Mental Health Final Flashcards

1
Q

Chpt 8

Therapeutic Relationships are used for what?

A

—Therapeutic relationships exist to meet the needs of the patient:

Their needs / thoughts / feelings / goals

—Roles are clearly defined and professional boundaries are established and maintained

—Areas to be worked on are agreed on and outcomes are continually evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Social Relationships refer to what?

A

Primarily initiated for the purpose of friendship, socialization, enjoyment or to accomplish a task

—Social relationships exist for mutual gratification of the participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Transference

A

Sigmund Freud

Pt. unconsciously and inappropriately displaces (transferes) onto the RN feeling’s / behaviors r/t significant figures in their past (parents / siblings etc.)

i.e. “you remind me of…(mom / dad / sister)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chpt 8

Countertranferences

A

When the RN unconsciously and inappropriately displaces (transferes) onto the pt. feeling’s / behaviors r/t significant figures in their past (parents / siblings etc.)

Can be either a positive or negative response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chpt 8

RN’s tend to diviate from therapeutic relationsips when they are:

A

Bored - want to rescue the pt

overinvolved w/pt - overidentify w/pt

anger w/pt - feelins of hoplessness / helplessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chpt 8

Peplau’s (1952)

Nursing - pt. relationship phases

A

1) PreOrientation Phase
2) Orientation Phase
3) Working Phase
4) Termination Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chpt 8

Peplau’s Orientation

Phase

A
  • can last a few minutes or extend over a longer period
  • is the initial interview
  • Used to establish rapport (demonstate genuiness, empahty, & develope a postitive regard
  • Set parameters
  • discuss confidentiality

- **Plan for termination phase (pt needs to know) is 1st used here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chpt 8

Peplau’s Working

Phase

A

RN & pt work together to Id / explore area’s that are causing problems in the pts life.

Key point. describing can often cause the pt. to reexperiencing old conflicts & can awaken high anxiety, anger etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chpt 8

Peplau’s Termination

Phase

A

Final / intergal phase

Summation of goals / objectives that pt. can implement when discharged

Key point - if pt has unresolved feelins of abandonment / unwanted….this phase can awaken those feelings

Ask the pt…“How do you feel about…?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chpt 8

Factors that promote Pt. growth

A

1) Genuiness
2) Empathy (not sympathy)
3) Positive regard (respect 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chpt 8

Genuiness

A

what we display to the outside world for a person / pt is congruent (same) w/ our internal feelings

RN would use congruent communication strategies

*what we project is real

don’t hide behind rules / using staff or informal guidlines to explain our actions…show an ability to interact honestly w/pts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chpt 8

Empathy

A

Empathy

The ability to understand a situation from the patient’s point of view

Empathy occurs when there is a deep understanding of the patient with the patient

Strongly associated with positive patient outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chpt 8

Positive Regard Def

A

An attitude of deep and genuine caring for the patient that acknowledges his/her intrinsic dignity and worth and is not contaminated or diminished by judgments about the person’s attitudes, beliefs, thoughts, feelings, behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chpt 9

Patient Centered

refers to…

A

refers to the Pt. as a full partner in his/her care - whose values, preferences, and needs are respected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chpt 9

Factors that affect communications

A

1) Personal factors (ie. mood, level of education, cultural backgroud)

2) Environmental factors (noise, lack of privacy, uncomfortable chairs etc)

3) Relationship factors ( status…who is in charge, age, social standing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chpt 9

Verbal vs. nonverbal communication

A

Words (verbal) equate to “content”

nonverbal (what we project) equates to “the process”

roughly 10% of all conversation is verbal & 90% is nonverbal (what we see)

when the content is congruent with the process - communication is said to be “healthy”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chpt 9

List 3 Therapeutic Communication techniques

A

1) Silence - is not the absence of communication, but a specific channel for transmitting / receiving messages.
2) Active Listening - carefully looking for both verbal and non-verbal cues to what is really meant.
3) Clarifying techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chpt 9

Types of communicatoin Q’s a nurse will use with a pt.

A

1) Open ended - encougage pts to share about experiences / perceptions
2) close ended - should use only during initial interviews to get specific details
3) Projective Q’s - “what if” (ie. #what if you had 3 wishes, what would they be”)
4) Presuppose - known as the “miricle Q” (ie. suppose you woke up today a millionaire and all your problems dissapeared. What would be diffent?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chpt 9

Nontherapeutic Communicaiton

A

1) excessive q’s
2) giving approval or disapproval
3) Why q’s — implies judgement or wrong doing
4) Giving advise — rarely helpful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hesi Practise

Reframing def

A

is a technique that teaches clients to monitor their negative thoughts and replace them with ones that are more positive.

ie. by reminding a pt. complaining of a painful procedure that he had the same one the day before, this helps them refocus thier thoughs (reframing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hesi Practise

Distraction def

A

focusing the clients attention on something other then what they are going through (ie. pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hesi Practise

Imagery def

A

uses mental imagaes to assist with relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hesi Practise

Progressive relaxation def

A

strategy in which muscles are alternately tensed and then relaxed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hesi Practise

Clarifying def

A

technique of restating a conversation with the pt.

helps examine the meaning of the pt. statement

helps the Rn in preventing making assumptions about a clients message

ie. what do you mean by…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hesi Practise

Offering Self

A

technique that allows the client to set the pace of a conversation. The RN is available, both physically and emotionally.

lets the client know you are there for them. helps build trust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hesi Practise

w/ depressed pts, what is the best assisstance a RN can give.

A

Exercise is the least expensive yet most available antidepressant on the market. Exersice increases neurotransmitters and endorphins, and decreases feelings of sadness.

W/ a depressed client…walk them around the unit. Don’t let them sit around all by themselves.

Socialize Socialize Socialize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hesi Practise

Regression def

A

resorting to an earlier, more comfortable level of functioning that is less demanding ahd has less responsibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hesi Practise

Confabulation def

A

is the filling of memory gaps with imaginary information in an attempt to distract others from observing an obvious deficit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hesi Practise

Herorin withdraw s/s

A

symptons of heroin w/d include

cravings

muscle aches / tremors

severe abdominal cramps

chills / sweating / runny nose / watery eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hesi Practise

Cocaine withdrawal s/s

A

symptoms of cocaine w/d include:

severe cravings

depression / fatigue / irritability

vivid / unpleasant dreams

insomnia or hypersominia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hesi Practise

Cannabis withdrawal s/s

A

symptoms of cannabis w/d include:

irritability / anxiety / restlessness

decreased appetite or wieght loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hesi Practise

Alcohol withdrawals s/s

A

early symptoms of alcohol w/d include:

irritability / anxiety

tremors

sweating

mild tachycradia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Goals of a therapeutic Relationship

A

To promote healthy coping and adaptation

help clients examine personal issues and explore and evaluate the degree of change over time

Assist patient with their emotional and physical needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the Major Theories (3) in practise today?

A

1) Psychoanalytic Theory

2) Client-Centered Theory By Carl Rogers (** This is the professors favorite)

3) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Psychoanalytic Theory

Psychoanalysis makes you examine your life, retell your life. You have to confront the parts of yourself that are painful.”

who developed the theory & what are the 3 concepts of Self

A
  • Originated by Sigmund Freud
  • Key Concepts:

–The “Self” has 3 distinct parts

  • Id (instincts; seek pleasure) - as a child does…I want at any cost
  • Ego (rational adult self) - we start to become self aware…If i do this / this will happen. Is is worth it?
  • Superego (internalized parents; conscience) - i.e a parent would say “if you do that…this will happen”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Client-Centered Theory

who developed theory & what is the main tool used

A

•Originated by Carl Rogers

•Key Concepts

–Unconditional Positive Regard: Is the main tool of the therapist

–Every person has the potential to become fully functioning, moving toward increased awareness of self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

•Client-Centered Interventions / qualities of the therapist

A

•Genuineness, Warmth, Empathy, Respect

–Active listening, Reflection of feelings, Clarification, Being truly present for the client

It’s not about me, it’s about the patient (Pt. centered)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some Clarifying techniques

A

paraphrasing - restating the pts. stmt. using dif words

Restating - mirroring their words

Reflecting - assisting the pts to better help them know their own thoughts

exploring - examining the situation to gain insight into important ideas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Therapeutic Use of Self

A

Involves learning to use your unique qualities in a genuine way to develop positive bonds with the client in order to help them grown & change

The nurse’s “self” is the “instrument” they use to deliver nursing care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the Johari Window

A

Key apsects

Open / Public - known to self and others

Hidden / Private - Known to Self but not Others

Blind / Unaware - known to Others but not Self

Unknown - Hidden from Self and Others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Sympathy

A

Sympathy

involves projecting yourself into your patient’s situation and imagining what you would feel in that circumstance.

—Associated with feelings of pity and commiseration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Empathy’s 2 step process

A

Step 1 Active Listening

Be fully present with the client—listen with all of your senses

Step 2 Empathic Responding

Communicate your understanding and acceptance of the patient by reflecting the patient’s feelings

—(“You feel X” or “You feel X because of Y.” )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who was the 1st pyschiatric nurse

A

Linda Richards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe the “Id” phase of Freuds system

A

“Id” operaties on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of impluses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the “ego” phase of Freuds system

A

The “ego” phase acts as a mediator of behavior and weighs the consequence of one’s action.

ie. Would be taking that toy, be worth getting in trouble?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the “superego” phase of Freuds system

A

The “superego” would oppose the impulsive behavior as “not nice”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Suicide def.

A

is the intentional act of killing oneself by any means.

hsty of attempts is best predictor of another attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Parasuicide def.

A

A voluntary, failed attempt to kill oneself

Frequently called attempted suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are two key feelings that are important predicters of future suicide attempts

A

Hopelessness / helplessness

severity of depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Theoretical foundations for understanding the suicidal client

A

Remember!

All behavior has meaning! All behavior, including suicidal behavior, represents an attempt to meet a need!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is Baumeister’s Escape Theory

A

it refers to the components of pts pyschi

  • intense self-hatred
  • intense desire to escape oneself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the “Existential” Theory refer to

A

the inability to find meaning in suffering often contributes to suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the “cognitive theory of suicide”

Becks Cognitive Triad

change, re-frame thoughts to curb depression.

A

Is a pt’s perspective about.

1) self
2) future
3) World

With a negative outlook in the center of all three views.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is

“Shneidman’s Cubic Model of Suicide”

A

It contains three factors:

Psyhchache - unbearable suffering of the mind

Press - Stressors that drive the person to suicide as a viable alternative

Perturbation - extream state of being upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the Assessment stages for the suicidal patient

A

Step 1: Set the Stage

Step 2:
Explore Suicidal Thoughts and Behaviors

Step 3: Evaluate Lethality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Suicidal assessment

Step 1: Set the Stage

A

Establish rapport!

Promote trust

Convey accepting, non-judgmental attitude

Facilitate a supportive, collaborative approach to exploring the client’s problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Suicidal Assessment

Step 2:
Explore Suicidal Thoughts and Behaviors

A

Facilitate expression of feelings

Convey empathy by reflecting feelings: (“It sounds like you’re feeling hopeless.”)

** Verbalize the implied: (“When you say there’s no point in going on, I have to wonder, are you feeling like you want to kill yourself?”)

Normalize the patient’s experience: (“A lot of people in your situation might start wondering if there’s any point in living anymore.”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the difference btwn “overt” statements vs. “Covert” statements

A

Overt - Life isn’t worth living anymore (they are direct statements)

Covert - You won’t have to bother with me much longer (hidden statements)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Watch for signs / clues that suggest suicidal intent

A

Giving away prized possessions

Putting affairs in order

Writing farewell notes

Buying a gun

Loss of interest in activities

Social withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ask the Q - be bold to a suicidal pt.

A

Have you ever wished you were dead (weren’t here)?

Have you ever thought about hurting or killing yourself?

Have you been feeling suicidal lately?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are some the demographic risk factors for suicidal pts.

A

ederly (w/terminal diagnoses)

younge adolesent white females

American Indians seem to have a higher rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Suicidal Assessment

Step 3: Evaluate Lethality

A

Lethality refers to the probability that a person will successfully complete suicide

Determined by the seriousness of the person’s intent and likelihood that the planned method of death will succeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are some ( 4 main )of the Lethality Assessment’s

A

How lethal is the proposed plan?

How accessible are the means?

What are the chances of rescue?

