cabin rate 5000 fpm and greater descent rate yields cabin descent of 750 fpm Decent continues to 300' below landing field elevation.
142
What is the DCP?
Display Control Panel Located outboard of FGP Controls PFD and radio frequencies on MFD
143
What is the MFD Control Panel
Multi Function Display Control Panel Controls navigation displays, synoptic, e-checklist, and CAS displays on MFD Located on center console
144
What is the FGP?
Flight Guidance Panel Controls Flight Director and Autopilot Located on center of glareshield instrument panel
145
What is the Reversion Switch Panel?
Reversion Switch Panel Used to switch information between PFD and MFD AND between Pilot and Copilot on lower left center console
146
In AUTO mode, when will a DCMP run constant? What is the pressure does each DCMP provide?
Flaps \> 0 \>2800 PSI
147
Starter Limitations Engine
3 consecutive attempts, then 15min cooling 30 seconds motor after aborted start Up to 5 min cranking 3-30-15
148
Starter Limitations APU
Ground start: 3 start attempts, with 1min cooling intervals then 20min of cooling followed by 2 start attempts, 1min cooling between then 40min off Memory Aid: 3-1-20 2-1-40 Air Start: Only one airborne start attempt allowed
149
ECS Temperature Ranges In Auto? In Manual?
Auto range = 15-35C (sensors in cabin and cockpit) Manual range = 3-70C (sensors in ducting)
150
When should you disable TAWS Warnings?
GS = BC Approach or GS inop Flaps = Landing less than flaps 30 Airport not in database
151
What is lost with Secondary Trim use?
Autopilot Mach Trim Configuration Trim Memory Aid: MAC (Mach)
152
How are the electrical buses powered?
1. Battery always powers respective Batt Bus 2. Batt ON powers respective Essential Bus (plus Mains on ground) 3. Generators power respective Main Bus (in flight) 4. Generators power Aux buses thru respective Main bus
153
With a single generator in flight, what buses are powered? With single generator on the ground, what buses are powered?
In flight: Essential, Main, Battery all operating. Single gen sheds Aux buses. On Ground: Single Gen everything is still powered
154
What happens in flight with no generators? (No APU or Engine Driven Gens online)
With no generators on line, each battery powers respective Batt and Essential busses, and BTC closes. Battery duration is 1 hour in this situation
155
With one engine-driven gen in flight and APU operating: What does APU power?
APU gen will power the Main Bus on the side with the lost gen while in flight with one engine-driven generator on line.
156
In flight, with no engine-driven gens and only APU: What is powered?
In flight, APU operating with no engine-driven gens: APU powers (R) Main , bus ties contactor closes (BTC) and powers (L) Main. Battery and Essential still operate normally. Aux buses are load shed with only one generator operating.