Is substance use a factor?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the SAD PERSONS Scale

A

Sex Age Depression

Previous attempts

Ethanol abuse (alcahol)

Rational thinking loss (especially psychosis)

Social supports lacking

Organized plan No spouse Sickness

Score of 7 out of 10 warrants hospitalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the Goals for Hospitalization of suicidal patients

A

Prevent harm

Re-establish equilibrium

Restore hope

Enhance coping skills

Develop an outpatient support system

Develop a suicide prevention plan for discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Always Observe for “Sudden Serenity” in suicidal patients - what does this mean

A

Distressed suicidal clients who suddenly become more peaceful and serene may have decided to kill themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the two most prevelent Depressive Disorders

A

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

Dysthymic Disorder (DD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the Diagnostic Criteria for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)

A

5 or more of the following symptoms for at least 2 weeks

  • Depressed Mood
  • feelings of guilt / worthlessness
  • Anhedonia ( loss of interest in activities)
  • Significant weight change
  • Insomnia
  • psychomotor agitation / retardation
  • Anergia (fatigue or loss of energy
  • Decreased concentration or indecisivness
  • Recurrent thoughts of suicide or death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Major Risk factors for Depression

A

Female / unmarried

low socioeconomic status

family hsty of depression

Alcohol / substance abuse

Post-partum

Negative life event - especially loss of loved one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is Dysthymic Disorder

A

2 or more of the following symptoms, along w/depressed mood are present most days over a 2 yr period of time

  • decreased appetite
  • insomnia or hypersomnia
  • decreased self esteem
  • feelings of helplessness or despair
  • low energy or chronic fatigue
  • Poor concentration and difficulty making decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are some of the theories regarding

depression

A

1) Neurobiological
2) Genetic Transmission
3) Diathesis-Stress Theory of Depression
4) Psychoanalytic Theory of Depression
5) Cognitive Theory of Depression
6) Learned Helplessness Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Explain the Diathesis-Stress

Theory of Depression

A

Individuals have a genetic predispostition (diathesis) for deprssion

This genetic vulnerability is activated by exposure to multiple stressors

Exposure to stressors early in life (abuse / death of parent prior to age 10) lead to lifelong risk for develpment of MDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the Learned Helpless Model

of depression

A

Person experiences stressful event preceived as uncontrollable.

extreme feelings of powerlessness, helplessness and apathy occur

loss of initiative and a feeling of futility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are some of the treatments for

depression

A

Psychotherapy

Pharmacotherapy

Electroconvulsive Therapy

Brain Stimulation

Exercise and Stress Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Name 4 Pharmacotherapies for

depression

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI’S)

St. John’s Wort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)

FACTS

A

1st line therapy for most types of depression

effective in 1 to 3 weeks

low lethality risk

Should not take w/other depression medications -MAOI’S (discontinure all SSRI’s for 2 - 5 weeks before starting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are some of the S/E of SSRI’s

mnemonic

A

BAD SSRI

  • increased body weight
  • anxiety
  • Dizziness

Serotonin Syndrome

Stimulation of the CNS

Reproductive issues / sexual dysfunction

insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Serotonin Syndrome is a potential toxic effect of SSRI’s - what are the signs

A

Rare - but life threatening - medical emergency

–Hyperactivity/restlessness

–Irrationality, mood swings, hostility

–Abdominal pain, diarrhea, bloating

–Elevated blood pressure

–Tachycardia / cardiovascular shock

–Fever / hyperpyrexia

–Confusion / delirium

–Myoclonus, incoordination, tonic rigidity

–Generalized seizures

–Apnea / death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

FACTS

A
  • Inhibit reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine by the presynaptic neurons
  • Full therapeutic response can take 4 to 8 weeks
  • Potentially lethal in overdose or in

combination with MAOI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI’S)

FACTS

A
  • Inhibit MAOI’s, the enzyme that inactivates norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine and tyramine
  • Avoid foods containing tyramine (generally aged, fermented and pickled foods) and other pressor agents
  • MAOIs should not be taken within 14 days of starting or discontinuing other antidepressant medications, including tricyclics, SSRIs, SNRIs and St. John’s Wort!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Foods that contain

Tyramine

A

generally aged, fermented and pickled foods

avocados (especially if aged)

figs / bananas ( if overipe)

fermented meats

cured fish / dryed fish

all cheeses

foods (or drinks) w/yeast – beer / wine etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

St. John’s Wort

FACTS

A
  • May be effective in mild to moderate depression
  • Should not be taken with other antidepressants or with tyramine-containing foods
  • Can decrease digoxin levels 28%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the three phases in treatment and recovery from major depression

A

1) acute phase
2) continuation phase
3) maintenance phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Describe the acute phase of major depression tx / recovery

A
  • 6 to 12 weeks
  • directed at reduction of depressive symptoms and restoration of psychsocial and work functions

Hospitalization may be initiated if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Describe the continuation phase of major depression tx / recovery

A
  • 4 to 9 months
  • directed at prevention of relapse through pharmacotherapy, education & psychtherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Describe the maintenance phase of major depression tx / recovery

A
  • 1 year or more

treatment is directed at prevention of further episodes of depression

medication may be phased out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Anhedonia def.

A

loss of ability to experience joy or pleasure in previously plearsurable activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does the “recovery model” emphasize

A

healing is possible and attainable for individuals with mental illness including depression.,

Thourgh partnership with nurse where treatment goals are mutually developed based upon the pt.s personal needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the PHQ - 9

A

Patient Health Questionaire - 9

0-4 none

5-9 mild

10-14 - moderate

15-19 moderately severe

20-27 servere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are “vegative signs” of depression

A

alterations in body processess necessary to support life and growth

  • eating
  • sleeping
  • elimination
  • sexual activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the four levels of

Anxiety

A

Mild Anxiety

Moderate Anxiety

Severe Anxiety

Panic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Mild Anxiety def.

A

Occures in normal everyday living and allows an individual to perceive reality in sharp forcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Moderate Anxiety def.

A

as anxiety increases, person experiencing moderate anxiety sees, hears & grasps less informtion

often demonstrate “selective inattention”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Severe Anxiety def.

A

perceptual field is greatly decreased. Person may be able to focus only on one detail or may have many scattered thoughts. Learning and problem solving not possible

Sense of impending doom

somatic symptoms include - headache, nausea, dizziness or insomnia

may have increased trembling / heart pounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Panic def.

A

is the most severe level of anxiety and results in markedly distrubed behavior.

Pt is unable to process what is going on & they may loss touch with reality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is Separtion Anxiety Disorder

A

normal part of infant development - begins around 8 months through 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

List some of the common “defense mechanisms” associated with anxiety

A

compensation - conversion - denial - displacement -

dissociation - indentification - projection - reaction -

regression - repression - splitting -

sublimation - suppression - undoing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The defense mechanism

compensation is def. as

A

used to change perceived deficiencies by emphaszing strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The defense mechanism

conversion is def. as

A

unconscious transformation of anxiety into a physical (somatic) symptom w/ no organic cuase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The defense mechanism

denial is def. as

A

involves escaping unpleasant anxiety causing thought & feelings by ignoring thier existence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The defense mechanism

displacement is def. as

A

transference of emotions associated w/ a particular person / place or thing with another object that is not threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The defense mechanism

Dissociation is def. as

A

is a disruption in consciousness, memory, identity that results in compartmentalizing unpleasant aspects of oneself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The defense mechanism

identification is def. as

A

when you relate yourself to someone else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The defense mechanism

projection is def. as

A

refers to unconscious rejection of unacceptable behaviors and placing them onto someone else.

is the hallmark of blaming, scapegoating, prejudicial thinking, and stigmatizing others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

The defense mechanism

Sublimation is def. as

A

replacing an unacceptable behavior with one socially acceptable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is Agoraphobia

A

intense, excessive anxiety or fear about being in places or situation from which escape might be difficult.

Pt. will avoid these in an effort to control anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Obsessive-complusive disorder is def. as

A

group of related disorders that all have obsessiv-complusive characteristics.

it exist along a continuum between obsessive-complusive behaviors — to the pathological end which is obsessive-complusive disorders, which obstruct thier very way of living.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Obsessions are def. as

A

thoughts, implulses, or images that persist and recur, so that they cannot be dismissed from ones mind.

those experiencing these are often aware that these obsessions are senseless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Compulsions are def. as

A

ritualistic behavirors (washing hands) that an individual feels driven to perform in an attempt to reduce anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The Hamilton Rating Scale for Anxiety is on a scale

0 - none

1 - mild

2 - moderate

3 - disabling

4 - severely disabling

** What are the scoring ranges?

A

14-17 - mild anxiety

18-24 - moderate anxiety

25-30 - severe anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is “cognitive restructuring”

A

refers to allowing the pt. (w/ your help) to test their automatic responses and then refocus / redraw them with more rational conclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is desesitization

A

involves gradual exposure to a feared object to redirect associated fear of it.

a behavioral therapy modality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is “flooding”

A

exposes the pt. to a large amount of an undesirable stimulus in an effort to extinguish the anxiety response.

a behavioral therapy modality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The defense mechanism

Splitting is def. as

A

is the inability to integrate the positive and negative qualities of oneself or others into a cohesive image.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is “Altruism”

A

is a mechanism by which an individual deals with emotional conflict by meeting the needs of others and receiving gratification vicariously or from the responses of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The defense mechanism

Intellectualization is def. as

A

is a process in which events are analyzed based upon remote, cold facts w/o passion — rather than incorporating feelings / emotions into the process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The defense mechanism

Reaction formation is def. as

A

unconscious mechanism that keeps unacceptable feelings out of awarness by expressing the opposite behavior

ie. instead of ‘hating’ a rival, you would say you

admire them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The defense mechanism

Rationalization is def. as

A

involves uncounsciously making excuses for one’s behavior, idadequacies, or feelings by blaming others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the Fraud’s psychosexual development stages

A

Oral - age birth to 1 (thumb sucking)

Anal - age 1 - 3 (refusiing to use bathroom)

Phallic - age 3 - 5

Genital - age 13 - 20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Describe Milieu therapy

A

based upon the idea that all members of the environment contribute to the planning and functioning of the setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the def. of schema

A

Schemas are unique assumptions about ourselves, according to Beck’s theory

a negative schema is an emotional consequence with the end result of negative thinking process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the def. of somatization

A

is the expression of psychological stress through physical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the def. of “holistic approach” for

nursing

A

nursing care that addresses the multidimensional interplay of biological, psychological and sociocultural needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

List the five most common somatic disorders according to the American Psychiatric Association

A

1) Somatic symtpom disorder
2) Illness anxiety disorder (aka hypochondriais)
3) Coversion disorders (aka neurological disorders)
4) Pshychological factors affecting medical condition
5) Factitious disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is Somatic symtpom disorder

A

characterized by a combination of distressing symptoms and an excessive or maladaptive response w/o significant physical findings or diagnoses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the most common symptoms with Somatic symptom disorder

A

chest pain / fatigue / dizziness / headache

swelling / back pain / SOB / insomnia

abdominal pain / numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is Illness Anxiety Disorder

aka hypochondriasis

A

results in a misinterpretation of physical sensations as evidence of a serious illness

even normal bodily changes, such as a change in HR can be seen as red flags for serious illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is conversion disorder

aka functional nurological disorder

A

manifest itself as nerological symptoms in the absence of neurological diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are some of the symptoms of Conversion disorders

A

paralysis / blindness / movement disorders

gait disorders / numbness / paresthesia (tingling or burning sensation)

loss of vision, hearing or even symptoms resembling epilepsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

List some (2) of the psychological factors affecting medical conditions

A

Major Depression disorder (MDD) & coronary heart disease

Stress & cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are “secondary gains”

A

those benifits derived from the symptoms alone

eg. in the sick role, a pts. are unable to perform usual household duties.

If a pt. derives benefits from the percieived symptoms, it will be very dificult to give them up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is factitious disorder

aka Munchausen’s syndrome

A

unlike other somatic disorders…factitious disorders are consciously under the pts. control.

They fake ilness to get sympathy or some other benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What does factitous disorder imposed on another mean

aka Munchausen by proxy

A

it is when a caregiver deliberately fakes a pts. illness for their own benefits.

money from insurance - admiration from clinet or other staff etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Def. Malingering

A

consciously motivated to deceive based upon the desire for gain

(money or getting out of someting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is “la belle indifference”

A

When a pt. experiencing a somatic conversion disorders appears to be unconcerned about the symptom

eg. A woman suddenly finds she cannot see. She seems unconcerned about her symptom and tells her husband, “Don’t worry, dear. Things will all work out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is congitive behavioral therapy?

A

A therapy technique that attempts to change a patient’s thought processes and behaviors through problem-solving and conscious evaluation of beliefs about the self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Nursing Interventions for GAD

A
  • Identify source of anxiety
  • Link pt’s behavior to feelings
  • Introduce logic
  • Teach coping skills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Antidepressants (SSRIs) are the 1st line of defense in most anxiety & OCD related disorders.

The FDA has approved some SNRIs & TCAs for use with anxiety & OCD related disorders.

A

SSRIs:

  • Lexapro (Escitalpram) for GAD
  • Prozac (Fluoxetine) for OCD & Panic Disorder
  • Luvox (Fluvoxamine) for OCD & SAD
  • Paxil (Paroxetine) for GAD, OCD, PD, & SAD
  • Zolfort (Sertraline) for OCD, PD & SAD
  • Viibryd (Vilazondone) for GAD

SNRIs:

  • Cymbalta (Duloxetine) for GAD
  • Effexor (Venlafaxine) for GAD, PD & SAD

TCAs:

  • Anafranil (Clomipramine) for OCD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Antianxiety agents (Benzodiazepines) are often used to treat somatic & psychological symptoms of anxiety disorder

A

Benzodiazepines

  • quick onset of action; used for acute treatment (prn)
  • may be addictive; limit use to 2 - 3 wks
  • monitor for sedation, ataxia & decreased cognition
  • contraindicated in pregnancy
  • absorption delayed by antacids
  • i.e. Xanax (Alprazolam), Klonopin (Clonazepam), Valium (Diazepam), Ativan (Lorazapam)

Exception: Buspar (Buspirone) is long acting, not addictive; not for prn use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What neurochemicals regulate anxiety?

A

1) Epinephrine
2) Norepinephrine
3) Dopamine
4) Serotonin
5) GABA

GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter & thus the focus of pharmacological therapy for anxiety symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Schizophrenia def.

A

The most severe form of Schizphenia Spectrum

It is a potentially devastating brain disorder that affects a person’s thinking, language, emotions, social behavior, and ability to perceive reality accurately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is Schizophenia Spectrum?

A

It, and other psychotic disorders are those that distrub the fundamental ability to deteremine what is real or what is not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

All people who have Schizophrenia, have at least one of the following psychotic symptoms

A

hallucinatioins

delusions

and / or disorganized speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the epidemiology of Schizophrenia

(when does it normally occur)

A

usually presents in late teens / early twenties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is early on-set Schizophrenia

A

(18 to 25) occurs more often in males

associated w/poor functioning before onset & more structural brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is later on-set Schizophrenia

A

(25 to 35) more likely to be female

less structural brain damage

better outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are some of the comorbidities associated w/ Schizophrenia

A

1) Substance abuse disorders - nearly 50% (sucide)
2) Nicotine dependence 70% - 90%
3) Anxiety, depression
4) Physical Health Illnesses

5) Polydipsia - can lead to fatal water intoxication (20% have insatiable thirst) may be due to medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the etiology of Schizophrenia

A

scientific consesus is that Schizophrenia occurs due to multiple inherited genetic abnormalities combined with nongenetic factors.

called the diathesis-stress model of Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are some of the genetic factors for Schizophrenia

A

Increased levels of dopamine (1st generations treat)

Increased levels of serotonin (2nd generation meds treat)

glutamate - which is a major neurotransmitter during neuronmaturation

Brain Structure Abnormalities - reduced volume of “grey matter” (temporal / frontal lobes) — more hallucinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are some of the psychological / environmental

factors associated w/ Schizophrenia

A

1) prenatal stressors (poor nutrition & hypoxia)
2) psychological stressors (stress w/ incr cortisol level which imped hypothalamic development)
3) environmental stressors (toxins, ie. solvent tetrochoroethylene in dry cleaning)

all increase chances w/ those vulnerable to Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the Phases of Schizophrenia

A

Phase I - Acute

Phase II - Stabilization

Phase III - Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Def. Phase I - Schizophrenia

A

Acute

onset or exacerbation of distruptive symptoms (ie. hallucinations, delusions, apathy w/draw)

w/ loss of functional abilities - increased care or hospitalization may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Def. Phase II - Schizophrenia

A

Stabilization

symptoms are diminishing, and there is movement towards one’s previous level of functioning (baseline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Def. Phase III - Schizophrenia

A

Maintenence

pt. is at or near baseline functioning

symptoms are absent or significantly decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are the 4 main symptom groups of Schizophrenia

A

Positive symptoms

Negative symptoms

Affective Symptoms

Congnitive Symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are postive symptoms of Schizophrenia

associated w/acute onset

A

The presence of something that is not normally present

hallucinations

delusions

disorganized speech

bizarre behavior

will generally respond to medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are negative symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

absence of something that should be present

  • Poverty of thought (interest in hygiene)
  • Avolition (loss of motivation / energy or drive)
  • Blunted affect (minimal emotional response)
  • Alogia (poverty of speech)
  • Anhedonia (loss of joy in something previously enjoyed)
  • Anergia (lack of energy)

more presistent / crippling b/c they reduce motivation & limit social & vocational success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are cogntitive symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

often subtle changes in memory, behavior, attention or thinking

ie. impaired executive functioning (ability to set priorities or make decisions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are affective symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

symptoms involving emotions and their expression

dysphoria (dissatisfaction w/ life)

suicidality

hopelessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Positive symptoms are broken down into

what four categories

A

alterations in

1) thought
2) speech
3) perception &
4) behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Delusions are def. as

A

false fixed beliefs that cannot be corrected by reasoning. Pt will agree w/ RN about facts but disagree w/ interpretation.

75% of those w/ schizophrenia experience these

persecutory

gradiose or

those involving religious or hypochondriacal ideas

ex. I think; I believe; I interpret; My opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is “concrete thinking

A

refers to the impaired ability to think abstractly

ie. When you ask a pt. what brought them to the hospital — they would say “ a cab”

Concreteness reduces one’s ability to understand and address abstract concepts such as love or the passage of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is “clang association

A

choosing words based on their sound rather then their meaning

ie. rhyming “on the track… have a Big Mac”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is “word salad” (schizohasia)

A

jumbled words that are meaningless to the listener and possible to the speaker

ie. “red chair out town board”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What are Neologisms?

A

made-up words that have meaning to the pt. but a different or nonexistent meaning to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are Echolalia

A

pathological repeating of anothers words

ie. Nurse…Mary, come get your medication

Mary…come get your medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is Depersonalizaiton

A

feeling that one is somehow different or unreal or has lost his / her identity

may feel body parts don’t belong to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is Derealization

A

a false perception that the environment has changed - surroundings seem strange and unfamilar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Hallucinations vs. Illusions

both are perceptions

A

Hallucinations involve perceiving a sensory experience for which no external stimulus exist

Illusions are misperceptions or misinterpretations of a real experience (external stimulus); a false belief about a perception

ie. pts see the coat rack, but believes it is a bear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the types of hallucinations

experienced by 60% of pts. with Schizophrenia

A

Auditory: hearing voices or sounds

Visual: seeing persons or things

Olfactory: smelling odors

Gustatory: experiencing taste

Tactile: feeling bodily sensations

ex. I see; I hear; I taste; I smell; I feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the worst types of hallucinations

A

Command hallucinations

those that direct pts to take action. voices may command the pt. to hurt themselves or others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is “Catatonia

A

pronounced decrease in the rate and amount of movement

Generally pts. may move little if at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is Echopraxia

A

mimicking the movements of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is Anosognosia

A

inability to realize they are ill (caused by the illness itself)

The resulting lack of insight can make assessment / treatment challenging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What does the “recovery model” stress

A

stresses hope, living a full and productive life, and eventually recovery rather than focusing on controlling symptoms and adapting to the disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is the overall goal for the acute phase

A

patient safety and stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What goals does phase II (stabilization) focus on

A

helping the pt understand the illness and treatment, become stabilized on medications, and be able to control or cope with symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What goals does phase III (maintenance) focus on

A

adhering to medication, preventing relapse, and achieving independence and a satisfactory quality of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is “waxy flexiblity

A

the ability to hold distorted postures for extended periods of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are the prodromal signs of schizophrenia

A

they are the initial signs indicating that a pt. might be leading toward a schizophrenic break

Withdrawal

misinterpreting

poor concentration

preoccupation with religion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is associative looseness

A

refers to jumbled thoughts inchoherently expressed to the listener.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What are some of the signs of a potential relapse in schizophrenia

A

feeling tense

difficultly concentrating

trouble sleeping

increased w/drawal

increased bizarre or magical thinking

Relapse can occur even w/ medication compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Delusions may be bizarre or non-bizarre

A

Bizarre type are unreal and impossible beliefs

i. e. Pt believes body organs replaced in absence of scars
i. e. Pt believes they are another animal (not human)

185
Q

Non-bizarre types of delusions

A
  • Delusions of control
  • Ideas of reference
  • Persecution
  • Grandeur
  • Somatic
  • Erotomanic
  • Jealousy
186
Q

Def. of control delusions

A

Believing that another person, group of people, or external force controls thoughts, feelings, impulses, or behavior

i.e. Pt covers his apartment walls w/ aluminum foil to block government efforts to control his thoughts

187
Q

Def. of ideas of reference

A

Giving personal significance to unrealated or trivial events; perceiving events as relating to you when they are not

i.e. Pt believes that birds sing when she walks down the street just for her.

188
Q

Def. of persecution delusions

A

Believing that one is being singled out for harm by others; this belief often takes the form of a plot by people in power.

i.e. Pt believes the Secret Service was planning to kill him by poisoning his food; therefore, he would eat only prepackaged food.

189
Q

Def. of grandeur delusions

A

Believing that one is a very powerful or important person

i.e. Pt believed he was a famous playwright and tennis pro

190
Q

Def. of somatic delusions

A

Believing that the body is changing in unusual ways (i.e. rotting inside)

i.e. Pt said his heart had stopped and was rotting away.

191
Q

Def. of erotomanic delusions

A

Believing that another person desires you romantically.

i.e. Although he barely knew her, Patti insisted that Eric would marry her if only his current wife would stop interfering.

192
Q

Def. of jealousy delusions

A

Believing that one’s mate is unfaithful

i.e. Pt wrongly accused her spouse of going out w other women. Her proof was that he twice came home from work late (even though his boss explained that everyone had worked late).

193
Q

Hierarchy of needs for psychosis intervention

A

Priorities will change depending on the situation and context (use critical thinking)

  • Physical integrity
  • Establishing trust
  • Preventing inappropriate behavior
  • Treating symptoms: hallucinations/delusions
  • Enhancing compliance w/ treatment
  • Reinforcing reality
194
Q

The Bipolar Spectrum

A

Bipolar disorder mood cycling:

Mania

Hypomania

Normal mood

Mild depression

Major depression

195
Q

Manic episode

mnemonic

A

MANIC EPISODE

Mood swings

Active, agressive behavior

Nothing is wrong (denial)

Impulsive, intrusive behavior

Can’t sit still, can’t stop talk

Euphoric mood

Poor judgement, provocative behavior

Increased sexual interest

Substance (stimulant) abuse

Omnipotent feelings

Decreased need for sleep

Endless energy

196
Q

Bipolar disorder medications

A

Lithium (used for mood stabilization)

Anticonvulsants (used for mood stabilizaiton)

  • Depakote (valproate)
  • Tegretol (carbamazepine)
  • Lamictal (lamotrigine)

Antipsychotics (used for acute manic phase)

  • Seroquel (quetiapine)
  • Zyprexa (olanzapine)
  • Geodon (ziprasidone)
  • Ambilify (aripiprazole)
  • Risperdal (resperidone)
  • Haldol (haloperidol)
197
Q

Rapid stabilization of the manic pt

A

Antipsychotics & benzodiazapines

Typical “cocktail” given in psych ER:

Haldol 5 - 10 mg w/ Avtivan 2 mg

198
Q

Antidepressants and Mania

A

Use very cautiously w/ bipolar pts

All antidepressants induce mania in bipolar pts

If pt is bipolar, antidepressants should always be used in conjuction w/ a mood stabilizer.

199
Q

What are the 3 types of

bipolar disorder

A

Bipolar I

Bipolar II

Cyclothymic disorder

200
Q

Bipolar I disorder is def. as

A

mood disorder that is characterized by at least one-week long manic episode that results in excessive activity and energy

201
Q

The presence of three of the following behaviors constitues mania:

A

Extreme drive & energy

Inflated sence of self-importance

Drastically reduced sleep requirements

Excessive talking combined w/ pressured speech

Personal feeling of racing thoughts

Distraction by environmental events

Unusually obsessed with and overfocused on goals

Purposeless arousal and movement

Dangerous activities (ie. indiscriminate spending, reckless sexual encounters, or risky investments)

202
Q

Bipolar II disorder is def. as

A

low-level mania alternated with profound depression

this is called hypomania…unlike mania, psychosis is generally never present.

203
Q

Cyclothymic disorder is def. as

A

symptoms of hypomania alternate with symptoms of mild to moderate depression for at least two years in adults & one year in children.

204
Q

What are the 3 phases associated with bipolar disorders

A

Acute Phase

Continuation Phase

Maintenence Phase

205
Q

What is the primary outcome in the acute phase of bipolar disorders

A

The primary goal is

injury prevention

outcomes in the acute phase reflect both physiological and psychiatric issues

206
Q

the primary outcome in the continuation phase of bipolar disorders is:

A

can last for 4 - 9 months

overall outcome is relapse prevention, but consist of

Psycheducational classes for the pt. & family to:

a) understand the disease process

b) medication knowledge

c) knowledge of the early warning signs of replapse

207
Q

the primary outcome in the maintenence phase of bipolar disorder is:

A

continuing to focus of relapse prevention & limiting the severity and duration of future episodes.

208
Q

What is paranoia?

A

An unrealistic fear of harm

209
Q

What neurotransmitter is targeted by traditional antipsychotics?

A

Dopamine

Traditional antipsychotics block excessive dopamine, an excitatory neurotransmitter, so that symptoms r/t psychosis are reduced.

210
Q

What medication is used to provide immediate relief to a pt. experiencing a dystonic reaction?

Dystonic reactions are emergencies & require intervention (can be caused by antipsychotics)

A

Diphendhydramine (Benadryl) IM or IV

or

Benztropine (Cogentin) IM or IV

IV response is 5 mins; IM response is 15 - 20 mins

Other anticholingerics may be used

211
Q

What are common side effects of Haldol (Haloperidol)?

A
  • Sedation
  • Muscle stiffness
  • Akathisia
  • alters effectiveness of exogenous insulin

Antipsychotics often produce sedation & EPS effects (i.e. stiffness, gait disturbance). The pt might describe the medication as making them feel like a “robot”.

212
Q

Personality disorders characteristic’s

defined

A

Pts with personailty disorders are inflexible & deomonstrate maladaptive responses to stress

  • they are unable to develop true intimacy with others
  • unable to develop trusting relationships.

“Impaired soical interaction”

213
Q

What are the 10 Personality disorders according to the American Psychiatric Association (APA)

A

1) Avoidant 2) Antisocial
3) Borderline 4) Dependent
5) Histrionic 6) Narsicistic
7) Paranoid 8) Obsessive-complusive
9) Shizioid 10) Schizotypical

214
Q

Paranoid personality disorder

A

characterized by a longstanding distrust & suspiciousness of others based on the belief (unsupported by evidence) that others want to exploit, harm, or deceive them.

  • difficult to treat b/c they distrust everyone
  • have a need for space & reassurance
  • are hypervigilant

Projection is the dominant defense mechanism; they blame others for their shortcomings.

215
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

exhibits a poor ability to function in their lives…Relationships are particularly affected due to their prominent feature of emotional detachment.

need for soical isolation

Individuals do not seek out or enjoy close relationships. They are reclusive, avoidant, and uncooperative. They do not do well with resocialization.

216
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

more common in men then women.

It is the 1st of the schizophrenia spectrum.

severe social and interpersonal deficits.

These individuals experience extreme anxiety in social settings & conversations tend to ramble w/ lengthy, unclear & overly detailed content.

eccentricity, odd or unusual beliefs (magical thinking)

prefer periods of solitude

217
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

characterized by emotinal attention-seeking behaviors & melodramatic, including self-centeredness, low frustration tolerance, & excessive emotionality

demonstrates poor verbal boundaries

  • In general, those with this disorder do not believe they need psychiatric help.
  • flirtatious - overly intense attachment w/ the opposite sex; provocative.
  • Psychotherapy is the txmt of choice.
218
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

comes across as arrogant & w/ an inflated view of thier own self-importance (grandiose self-importance).

needs constant admiration

lack of empathy for others

pathological traits include: antagonism, represented by grandiosity and attention-seeking behaviors.

txmt includes cognitive-behavioral therapy, family & group therapy.

219
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

main traits are low self-esteem associated w/ feelings of inferiority compared to peers.

timid, socially uncomfortable

they tend to avoid engaging in new or unfamilar activities involving new people d/t fear of criticism or rejection

220
Q

Dependent personality disorder

A

people with this disorder have a high need to be taken care of, which can lead to patterns of submissiveness with fears of separation & abandonment by others.

urgently seek relationships

have a constant need for reassurance

lack self-confidence

Psychotherapy is the txmt of choice

221
Q

Obsessive-Complusive personality disorder

A

the most prevalent disorder in the general community - associated w/ the highest burden of medical cost.

main traits include: rigidity & inflexible standards of self & others — along with persistence of goals long after they are necessary.

They will typically rehearse over & over for situations where they will deal with others.

perfectionists (interferes w/ task completion)

SSRI’s & prozac may help.

222
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

has the central characteristic of instability in affect, identity, & relationships

desperately seek relationships to avoid feeling abandoned, but often drive others away with excessive demands, impulsive behavior, or uncontrolled anger.

chronic feelings of emptiness

assess for suicidal & self-mutilating behaviors, especially during times of stress…Risk for self-directed violence.

teach pt to identify triggers & positive coping

The frequent use of the defense of splitting strains personal relationships & creates turmoil in health care settings.

223
Q

Anti-social personatily disorder

A

most studied & researched personality disorder

  • concerned with personal pleasure & power; does not conform to social norms

- characterized by decietfulness, impulsiveness, aggressiveness, disregard for others, lack of remorse, & manipulation.

usually presents w/ depression or because of the consequences of their behaviors, not because they care about the effects of their actions on others

Txmt w/one caregiver is preferred to avoid having the manipulative nature play one staff against another.

224
Q

What is Splitting

A

involves loving a person, then hating the person b/c the pt. is unable to recognize that an individual can have both positive and negative qualities.

black & white thinking

defense mechanism often used with BPD

225
Q

What is the MOST EFFECTIVE intervention for hallucinaitons?

A

Medications

RN-patient relationship

Reduce environmental stimuli

Increase internal stimuli (exercise) - tell the hallucinations to go away…listen to my voice or music

226
Q

Characteristics of psychotic thinking

A
  • Limited ability to focus when lots of things are happening
  • Concrete thought
  • black/white thinking
  • right/wrong judgments
  • relationship w/ objects
  • ambiguous boundaries btwn reality & fantasy
  • ambiguous boundaries btwn self & others
227
Q

What is the HIGHEST PRIORITY intervention for delusional thinking?

A
  • Reinforce reality for the pt.
  • Establish a relationship or milieu that promotes trust
  • Give meds on time (do not be late w/ prescribed meds)
228
Q

Psychosis key points

A
  • psychosis is frightening to the pt - provide safety
  • use kindness & respect
  • pts experiencing psychosis NEED an anchor to reality
229
Q

Delusion vs. Illusion

A

A delusion (false belief) does not change w/ the use of logic.

An illusion (false belief about a perception) can often change once a person is given evidence that the belief is not true.

230
Q

Hallucinations are def as

A

Perceptions involving the senses (sight, sound, odor, taste or feeling on the skin)

The body’s ability to detect things in the environment that are not detected by others.

231
Q

Illusion is def as

A

A false belief about a perception

Based on a real perception (sight, sound, taste or feeling) that is misinterpreted

ex. the person actually sees something but believes they see something else

232
Q

Which medication is the drug of choice for safe alcohol w/drawals

A

Benxodiazepines

233
Q

Which medicaton is used in the treatment of both alcohol and opiod addiction

A

Naltrexone (ReVia) - it is an opiod antagonist that blocks the action of opiods & reduces alcohol cravings.

234
Q

What are the Cluster “A” personality disorders?

Cluster “A” = odd or eccentric

A
  • Paranoid
  • Schizoid
  • Schizotypal
235
Q

What are the Cluster “B” personality disorders?

Cluster “B” = dramatic, emotional, erratic

A
  • Antisocial
  • Borderline
  • Histrionic
  • Narcissistic
236
Q

What are the Cluster “C” personality disorders?

Cluster “C” = anxious, fearful

A
  • Avoidant
  • Dependent
  • Obsessive-Compulsive
237
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

side effects mnemonic

A

TCAS

Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

Cardiac (arrythmia, MI, stroke)

Anticholinergic effects (tachycardia, urinary retention dry mouth, etc)

Seizures

238
Q

SSRI side effects mnemonic

A

BAD SSRI

Body wieght increase Seritonin Syndrome

Anxiety Stimulation of the CNS

Dizziness Reproductive dysfuntion

Insomnia

239
Q

MAOI side effects mnemonic

A

HAHA

Hypotension, orthostatic

Anticholinergic effects

Hypertensive crisis (avoid tyramine foods)

Anxiety, agitation, anorexia

240
Q

SNRI side effects mnemonic

A

BAD SNRI

Body wieght increase Suicidal thoughts

Anxiety Nausea / vomiting

Dizziness Reproductive dysfuntion

Insomnia

241
Q

Types of Antidepressants

A
  • SSRIs
  • SNRIs
  • TCAs
  • MAIOs
242
Q

Common SSRIs

A

Citalopram (Celexa)

Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Paroxetine (Paxil)

Sertraline (Zoloft)

243
Q

Common SNRIs

A

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

244
Q

Common MAOIs

A

Phenelizine (Nardil)

Isocaroxzid (Marplan)

Tranylcyproine (Parnate)

245
Q

Common TCAs

A

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

Clomipramine (Anafranil) - risk for glacoma

Imipramine (Tofranil)

246
Q

SSRI info

A

First-line approach for trmt of depression

Increases Serotonin levels in brain

Uses: Major Depressive Disorder, anxiety disorders, panic disorders & OCD

Mood responds gradually (over 2 wks)

Do NOT STOP taking ABRUPTLY

247
Q

SNRI info

A

Increases Serotonin & Norepinephrine levels in brain

Treats both chronic neuropathic pain & depression

248
Q

TCA info

A

Boosts Norepinephrine

Uses: adjunctive therapy to treat chronic neuropathic pain & anxiety disorders; used only when other antidepressants fail or need to be boosted

SEs much more bothersome than SSRI class; results in nonadherence

Effects are slow to work

Do NOT stop taking abruptly

249
Q

MAOI info

A

Rarely used d/t danger they present when combined w/ certain pharmaceuticals & foods

Uses: _Atypical depressio_n (oversleeping & overeating); adjunctive med for anxiety disorders & bulemia

Monitor BP

AVOID tyramine, alcohol, & yeast

Do NOT take w/ oral decongestant

Dietary & med restrictions to stay in place 2 wks after MAIO stopped

250
Q

Serotonin Syndrome

A

Toxicity resulting from SSRI use w/ other meds that increases serotonin

Manifestions: HARM

Hyperthermia

Autonomic instability (delirium)

Rigidity

Myoclonus

  • Be alert for sweating & diarrhea
  • Late sign is apnea & death
251
Q

Serotonin Syndrome interventions

A

Stop SSRI

Administer serotonin-receptor blocker

Cooling blankets or meds to reduce fever

Benzodiazepines for seizures & muscle rigidity

Anticonvulsants for seizures

Ventillation support for apnea

252
Q

TCA overdose

A

TCA toxicity / overdose can be fatal

Signs associated w/ toxicity:

  • altered LOC / delirium
  • arrhythmias: VTach, VFib, prolonged QRS, QT & PR intervals
  • vomiting
  • fever
  • coma
  • hypoventilation from CNS depression
253
Q

Tyramine containing foods

A

Aged & fermented foods:

  • All hard cheese (use caution w/ Italian & Mexican foods)
  • pickled or smoked meats
  • olives, pickles, sauerkraut
  • soy sauce (avoid Asian foods)
  • ripe alvocados
254
Q

MAOI toxicity

A

Toxicity can occur when MAOIs are combined w/ certain foods & medications resulting in Hypertensive Crisis & death

MAOIs prevent the break down of tyramine & certain meds; results in significant vasoconstriction

255
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

A

“Other” antidepressant

Boosts Norepinephrine & Dopamine

Only antipressant w/out unpleasant sexual SEs

Lowers seizure threshold

Not very effective w/ anxiety or pain

Effective in treating nicotine addiction & ADHD

256
Q

Anxiolytic info

A

2 types: Benzodiazipines & Non-benzodiazipines

Benzodiazepines:

  • target GABA
  • uses: sedative effect for anxiety; anticonvulsant effect for seizures (Klonopin); prevention of seizures induced by alcohol w/drawal (Librium)
  • lead to physical & psychological dependence
  • short term use only (1-2 wks)
  • do NOT discontinue abruptly
  • when combined w/ alcohol can result in overdose & death by respiratory suppression
257
Q

Common Anxiolytics

A

Benzodiazapines:

  • Aloprazolam (Xanax)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)
  • Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) - use for severe DTs
  • Diazepam (Valium)
  • Clonazepam (Klonopin) - effective anticonvulsant

Non-benzodiazapines:

  • Buspirone (BuSpar)
258
Q

Buspirone (BuSpar)

A

Does not result in tolerace or addicition

Targets Serotonin & Dopamine

Does not have rapid onset of action

Takes up to 2 wks to be effective

Must be taken daily; not for PRN use

AVOID drinking grapefruit juice

259
Q

Acute Lithium Toxicity symptoms

mnemonic

A

CAN HAM SUCS

Confusion

An increase of urine & thirst

Nausea

Hand tremors (coarse)

Ataxia (uncoordinated arm & leg movements)

Muscle twitches

Seizures

Uncontrollable eye movements

Coma

Slurred speech

260
Q

3rd generation Atypical antipsychotics

A
  • effective against both positive & negative symptoms of schizophrenia
  • block dopamine & serotonin
  • causes little / no weight gain
  • causes no increase in glucose, cholesterol, or triglycerides

Good choice for pts w/ obesity &/or heart disease

Ex. Abilify (Aripiprazole)

261
Q

2nd generation Atypical antipsychotics

A
  • targets both positive & negative symptoms of schizophrenia
  • block dopamine & serotonin
  • high incidence of significant weight gain, diabetes, & hyperlipidemia w/ use
  • low incidence of tardive dyskinesia
  • produces drowsiness (sedates w/o causing confusion; can use for severe anxiety instead of benzodiazapines)
  • may cause constipation

Ex. Latuda (Lurasidone); Zyperxa (Olanzapine)

262
Q

Lithium info

A
  • Lithium is a salt; regulated by body like sodium
  • Be very alert for SUDDEN DROPS in sodium
  • Lowering of dietary sodium intake, use of diuretics, excessive sweating or vomiting can have drastic effect on lithium; if Sodium goes DOWN, Lithium goes UP
  • Narrow therapeutic index (0.6 - 1.2)
  • 3 wks to reach therapeutic level; not for quick control of mania
  • Teach strict adherence to dosing regimen
  • Fluid intake 1-2qt/day & maintain normal salt intake
263
Q

Antimania meds (mood stabilizers)

A

Lithium

Anticonvulsants: treat/prevent mood episodes in Bipolar by slowing neuron firing & mood cycling

  • Valproate / Valproic acid (Depakote)
  • Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
  • Lamotrigine (Lamictal) - risk of SJS (severe rash)
  • Clonazepam (Klonopin) - anxiolytic/benzodiazepine effective for seizures

Depakote & Tegretol require blood levels to be monitored for therapeutic effect; periodic monitoring of liver enzymes & CBC

264
Q

Medications for treatment of Alcohol Abuse

A

Naltrexone hydrochloride (ReVia, Vivitrol)

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

  • causes unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed; negative reinforcer
  • AVOID foods/products containing alcohol (cough syrup, mouthwash, cooking wine)
  • extremely poor compliance; does not reduce alcohol cravings

Acamprosate (Campral)

  • eliminated thru kidneys; pts w/ kidney disease at risk for adverse rxns
  • eases discomfort of w/drawal & prevents cravings
  • stimulates GABA
265
Q

Common Typical (1st generation) Antipsychotics

A

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

Fluphenazine (Prolixin)

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Haloperidol (Haldol)

266
Q

Common Atypical (2nd & 3rd generation) Antipsychotics

A

Aripiprazole (Abilify)

Clozapine** (Clozaril)** - risk of Agranulocytosis

Lurasidone (Latuda)

Olanzapine (Zyprexa) - significant wt gain

Quentiapine (Seroquel)

Risperidone** (Risperdal)**

Ziprasi_done_ (Geodon) - prolonged QT interval

267
Q

Typical (1st generation) Antipsychotic info

A

Reduce positive symptoms of psychosis

Blocks Dopamine

Uses: quick hallucination remission (delusions take longer to respond); out-of-control aggression; acute manic episodes

Safe, highly effective, very affordable

Poor compliance d/t bothersome SEs (i.e. EPS)

268
Q

Extrapyridamidal Side Effects (EPS)

A

movement disorders resulting from effects of antipsychotics on extrapyramidal motor system (primarily Typcial antipsychotics)

4 types of EPS reactions:

  • acute dystonia
  • pseudo-parkinsonism
  • akathisia*
  • tardive dyskinesia

*most common EPS

269
Q

Acute Dystonia

A

EPS rxn characterized by severe spasm of muscles of tongue, face, neck, or back

Torticollis (head turned & arched) & oculogyric crisis (upward deviation of eyes) occurs

rxn develops w/in 1st few wks of drug therapy; possibily w/in hrs of 1st dose

Requires rapid intervention if intense rxn

Anticholinergics used for initial trmt

270
Q

Psuedo-Parkinsonism

A

Mild EPS rxn characterized by bradykinesia, mask-like facies, drooling, tremor, rigidity, shuffling gait, cog wheeling, & stooped posture

Rxn develops w/in 1st month of drug therapy

Treat w/ central acting anticholinergics (i.e. benztropine (Cogentin), diphenhydramine)

Must AVOID use of Levadopa (promotes activation of dopamine; will induce psychosis)

271
Q

Akathisia

A

Serious & troublesome EPS rxn characterized by pacing & squirming (uncontrollable need to be in motion); profound sense of restlessness

Rxn develops w/in 1st 2 months of drug therapy

Most common reason for non-compliance w/ meds

Trmt is beta blockers & benzodiazapines (does not respond to anticholinergics)

Only “cure” is to stop taking antipsychotic

272
Q

Tardive Dyskinesia

A

Serious & troublesome EPS rxn characterized by abnormal muscle movements (i.e. slow, worm-like movements of the tongue, tongue flicking, lip smacking, pursing lips, grimacing)

Movements become constant; exhausting for the pt

Occurs late in antipsychotic drug therapy; 1 in 5 pts

Only trmt is to stop taking antipsychotic; maybe irreversible

Prevention is best approach; antipsychotics s/b used in lowest effective dose & for shortest time required; AIMS test every 3 mo. if long term use

273
Q

Acute Dystonic Reaction

A

Acute & dangerous EPS rxn

Acute dystonia that becomes life-threatening d/t involvement of the throat muscules

Inability to swallow & respiratory distress

Emergent use of anticholinergics necessary

274
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)

A

Acute & dangerous EPS rxn; life-threatening medical emergency; transfer to ICU

NMS symptoms: FEVER

  • Fever, sudden & high (1050+)
  • Encephalopathy
  • Vital signs unstable (dysrhythmias, BP fluctations)
  • Elevated enzymes (CK)
  • Rigidity of muscles

Death can result from respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, or dysrhythmias

Tmt is immediate w/drawal of antipsychotic, supportive measures & drug therapy

275
Q

Side effects of antipsychotics

A

Fewer overall SEs w/ Atypical antipsychotics

iSHADE

impotence

Sedation, seizures (reduce seizure threshold)

Hypotension, orthostatic

Akathisia (inability to sit still)

Dermatological effects (risk of severe sun burn)

Extrapyramidal rxns (acute dystonias, rigidity, tremor, tachycardia)

276
Q

What is Anger

A

it is a secondary emotion usually triggered by another feeling

in response to some preceived threat or unmet need.

277
Q

Anger vs. aggression

A

anger is a feeling

where as

agression is a behvoior

agression becomes more likely when the angry, frustrated client feels ignored or discounted.

278
Q

Aggression defined

A

Aggression is a harsh physical or verbal action that reflects rage, hositility with the potential to cause harm or destruction to

Self

others

property

Agressive behavior violates the rights of others.

279
Q

What is the number one predictor of agressive behavior?

A

Past history of agressive behavior is the single best predictor of future behavior

increasing agitation is the most important predictor of imminent agression and violence.

280
Q

Signs of Increasing Agitation

A
  • Restlessness, pacing, hyperactivity
  • Rapid breathing
  • Tensing of muscles
  • Tight jaw/clenching teeth
  • Shouting, cursing, making threats
  • Verbal abuse
  • Intense eye contact or avoidance of eye contact
  • Clenched or raised fist
  • Menacing posture
  • Kicking or punching walls
  • Picking up a weapon
  • Throwing objects
  • Stone silence
281
Q

Psychiatric Conditions
Associated with Aggression & Violence

A
  • Dementia
  • Delirium
  • PTSD
  • Bipolar Disorder
  • Substance abuse
  • Antisocial Personality Disorder
  • Impulse-control disorders
  • Delusional disorder, persecutory type
  • Schizophrenia, paranoid type
  • ADHD, conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorders in children
282
Q

Medical Conditions
Associated with Aggression & Violence

A
  • Chronic pain
  • Neurological disorders
  • traumatic brain injury, seizure disorder, neurosyphillis, HIV encephalopathy
  • Endocrine disorders
  • thyroid, parathyroid and adrenal hormone imbalances
  • Metabolic disorders
  • chronic renal failure, hepatic encephalopathy, hyponatremia, lupus
  • Exogenous toxins
  • inhaled solvents, alcohol, amphetamines, hallucinogens, heavy metals
  • Vitamin deficiencies
  • folate deficiency, Wernicke’s/Korsakoff’s encephalopathy
283
Q

Principles to Remember When Planning Care for the Potentially Violent Client

A
  • Safety first!
  • Protect yourself
  • Maintain self-awareness and self-control
  • Focus on prevention
  • Always use the LEAST RESTRICTIVE intervention possible

Stop the Violence Before it Starts!

If it’s Predictable, it’s Preventable!

284
Q

How to protect yourself in violent situations

A
  • Never see a potentially violent patient alone
  • Maintain a safe, comfortable distance from the patient
  • Avoid touching the client or invading his/her personal space
  • Maintain a non-aggressive, neutral stance
  • Be prepared to move quickly—Learn to scoot!
  • Identify an “escape route” and do not allow the patient to block your exit path
285
Q

Use Therapeutic Communication Skills
to De-escalate the Situation

A
  • Speak in a calm, caring manner
  • Ensure that non-verbal messages are not defensive or provocative
  • Slow your cadence and lower the volume of your voice if/when patient escalates. Watch your tone!
  • Do not argue with the patient, shout, or belittle his feelings
  • Use open ended questions to explore issues, then reflect/paraphrase
  • Facilitate problem solving, but avoid telling the client what to do–unless limit setting becomes necessary
286
Q

Non-therapeutic responses

to the pt’s anger

A
  • Avoiding
  • Defensiveness
  • Retaliating / Punishing
    • illegal, unprofessional, & unethical
    • monitor for countertransference & personal motives
  • Threatening
    • unethical & unprofessional
  • Condescension
287
Q

Set Limits When Necessary with an angry patient

A

Establish limits only when and where there is a clear need

Never set a limit you cannot enforce

Don’t use limit setting to threaten the patient

Establish reasonable and enforceable consequences or exceeding limits

Be consistent in enforcing limits

288
Q

What is “the SET” Communication Principles to Verbally De-escalate and Set Limits

A

•Support

•Remind client that you are an ally and you have his/her best interests in mind - (“I care about you and I want to help you.”)

•Empathy

•Convey to client that you understand and care about his/her feelings - (“I can see how frustrating and distressing this is for you.”)

•Truth

•Clearly state the limit and tell the patient what you want him/her to do - (“I won’t let you hurt yourself or anyone else. I need you to put the chair down now, please.”)

289
Q

If the violence continues to escalate

A

Assemble a Show of Force

Assign only one person to communicate with the patient - Continue to offer client opportunities to change behavior when possible -

Follow approved policies and procedures for doing a “takedown” if necessary

290
Q

When is Involuntary medication necessary?

A
  • Requires “emergency declaration” by physician when ordered
  • Danger to patient or others must be imminent
  • Must document failure of less restrictive interventions
  • No “prns” allowed for emergencies

Considered a “chemical restraint”

291
Q

When can you use Seculusion or Restraints

A

Considered “last resort” interventions.

Seclusion is used when there is risk of danger to others.

Restraints are used when there is risk of danger to self.

NEVER used for punishment or staff convenience

Both require MD order, declared emergency due to imminent danger to patient or others and failure of less restrictive interventions

292
Q

Limits on seculsion or restraint

A
  • One hour for children
  • Two hours for adolescents
  • Four hours for adults
  • If longer use is indicated, intervention must be reordered
  • Patients must be evaluated face to face by physician or specially trained nurse within one hour of initiation
  • Patients in seclusion must be monitored at least q15 min.
  • Patients in seclusion who have also received sedation must be monitored continuously
  • Patients in restraints must be monitored continuously on 1:1 observation
293
Q

What is the type of documentation (how it should be completed) that is required when someone is placed in seculsion or restraints

A
  • Behavioral Observations
  • Interventions
  • In the order they were done, least restrictive to most restrictive
  • Patient’s responses to interventions
  • Debriefing & patient’s response

•Patient education and response to education

294
Q

What is the #1 nursing diagnosis for violent patients

A

Risk for other-directed violence

295
Q

What is Validation therapy

A

meeting the patient “where he/she is at the moment — acknowledging the patients wishes

ex. Cognitivly impaired patient want to go home…you would say “So you want to go home?”

Validation does not redirect, reorient or probe

296
Q

What is the best medication to give a pt. thats agression continues to escalate?

A

Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

short acting antipsychotic useful in calming angry, aggrssive patients regardless of diagnosis.

297
Q

What is the 1st thing needed after an emergency seclusion?

A

Notify the health care provider to obtain a seclusion order.

This is a state law

298
Q

What are the stages/cycles of domestic violence and their definition

Walker’s 1993 cycle theory

A

Tension-building stage - characterized by minor incidents (pushing, shoving, and verbal abuse)…victim ignores or acepts the abuse for fear more will follow.

Acute battering state — abuser releases the built up tension by brutal beatings which result in injuries.

Honeymoon stage —characteized by kindness and loving behaviors, abuser is apologetic, remorseful and often give gifts to apologize — victim wants to believe the response and often agrees to drop any charges.

299
Q

What are components of a “plan of escape”

A

- keep a phone fully charged

  • have number of nearest shelter
  • secure a supply of medications for self & childrens

- Assemble birth certificates, SS card, and licenses

- Determine a code word to signal when it’s time to leave.

300
Q

Prevention of Abuse

pg. 546 book

A

Primary prevention - measures taken to prevent occurence of abuse

Secondary prevention - involves early intervention in abusive situations to minimize disabling or long term effects.

Tertiary prevention - often occures in mental health settings, involves facilatating healing and rehabilitation. .

301
Q

What is Engagement

A

“involve one’s attention and pledge to do something”

They are focused on the task at hand / in what they are doing (heart & soul)

302
Q

Healthcare Engagement

A

Actions individuals must take to obtain the greatest benefit from the health care services available to them.”

Behaviors of individuals relative to their health care that are critical and proximal to health outcomes, rather than the actions of professionals or policies of institutions.

Processes in which information and professional advice with own needs, preferences and abilities in order to prevent, manage and cure disease

303
Q

Consequences of Non-Engagement

A
  • risk for poor health
  • perform specific health behaviors
  • without insurance
  • education
304
Q

Complementary & Alternative Use

A

Non vitamin, non mineral supplements-18.9% in 2002 and unchanged from 2007 to 2012 (17.7%).

deep-breathing exercises were the second most commonly used complementary health approach in 2002 (11.6%), 2007 (12.7%), and 2012 (10.9%)

yoga, tai chi, and qi gong increased linearly over the three time points, beginning at 5.8% in 2002, 6.7% in 2007, and 10.1% in 2012

305
Q

What is Mindfulness Based Therapy

A

A randomized controlled trial of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy for bipolar disorder.

306
Q

Benefits of Vitamin B 12 & B 9

A

B12 -Cyanoboalamin

B9 folic acid

B 12 & B 9 - 60–74 years old with mild depressive symptoms in a RCT-no effect

B 12, B 9, & B 6 - Prevented depression post stroke (mean ages 45.8–76.6 years old).

Well – designed study showing benefit of l-methyfolate augmentation of antidepressant

307
Q

Benefits of Omega 3

A

Fish: salmon, almonds & walnuts.

The data support an antidepressant effect of Ω3.

Low levels of Ω3 in depression & suicidal patients.

Bipolar depressive symptoms may be improved by adjunctive use of omega-3.

Not effective in mania.

308
Q

Benefits of Ginkgo Biloba

A

Ginkgo biloba originates from the Maidenhair tree.

Neuroprotective

inhibits platelet activation

relaxes endothelium

inhibits cholinergic receptors

increases choline uptake in the hippocampus

antioxidant effects.

Small effect on cognitive decline in those already afflicted with certain types of dementia.

309
Q

Benefits of Lemon Grass

A

Effect of Lemongrass Aroma on Experimental Anxiety in Humans.

310
Q

Benefits of Lavender & Bergamot

A

Lavender and bergamot essential oils are antidepressants and relaxants,

Essential oils can be absorbed by inhalation into the olfactory pathway and from there to the brain. The scores on depression, anxiety, and stress decreased in the intervention group after the aromatherapy programme, but there was increased psychological distress in the control group. The results were consistent with those of previous studies, namely, that aromatherapy was able to relieve negative emotional symptoms

311
Q

Tenants of Spiritual Care

A

We have care for the beginning of families, new parents, and infants

We nurture mothers and fathers, children, and youth.

We offer wisdom and understanding concerning life’s stresses, anxieties, and challenges; we face together the realities of evil, suffering, and death.

We address the power of guilt, hopelessness, and despair; we mark our boundaries and limits; we create meaningful and shared narratives of the world and of our life journeys

We seek to name and contain what is toxic, and we foster food and drink that promote health and well-being.

We have care also for the experience of aging and the end of life

312
Q

Faith & Mental Illness

A

One in four persons sitting in our pews has a family member struggling with mental health issues

A majority of individuals with a mental health issue go first to a spiritual leader for help

Studies show that clergy are the least effective in providing appropriate support and referral information

Our faith communities can be a caring congregation for persons living with a mental illness and their family members

313
Q

Strategies for Caregivers

A

Support

Respite care

Mini-relaxations

Nutrition

Exercise

Sleep

Annual check up

Spiritual care

Stress management

Resilience

314
Q

Annual Self-care

A

Annual exam

Vitamin D - sunlight (get alot of it)

Eye exam

Dental exam

Blood pressure

Complete metabolic levels, complete blood count

Follow recommended treatments.

315
Q

What is VOLUNTARY ADMISSION

A

no procedure – patient signs self in and can sign self out with 24 hr letter.

316
Q

INVOLUNTARY ADMISSION steps

A

> 1) EMERGENCY DETENTION – using EITHER: a MIW (Mental ill warrent) OR an APOWW (apprehension by Police Officer without warrent)2) evaluation by 2 physicians to make sure legal criteria are met3) (2 possibilities) release persons who do not meet criteria OR retain person and ensure legal representation4) probable cause hearing – this results in the OPC5) (2 possibilities) patient does not contest, judge reviews documents and, if legal rules followed commit patient to 90 days. OR – patient contests the commitment and has choices – (with or without their own lawyer) present their own case before the judge alone OR ask for a jury trial.

IF patient has already served 90 days and STILL meets criteria – there is another trial to commit for a longer period.( EXTENDED MENTAL HEALTH SERVICES)

317
Q

Two ways to start commitment

A

1) Go to judge — issues a MIW (mental illness warrant)

2) Call the police — Determine danger — APPOW (Apprehension by Police Officer Without a Warrant)

318
Q

Comparison between

Voluntary & Involuntary committment

A

Voluntary

Patient signs a CONTRACT with facility allowing 24 hour hold before AMA release

Voluntary admission occurs when the client is willing to be admitted and agrees to comply with hospital and unit rules.

Involuntary

Allows State of TX to hold citizen, against pt will, until psychiatric care provider deems no longer meets criteria or 90 days, whichever comes first

(Patient may invoke habeas corpus) in an attempt to get released.

319
Q

Criteria for involuntary committment of

Mental Illness

A

1. Danger to Self

2. Danger to Others

3. Danger of deterioration of condition*

*Must be serious enough to cause substantial harm or death

320
Q

What landmark suit establishes the “Duty to Warn” in many states?

A

Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California

Pt. admitted to Doc intended harm to an ex-girlfriend… – Doc told the authorities…

Pt still let go… - then killed the ex.

321
Q

What is delirium

A

Delirium is characterized by an abrupt onset of fluctuating levels of awareness, clouded consciousness, perceptual disturbances, and disturbed memory and orientation

322
Q

What is amnestic syndrome

A

Amnestic syndrome involves memory impairment without other cognitive problems.

Just lost ur memory

323
Q

What health problems are seen in

Dementia

A

Lewy body disease,

frontal-temporal lobar degeneration,

and Huntington’s disease.

324
Q

Dementia - cognitive deficits manifested in both

A

1) cognitive impairment
2) cognitive distrubances: ie.
a) aphasia
b) apraxia
c) agnosia

325
Q

What is Agnosia

A

Agnosia refers to the loss of sensory ability to recognize objects.

326
Q

What is Aphasia

A

Aphasia refers to the loss of language ability.

327
Q

What is Apraxia

A

Apraxia refers to the loss of purposeful movement

328
Q

What are the stages of Alzheimer’s disease

A

1) Preclinical Alzheimer’s disease

2) Mild cognitive decline

3) Moderately severe cognitive decline

4) Severe cognitive decline

329
Q

Mild cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s

A

Mild cognitive decline (early-stage) Alzheimer’s

can be diagnosed in some, but not all, individuals. Symptoms include misplacing items and misuse of words.

330
Q

Moderately severe cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s

A

In the moderately severe stage, deterioration is evident. Memory loss may include the inability to remember addresses or the date.

Activities such as driving may become hazardous, and frustration by the increasing difficulty of performing ordinary tasks may be experienced.

The individual has difficulty with clothing selection

331
Q

Severe cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s

A

personality changes may take place, and the patient needs extensive help with daily activities.

332
Q

What are some of the diagnostic findings for Alzheimer’s

A

apolipoprotein E (apoE) malfunction,

neurofibrillary tangles,

neuronal degeneration in the hippocampus,

and brain atrophy

333
Q

What is hyperorality

A

Hyperorality refers to placing objects in the mouth

334
Q

What is Confabulation

A

Confabulation refers to making up of stories or answers to questions by a person who does not remember.

It is a defensive tactic to protect self-esteem and prevent others from noticing memory loss.

335
Q

Four Key Concepts in the definition of a

Crisis Management

A

1) A Crisis is an Acute Time-Limited Phenomenon…a crisis will be resolved w/i 4-6 weeks after exposure to the stressor
2) A Crisis Results from Exposure to a Stressful Situation or Event
3) The Crisis Creates Emotional Distress…person in crisis feels anxious, overwhelmed and out of control
4) Existing Coping Skills Fail to Fix the Problem or Alleviate the Person’s Distress

336
Q

Types of Crisis

A
  • Maturational Crisis…Occurs when a person arrives at a new and predictable stage of development where previously used coping strategies are no longer effective or appropriate
  • Situational Crisis…critical life event from an external source. can change self - concept & esteem. (divorce, death of a loved one…job loss)
  • Adventitious Crisis… uplanned accidental or deliberate event not part of every day life. (Ie natural disasters / wars / murder / child abuse). —
  • Psychological first aid and crisis intervention are critical for persons of all ages after any adventitious crisis*
337
Q

The Evolution of a Crisis

A
  • Phase I Person is exposed to a crisis event which triggers anxiety (robbery) - Anxiety stimulates the use of problem-solving strategies and defense mechanisms to decrease distress
  • Phase II Previously used coping skills fail to alleviate the problem (overload) - coping strategies become increasingly maladaptive as emotional distress increases

Phase III - Every internal and external resource is mobilized to solve the problem and relieve distress - Automatic relief behaviors such as withdrawal and flight are mobilized

Phase IV - The individual’s condition deteriorates as tension mounts, and “desperate measures” may be considered to alleviate distress (Suicide?)

338
Q

What is Crisis Intervention?

A

A short-term helping process focused on resolution of the immediate problem through the use of personal, social and environmental resources

Crisis Intervention can be considered

“Psychological First Aid”

339
Q

General Principles of Crisis Intervention

A

Safety First - Determine Whether There is an Immediate Need for External Controls — All Clients in Crisis Should be Assessed for Suicidal and Homicidal Ideation (thoughts)

Stabilization is the Goal - Restoring equilibrium and returning the client to the pre-crisis level of functioning is the objective

340
Q

Basic Model for Crisis Intervention

A

Establish trust and develop rapport…Explore the patient’s feelings

Explore the problem…Find out what happened

Summarize both facts and feelings…“You feel x because of y.”

Focus on one problem…What does the patient want to change? What has to change in order for client to regain stability?

Explore resources and alternatives…Identify coping skills and resources

Develop plan of action…Consider contracting with client

341
Q

Terminating with the Client in Crisis

A

Review accomplishments and discuss ways in which adaptive coping skills can be used to deal with crises in the future

342
Q

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing

(CISD)

A

A group approach designed to help people who have been exposed to a crisis situation

Recent research suggests that it may not be as effective as once believed and may be harmful to

some people

343
Q

Assualt def.

A

an intentional threat designed to make the victim fearful: produces reasonable apprehension of harm.

344
Q

autonomy def.

A

Autonomy is the right to self-determination, that is, to make one’s own decisions.

(e.g. acknowledging the pts right to refuse medicine promotes autonomy)

345
Q

battery def.

A

Battery is an intentional tort in which one individual violates the rights of another through touching without consent.

346
Q

competency def.

A

is the capacity to understand the consequences of one’s decision’s

Pt.s are considered legally competent until they have been declared incompetent through a formal legal proceeding.

347
Q

confidentiality def.

A

confidentiality of care and treatment remains an important right to all patients.

discussion or consultation involving a patient should be conducted discreetly and only w/individuals who have a NEED TO KNOW

Can only be released by the pt.’s written consent

The duty to warn a person whose life has been threatened by a psychiatric patient overrides the patient’s right to confidentiality.

348
Q

When does confidentiality end

A

Confidentiality extends to death and beyond. Nurses should never disclose information after the death of a client that they would have kept confidential while the client was alive.

349
Q

duty to warn

A

1974

Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California..was a case in which the Supreme Court of California held that mental health professionals have a duty to protect individuals who are being threatened with bodily harm by a patient.

It is the health care professional’s duty to warn or notify an intended victim after a threat of harm has been made. Informing a potential victim of a threat is a legal responsibility of the health care professional.

350
Q

false imprisonment def.

A

False imprisonment involves holding a competent person against his or her will.

Actual force is not a requirement for false imprisonment.

The individual needs only to be placed in fear of imprisonment by someone who has the ability to carry out the threat.

351
Q

involuntary admission def.

A

is admission to a facility w/o the patients consent.

generally necessary when a person is in need of psychiatrict treatment, presents a danger to self or others, or is unable to meet his / her own basic needs.

Pts. can be kept involuntarily for up to 90 days, w/interim court apprearances. After that a panel reviews their cases.

352
Q

least restrictive environment def.

A

writ of habeas corpus and the least restrictive alternative doctrine are two of the most important concepts applicable to civil commitment cases.

Least restrictive mandates that the least drastic means be taken to achieve a specific purpose

ex. if someone is being treated for depression only on an outpatient basis….then hospitalization would be too restrictive and unnecessarily disruptive.

353
Q

malpractice def.

A

malpractice is an act or omission to act that breaches the duty of due care and results in or is responsible for a persons injuries.

354
Q

negligence def.

A

is the failure to use ORDINARY care in any professional or personal situation when you had a duty to do so.

ex. duty to drive safely…if you don’t and cause an accident, you could be changed with negligence.

355
Q

patient rights def.

A

Pt.s right have been modified over time, but the following are some of the basic patient rights: pg 101 - 106

  • Right to treatment
  • Right to refuse treatment
  • Right to informed consent
  • Rights regarding involuntary admission and advance psychiatric directives
  • Rights regarding restraint and seclusion
  • Right regarding Confidentiality
356
Q

privileged communication def.

A

is that information / communication obtained between a patient / provider.

357
Q

right to privacy def.

A

is legally protected by HIPAA (Health Insurance Protability and Accountability Act)

Release of information without patient authorization violates the patient’s right to privacy.

358
Q

right to refuse treatment def.

A

Pts. may w/hold consent or withdrew constent to take medication at any time.

Commintment to a hospital facility does not mean they are forced to take medications….they retain their right to refuse treatment.

THE ONLY circumstance where medication will be forced is an emergency to prevent harm to self or others.

359
Q

right to treatment def.

A

Federal Statute 1964 - Hospitalization of the Mentally ill

All public hospitals are required to provide medical and psychiatric care to all persons admitted to a public facility.

O’Conner v. Donaldson (1975)

Court ruling that State cannot confine a non-dangerous individual who is able to survive in freedom by themself or w/help of family.

360
Q

restraint def.

A

a restraint can be any device, equipment or material that prevents or reduces movement of the pt.s arms/legs or head.

restraints can also be chemical or even one individual holding another (Therapeutic hold).

361
Q

What are the characterisitc’s of a time out

A

Time-out is designed so that staff can be consistent in their interventions.

Time-out may require going to a designated room or sitting on the periphery of an activity until the child gains self-control

362
Q

Seclusion vs Timeout

A

Seclusion - confining a pt alone & preventing the pt from leaving. Should be used only when pt demonstrates violence / self-distructive behavior that jepardizes the safety of others or the pt

Timeout - pt chooses to spend time alone in a specific area for a certain amt of time. Pt can leave the area at any point.

363
Q

What are the five elements required to prove negligence?

A

1) duty

2) breach of duty

3) cause in fact

4) proximate cause

5) there were actual damages.

364
Q

Etiological risk factors for child/adolscent mental illness

A

Biological factors: Genetic & Neurobiological

  • Resilience, intelligence & supportive environment aid in avoiding development of mental disorders

Psychological factors: Temperament; fit w/ parents is crucial to development. Resilience

Environmental factors: Dependent on family; witness violence; neglect / sexual abuse; bullying

Cultural factors: Expectations; stigma follows throughout lifespan

365
Q

Risk factors that presents the highest chance for a child to develop a psychiatric disorder

A

Having a parent with a substance abuse problem has been designated an adverse psychosocial condition that increases the risk of a child developing a psychiatric condition.

Having a family history of schizophrenia presents a risk, but an alcoholic parent in the family offers a greater risk.

366
Q

Resilience def.

A

The ability to adapt & cope

Helps people to face tragedies, loss, trauma, & severe stress

367
Q

Factors that increase resilience in children/adolscents

A

Child’s inborn strengths

Child’s success in handling stress in the environment

368
Q

Temperament def.

A

The style of behavior a child habitually uses to cope w/ the demands & expectations of the environment

369
Q

Characteristics of a mentally

healthy child/adolscent

A
  • Trusts others & sees his/her world as being safe & supportive
  • Correctly interprets reality; makes accurate perceptions of the environment & one’s ability to influence thru actions (i.e. self-determination)
  • Behaves in developmentally appropriate way; doesn’t violate social norms
  • Has a positive, realistic self-concept & developing identity
  • Adapts to & copes w/ anxiety & stress using age appropriate behavior
  • Can learn/master developmental tasks & new situations
  • Expresses self spontaneously & creatively
  • Develops & maintains satisfying relationships
370
Q

Pervasive def.

A
371
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Pervasive Developmental Disorder

(Autism, Aspergers, PDD NOS)

A

Autism is primarily biogenetic

372
Q

What is IDD

A

IDD is characterized by severe deficits in three major areas of functioning: intellectual, social, and managing daily life. Specific learning disorder is diagnosed when a child demonstrates persistent difficulty in the acquisition of reading (dyslexia), mathematics (dyscalculia), and/or written expression (dysgraphia) and their performance is well below the expected performance of their peers.

373
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Tourette’s Disorder

A

A motor (neurodevelopment) disorder

Motor & verbal tics appearing between age 2 & 7

Tics change in location, frequency & severity over time

Tics cause marked distress, significant impairment in social & occupational functioning, & low self-esteem

Disorder is permanent; periods of remission may occur

Symptoms often diminish in adolescence & may disappear by early adulthood

Familial pattern in 90% of cases

Often co-exists w/ depression, OCD, & ADHD

Treated w/ antipyschotic meds: Hadol & Orap

374
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Attention Deficit / Hyperactivity Disorder

A

Inattention

Impulsive

Hyperactive

Symptoms present before age 7

Symptoms must be present at home & school

Low frustration tolerance, temper outbursts

Poor school performance

Primarily biogenetic

375
Q

Medication class most commonly

prescribed for ADHD

& med side effects

A

Stimulants

Methyphenidate (Ritalin)

s/e…The most common side effects are gastrointestinal disturbances, reduced appetite, weight loss, urinary retention, dizziness, fatigue, and insomnia

Weight loss has the potential to interfere with the child’s growth and development.

376
Q

Nursing interventions for child

w/ADHD

A

“reduce loneliness and increase self-esteem.”

Because of their disruptive behaviors, children with ADHD often receive negative feedback from parents, teachers, and peers, leading to self-esteem disturbance. These behaviors also cause peers to avoid the child with ADHD, leaving the child with ADHD vulnerable to loneliness.

377
Q

Milieu characteristics for

children/adolscents with

ADHD and/or Disruptive Behavior Disorders

A

manage the milieu with structure and limit setting

378
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Separation Anxiety Disorder

A

Developmentally inappropriate levels of concern over being away from a significant other

May also be a fear that something horrible will happen to the other person resulting in permanent separation

Anxiety is so intense it distracts the pt from their norm activities, causes sleep disturbances & nightmares, is often manifested in GI disturbance & headaches

379
Q

Conduct Disorder def.

A

Persistant pattern of behavior in which the rights of others are violated

Age appropriate societal norms/rules are disregarded

380
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Conduct Disorder

A

Disruptive/impulsive control behavior disorder thought to be caused by parenting

Cruel bahvior to animals 1st then people

Violates rights & disregards norms (truancy before age 13, alcohol &/or heavy drug abuse, running away)

Aggressive & destructive (vandalism)

Deceitfulness

Pyromania and/or Kleptomania

Poor peer relationships; may be precursor to antisocial personality disorder

Meds for aggression, impulsivity & mood: Risperdal, Zyprexa, Seroquel, Geodon, & Abilify

381
Q

Psychosocial risk factors that

predispose children/adolscents

to Conduct Disorder

A

ADHD

Oppositional child behaviors

Parental rejection

Inconsistent parenting w/ harsh discipline

Early institutional living

Chaotic home life

Large family size

Absent or alcoholic father

Antisocial & drug-dependent family members

Association w/ delinquent peers

382
Q

Prevention strategies for

Conduct Disorder

A
383
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

A

Disruptive behavior disorder thought to be caused by parenting

Angry & irritable; temper tantrums past usual age

Defiant & vindictive

Disregard for authority

Deliberately annoys & blames

Distructive (usually short of criminal)

Difficulty w/ home, school, peers

Not age limited but usually seen in preteens

Meds. not generally indicated but must treat comorbidity

384
Q

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation disorder

A

Frequent temper tantrums (verbal / behavioral outbursts) out of proportion to the situation & not developmentally age appropriate

Persistent irritable mood btwn outbursts

Dx given to children btwn ages 6 - 18 w/ no other medical/mental health dxs accounting for tempertantrums (i.e. autism)

385
Q

Disruptive mood management

A

Time-out

Quiet Room

386
Q

Behavioral characteristics of children with

Mood Disorders

(depression & bipolar disorder)

A

Core symptoms of depression in children/adolscents are same as for adults: sadness & anhedonia

Frequently assoc w/ anxiety & anger

Symptoms display differently in children/adolscents.

  • very young children cry
  • school age children are withdrawn
  • teens become irritable in response to feeling sad / hopeless

Generally, depressed children/adolscents display increased irritability, negativity, isolation, & w/drawl along w/ loss of energy.

Younger children may suddenly refuse to go to school.

Adolscents may engage in substance abuse or sexual promiscuity & become preoccupied w/ death or suicide.

Bipolar is more severe if starts in childhood/teens.

Youth w/ bipolar have more frequent mood switches, more mixed emotions, are sick more often, & have greater suicide attempts.

387
Q

General interventions for children/adolscents

A

Family therapy

  • specifical goals defined for ea family member

Group therapy - used for breavement, physical abuse, substance use, dating, or chronic illness (diabetes)

  • young child: play therapy
  • school-aged child: combines play, learning skills, & talking about activity; aids w/ social skills
  • adolscent: popular media event/personality used as basis for discussion

Behavioral therapy

  • behavior modification
  • rewards desired behaviors to reduce maladaptive behaviors
  • use least restrictive intervention

Cognitive-Behavioral therapy (CBT)

  • negative/self-defeating thoughts are replaced by more realistic & accurate appraisals
  • results in improved functioning
388
Q

Nursing interventions to alter behavior in

children/adolscents with mental illness

A

Physical problems have higher priority than mind/behavior problems

Parent training (positive parenting)

Behavioral therapies

Milieu therapy

Psychopharmacology

389
Q

Teaching for parents of

children/adolscents with

mental illness

A

Predict & prevent

Act EARLY to stop escalation

Provide safety

Causes & prevention of non-genetic types of disorders

Parental expectations of behaviors

Behavioral control of socially unacceptable behaviors

390
Q

Psychoactive medications for

children/adolscents

A

Stimulants excite neurons responsible for focus

391
Q

Mental Health Assessment differences

for children vs. adults

A

Who is interviewed?

How is interview conducted?

Data collected:

392
Q

Parent teaching for managing

child’s behavior at home

A
  • Behavior modification - use it RIGHT or NOT AT ALL
  • Rewards occur ALL THE TIME but to effect change you MUST PLAN
  • Punishment is not allowed
  • Extinction - ignoring / not reacting to behavior will prevent the “reward”

*RNs don’t have time or relationship to use extinction

393
Q

What is Acculturation

A

is learning the beliefs, values, and practices of a new cultural setting, which sometimes takes several generations

394
Q

What is enculturation

A

is a process where members of a group are introduced to the culture’s worldview, beliefs, values, and practices

395
Q

What is a highly valued approach in Western Cultures, but not other cultures.

A

Directly confronting problems is a highly valued approach in the American culture but not part of many other cultures in which harmony and restraint are valued

American nurses sometimes mistakenly think that all patients should take direct action.

396
Q

What are some of the approaches valued by other cultures but not America?

A

Present orientation, interdependence, and a flexible perception of time are not valued in Western culture

These views are more predominant in other cultures

397
Q

What is valued in Hispanic Cultures

A

Hispanic individuals usually value relationship behaviors.

Their needs are for learning through verbal communication rather than reading and for having time to chat before approaching the task.

Many people from Central American cultures express distress in somatic terms

398
Q

To provide culturally competent care,

A

identify strategies that fit within the cultural context of the patient

RN’s should understand that Western biomedicine is one of several established healing systems

399
Q

How do Asian Americans express psychological distress

A

Asian Americans commonly express psychological distress as a physical problem.

The patient may believe psychological problems are caused by a physical imbalance.

The patient will probably respond best to a therapist who is perceived as giving.

400
Q

Communication techniques effective for Native American pt.s

A

Soft voice; break eye contact occasionally; general leads and reflective techniques.

Native American culture stresses living in harmony with nature. Cooperative, sharing styles rather than competitive or intrusive approaches are preferred;

thus, the more passive style described would be best received.

401
Q

W/an Asian pt. with mental illness, what type of intervention best fits this culture?

A

The Asian community values the family in caring for each other.

The Asian community uses traditional medicines and healers, including herbs for mental symptoms.

The Asian community describes illness in somatic terms.

The Asian community attaches a stigma to mental illness, so interfacing with the community would not be appealing

402
Q

What is the Western, biomedical prespective on health and illness?

A

The Western biomedical perspective holds the belief that sick people should be as independent and self-reliant as possible.

Self-care is encouraged; one gets better by “getting up and getting going.”

An ability to function at a high level is valued.

403
Q

What is Wind Illness?

A

Wind illness is a culture-bound syndrome found in the Chinese and Vietnamese population.

It is characterized by a fear of cold, wind, or drafts. It is treated by keeping very warm and avoiding foods, drinks, and herbs that are cold.

Warm broth would be most in sync with the patient’s culture and provide the most comfort.

404
Q

What is Culutral competence?

A

Cultural competence is dependent on understanding the beliefs and values of members of a different culture.

A nurse who works with an individual or group of a culture different from his or her own must be open to learning about the culture.

405
Q

Amoung different Cultures – are there difference in metabolic pharmacokinetics of pshychotrophic drugs?

A

YES

Cytochrome enzyme systems,

which vary among different cultural groups, influence the rate of metabolism of psychoactive drugs

406
Q

What is a Culture-bound syndrome

A

Culture-bound syndromes occur in specific sociocultural contexts and are easily recognized by people in those cultures.

A syndrome recognized in parts of Southeast Asia is running amok, in which a person (usually a male) runs around engaging in furious, almost indiscriminate violent behavior.

407
Q

Know the following Culture-Bound Syndromes & the pts. heritage

A

Culture-Bound Syndromeheritage

  • Ataque de nervios Latin American
  • Ghost Sickness Navajo
  • Hwa-byung Korean
  • Susto Latin American
  • Wind Illness Chinese
408
Q

In the course of providing best psychiatric care for a client, the nurse must place greatest reliance on

A

Legal principles are fundamental to nursing practice. They supersede all other principles, standards, and judgments.

409
Q

What is the concept of Justice

A

fair distribution of care, which includes treatment with the least restrictive methods

410
Q

What is the concept of Beneficence

A

. Beneficence means promoting the good of others

411
Q

What is the concept of Fidelity

A

Fidelity is the observance of loyalty and commitment to the patient.

Fidelity refers to being “true” or faithful to one’s obligations to the client. Client abandonment would be a violation of fidelity.

412
Q

Tort

A

A tort is a civil wrong against a person that violates his or her rights.

ex. Giving unnecessary medication for the convenience of staff controls behavior in a manner similar to secluding a patient; thus, false imprisonment is a possible charge.

413
Q

What is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)

A

The DSM-5 classifies disorders people have rather than people themselves

414
Q

“What is the most prevalent mental disorder in the United States?”

A

The 12-month prevalence for Alzheimer’s disease is 10% for persons older than 65 and 50% for persons older than 85.

415
Q

What is Clinical epidemiology?

A

A broad field that addresses studies of the natural history (or what happens if there is no treatment & the problem is left to run its course) of an illness, studies of diagnostic screening tests, & observational/experimental studies of interventions used to treat people w/ the illness or symptoms.

416
Q

What does Prevalence refer to?

A

The number of new cases

417
Q

What does Incidence refer to?

A

The number of new cases of mental disorders in a healthy population within a given period.

418
Q

What areas of care are promoted by QSEN

A

The key areas of care promoted by QSEN are patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and informatics.

419
Q

Faith / Religion & stress - immune systems

A

Studies have shown a positive correlation between spiritual practices and enhanced immune system function and sense of well-being

420
Q

Eating disorder facts

A
  • Complex medical/psychiatric illness
  • Disease of control (pt can control eating)
  • Anorexia is 3rd most common chronic illness
  • Genetic, biological, behavioral, social, & psychological factors
  • Develop over time
  • Occurs across all socioeconomic & age groups
  • Bulimia is life-threatening; highest mortality rate of all mental illnesses
  • Causes are multifactoral
  • Global issue
421
Q

Body image in eating disorders

A

Perception is never reality

A distorted body image is DELUSIONAL

& will not chg w/ reasoning

(no nursing interventions will work)

422
Q

Anorexia Nervosa characteristics

A

Restricted calories w/ significantly low BMI

Low body wt (

Intense fear of gaining wt

Distorted body image

Extreme focus on shape / wt

Amenorrhea

Denial of illness (secretive)

423
Q

Types of Anorexia Nervosa

A

2 types:

  • Restricting - no consistent bulimic features
  • Binge-Eating - primarily restriction, some bulimic behaviors
424
Q

Anorexic issues

A
  • How can I appear perfect?
  • What is this feeling?
  • When I eat, I feel sick.
  • No energy
  • No sleep (not just insomnia)
  • No peristalsis
  • No appetite (not the same as hunger)
  • No control
  • No future
  • I HATE being me
  • Nobody can love ME the way I am
425
Q

Personality traits of pt

w/ Anorexia Nervosa

A

Perfectionism

Obsessive thoughts & actions r/t food

Intense feelings of shame

People pleasing

Need to have complete control over their therapy

426
Q

Thoughts & behaviors assoc.

w/ Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • Terror of gaining wt; repeated re-weighting of self
  • Preoccupation w/ thoughts of food
  • View of self as fat even when emaciated
  • Peculiar handling of food; cutting into mini bites
  • Food portioning (eats sm amts of certain foods)
  • Pushing pieces of food around plate
  • Poss. development of rigorous exercise regimen / hyperactivity
  • Poss. self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives/diuretics
  • Cognition so distrubed that pt judges self-worth by his/her wt
427
Q

Physical presentation of

Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • Low body wt r/t caloric restriction / excessive exercise
  • Amenorrhea d/t low wt
  • Lanugo & thin, brittle hair d/t starvation
  • Cold extremities/cold intolerance/hypothermia d/t starvation
  • Peripheral edema d/t hypoalbuminemia & refeeding
  • Muscle weakening/letheragy d/t starvation & electrolyte imbalance
  • Constipation d/t starvation
  • Cardio abnormalities (hypotension, bradycardia, HF) d/t starvation & dehydration
  • Impaired renal function , low urine output, increased urine concentration d/t dehydration
  • Hypokalemia d/t starvation
  • Decreased bone density
  • Dry skin d/t dehydration
428
Q

Psychological presentation of

Anorexia Nervosa

A
  • Disturbed body image
    • excessive self-monitoring
    • describes self as fat despite emaciation
  • Ineffective coping
    • destructive behavior toward self
    • poor concentration
    • inability to meet role expectations
    • inadequate problem solving
  • Chronic low self-esteem
    • rejects positive feedback about self
    • reports feelings of shame
    • lack of eye contact
    • passive
    • indecisive behavior
  • Powerlessness
429
Q

Anorexia Nervosa assessment

A

Eating habits

History of dieting

Methods used to achieve wt control (restricting, purgeing, exercising)

Value attached to a specific shape & wt

Interpersonal & social functioning

Mental status & physiological parameters

430
Q

Anorexia complications

A

Hormonal chgs

Cardiac issues (leaky heart valves, orthostatic pulse & BP chgs, prolonged QT, ST-T wave abnormalities) & arrhythmias

Edema (ankle & periorbital)

Electrolyte imbalances (lead to fatigue, weakness, letheragy)

Infertility

Bone density loss (osteoporosis)

Anemia

Neuro problems (peripheral neuropathy)

Death

431
Q

What is Refeeding?

A

Refeeding resulting in too-rapid weight gain & can overwhelm the heart, resulting in cardiovascular collapse.

Deadly complication of treatment involving metabolic alteration in serum electrolytes, vitamin defciencies, & sodium retention.

Focused assessment is a necessity to ensure the patient’s physiological integrity.

432
Q

Bulimia Nervosa characteristics

A

Cycle of bingeing/purging (1x per wk x 3 mo)

Feeling out of control

Compensatory behaviors (self-induced vomiting, excessive exercising, fasting, laxative/diuretic misuse)

Usually normal body wt

Self-image largely influenced by body image

433
Q

Types of Bulimia Nervosa

A

2 types:

  • Purging - self induced vomiting or laxative/diuretic misuse
  • Non-Purging - excessive exercising or fasting
434
Q

Bulimic issues

A
  • How can I appear perfect?
  • What is this feeling?
  • I eat to fill the void.
    • lack of emotion / emotional pain drives binge
  • I rid myself of food to get rid of the tension.
  • I HATE being this way. MAKE it STOP.
  • Nobody can love ME the way I am.
435
Q

Thoughts & behaviors assoc.

w/ Bulimia Nervosa

A
  • Binge eating behavior
  • Often self-induced vomiting (or laxative/diuretic use) after bingeing
  • Hx of anorexia nervosa in 1/4 - 1/3 of pts
  • Depressive signs & symptoms
  • Problems w/:
    • interpersonal relationships
    • self-concept
    • impulsive behaviors
  • Increase levels of anxiety & compulsivity
  • Poss. chemical dependency
  • Poss. impulsive stealing
  • Family relationships usually chaotic & lack nurturing
  • Life reflects instability & troublesome interpersonal relationships
436
Q

Physical presentation of

Bulimia Nervosa

A
  • Normal to slightly low wt r/t excessive caloric intake w/ purgeing or excessive exercise
  • Dental caries & tooth erosion r/t vomiting
  • Puffy cheeks / parotid swelling (enlarged salivary glands) d/t increased serum amylase levels
  • Gastric dilation / rupture r/t binge eating
  • Callused, ulcered, or scarred knuckles r/t vomiting
  • Swollen hands / feet (peripheral edema) d/t rebound fluid (seen w/ diuretic use)
  • Weakness & fatigue d/t electrolyte imbalances
  • Menstrual irregularities
  • Abdmonial pain
  • Sore throat
437
Q

Psychological presentation

of Bulimia Nervosa

A
  • Disturbed body image
    • obsession w/ body
    • denial of problems
    • dissatisfaction w/ appearance
  • Ineffective coping
    • obsessed w/ food
    • substance abuse
    • impulsive responses to problems
    • misuse of laxatives/diuretics/enemas
    • fasting
    • inadequate problem solving
  • Chronic low self-esteem
    • feelings of shame / guilt
    • views self as unable to deal w/ events
    • excessive seeking of reassurance
  • Powerlessness
    • loss of control w/ binge/purge cycle
  • Social isolation
    • absence of supportive significant other(s)
    • hides eating behaviors from others
    • reports feelign alone
438
Q

Bulimia Nervosa assessment

A

Are you satisfied w/ your eating habits?

Do you ever eat in secret?

439
Q

Bulimia complications

A

Tooth erosion, cavities, gum disease

Water retention / abd bloating

Low serum potassium

Irregular menstrual cycles

Swallowing problems & esophagus damage (perforation)

Salivary gland hypertrophy

Petechiae

Hematemesis

440
Q

Priority interventions for Bulimia Nervosa

A
  • Change dysfunctional eating behavoirs
  • Prevent use of dysfunctional compensation
    • monitor bathroom use after meals
    • ensure pt doesn’t purge or exercise w/o staff knowledge
  • Maintain physical integrity
  • Boost self-esteem
441
Q

What is the priority information that a nurse should provide for a pt. w/ binge-purge bulimia

A

How to recognize hypokalemia

Hypokalemia results from potassium loss associated w/ vomiting. Physiological integrity can be maintained if the pt can self-diagnose potassium deficiency & adjust the diet or seek medical assistance.

Self-monitoring of daily food & fluid intake is not useful if the pt purges.

442
Q

Binge Eating Disorder

(BED)

A

Recurring episodes (>/= 1x wk x 3 mo)

Feeling of shame, guilt, embarrassment & disgust

NO use of compensatory behavoirs

Common SE is obesity

443
Q

Psychological presentation

w/ BED

A
  • Disturbed body image
    • embarassment d/t wt gain
    • fear of negative rxn by others
    • attempts to hide wt gain
    • body dissatisfaction
  • Ineffective coping
    • eats as coping method
    • absence of other/more effective coping methods
    • eats when full
  • Anxiety
    • feelings of discomfort/dread
    • feelings of inadequacy
    • focused on self
    • increased wariness
    • irritability
  • Chronic low self-esteem
    • feelings of shame/guilt
    • views self as unable to deal w/ events
  • Powerlessness
    • loss of control of eating
  • Social isolation
    • absence of supportive significant other(s)
    • eats normally in presence of others
    • hides eating behaviors
    • reports feeling alone
444
Q

Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder

(ARFID)

A

Individual restricts food intake & experiences significant associated physological / psychosocial problems but doesn’t met criteria for any other eating disorder.

  • difficulty digesting certain foods
  • avoids certain colors / textures of foods
  • eats only very small portions / no appetite
  • afraid to eat after freightening episode of choking / vomiting

Significantly low BMI; dependent on enteral feeding or experiencing nutritional deficiencies

No distortion of body image

Symptoms show up in infancy / childhood

445
Q

PICA

A

Ingestion of non-nutritive substances past toddlerhood

Varies w/ age & availability

Occurs in pregnancy, children, iron deficient adults, & institutionalized persons

Not culturally sanctioned

Not part of any other mental illness

Psych comorbidities: IDD, Austism, OCD, Schizophrenia, Trichotillomania (if hair ingested)

446
Q

Rumination Disorder

A

Repeated regurgitation of food

Regurgitate, re-chew, spit out or re-swallow

No GI or medical reason

Behavior is volitional (done willingly)

Occurs in secret

Not part of other mental illness/eating disorder

Psych comorbidities: IDD & generalized anxiety disorder

447
Q

Psychiatric comorbidity

of eating disorders

(co-existing psych & physical disorders)

A

Depression

Anxiety (r/t food)

OCD

Substance abuse

Personality disorders

Bipolar

Obesity

448
Q

Assessment in eating disorders

Daily physical assessments needed

A

Height, weight (blind wts), & muscle mass

Electrolytes

Cardiac function

Bradycardia, orthostatic hypotension

Amenorrhea

Mood changes

Use of enemas, laxatives, diuretics, diet pills

Dental caries, sore throat, calloused fingers

Cold intolerance

Hair loss

I & O

449
Q

Treatment goals for eating disorders

A

Refeed

Stabilize wt

Resolve cognitive distortions

Normalize eating

Treat comorbidities

Improve family relationships

Understand importance of balanced nutrition

Develop age-appropriate identity

450
Q

Treatment Team

A

Psychiatrist

Psychologist

RN

Dietician

Social Worker (family therapist)

Milieu therapist (PCT)

Art / Music / Recreational therapists

451
Q

Treatment of eating disorders

A
  • Restore pt to healthy wt
    • wt gain of 0.2 kg/day (slow & steady)
    • food intake must be increased slowly to prevent stressing heart
  • Treat psych issues r/t eating disorder
  • Reduce / eliminate behaviors or thoughts that lead to disordered eating; prevent relapse
    • Control issues: do NOT agrue over wt; emphasize HEALTH not wt.; avoid coerision
  • Behavior modification can help decrease manipulative behavior (CBT)
452
Q

Interventions for eating disorders

A

Medications:

  • Prozac (fluoxetine) or Zoloft (sertraline)
  • Zyprexa (olanzapine) - antipsychotic helps w/ distored thoughts

Psychotherapy (group & individual)

Behavior modification

  • promote behaviors that contribute to wt gain
  • limit wt-loss behaviors

Monitoring

  • physiological parameters (vitals, electrolytes)
  • wt routinely
  • daily caloric intake & fluid I&Os
  • restrict food to scheduled, pre-served meals/snacks
  • observe during & after meals/snacks
  • accompany to bathroom designated observation times; limit time spent in bathroom if not observed
  • limit physical activity

Support

  • use behavioral contracting w/ pt to elicit desired wt gain
  • reinforce wt gain & behaviors that promote it
  • assist pt to develop self-esteem compatible w/ healthy body wt

Promote increased independence

  • allow opportunity to make choices about eating & exercise as wt gain progresses

Remove anger / anxiety from eating situation (keep conversations light)

Well-balanced meals & adaquate calories (meal plans)

Be a role model

453
Q

Priority milieu interventions

for pts w/ eating disorders

A
  • Support restorative wt gain & normalization of eating patterns
  • Close supervision of pt’s eating
  • Prevention of exercise & purging
  • Strict adherence to menus
  • Observe pt during/after meals to prevent throwing away food or purging
  • Monitor all trips to the bathroom
  • Structured mealtimes (not flexible)
  • Regularly scheduled weighing
  • Privileges correlated w/ wt gain & trmt plan compliance
454
Q

Medication issues

with eating disorders

A
  • TCAs & SSRI - prevent relapse in Bulimia
  • Zyprexa - used to control anxiety; tends to cause wt gain
  • Antianxiolytic agents are contraindicated
  • Wellbutrin contraindicated in Bulimics
  • MAOIs are not indicated
  • Beta Blockers are contraindicated
455
Q

Physical criteria for hospitalization

with eating disorders

A
  • Wt loss > 30% over 6 mo. (severe malnutrition
  • Rapid decline in wt
  • Inability to gain wt w/ outpt trmt
  • Physiologic instability
    • Severe hypothermia d/t loss of sub-Q tissue or dehydration (body temp oC or 96.8oF)
    • Bradycardia (HR)
    • Hypotension (systolic )
  • Electrolyte imbalances not corrected by oral supplmentation
    • hypokalemia
    • hyponatremia
    • hypophosphatemia
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
456
Q

Psychiatric criteria for hospitalization

with eating disorders

A
  • Suicidal ideation or severely out of control, self-mutilating behaviors
  • Out of control use of laxatives, emetics, diuretics, or street drugs
  • Failure to comply w/ trmt contract
  • Severe depression
  • Acute psychosis
  • Family crisis or dysfunction

*pt must be physiologically stable to come to psych unit

457
Q

What is Stimming

A

autism

repetitive movements or sounds…self soothing

458
Q

What is the CAGE questionaire

A

CAGE

C (have you ever felt that you should CUT down?)

A (have people ANNOYED you by criticizing you)

G (have you every felt GUILTY about our drinking?)

E (have you ever had an EYE OPENING moment in the morning?)