Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Q400 SV > Memory Items > Flashcards

Memory Items Flashcards

1
Q

The Q400’s maximum operating ambient temperature limit is ____ and the minimum operating temperature limit is ____.

A

+50ºC or ISA + 35ºC, whichever is lower; -54ºC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The maximum operating altitude of the aircraft is ____ and the maximum operating altitude for takeoff is ____.

A

25,000 feet; 10,000 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Horizon Air values for Maximum Severe Turbulence Speed is ____ and Maximum Maneuvering Speed (Va) is ____.

A

200 KIAS; 200 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The maximum speed for Flaps 0 degrees during cruise/enroute descent is ____ and for approach is ____.

A

Vmo; Vmo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The maximum flaps extended speed (Vfe, Horizon Air values) for Flaps 5 is ____.

A

195 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The maximum flaps extended speed (Vfe, Horizon Air values) for Flaps 10 is ____.

A

175 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The maximum flaps extended speed (Vfe, Horizon Air values) for Flaps 15 is ____.

A

165 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The maximum flaps extended speed (Vfe, Horizon Air values) for Flaps 35 is ____.

A

155 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The landing gear operating speed (VLO) is ____ and the landing gear extended speed (VLE) is ____.

A

200 KIAS; 215 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Alternate gear extension speed is ____ and max tire speed is ____.

A

185 KIAS; 182 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is minimum holding speed (flaps 0)?

A

200 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the minimum speed for severe icing (flaps 0)?

A

200 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the minimum speed during a takeoff with an emergency (engine fail, windshear, etc.)?

A

V2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the minimum flap retract speed during takeoff?

A

V2 + 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During takeoff, what is the minimum normal two engine speed?

A

V2 + 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During climbs, single engine, or driftdown operations (flaps 0), what is the minimum speed in icing conditions or with the REF SPEEDS set to INCR?

A

Solid bug, Vse(ice).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During climbs, single engine, or driftdown operations (flaps 0), what is the minimum speed in non-icing conditions or with the REF SPEEDS set to OFF?

A

Open bug, Vse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During cruise or enroute descents, what is the minimum speed with flaps 0?

A

180 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During approach, what’s the minimum speed with Flaps 0, 5, 10 or 15 degrees?

A

Low speed cue + 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During landing (landing configuration), what is the minimum speed with REF SPEEDS set to INCR, windshear, or gusts greater than 10 knots?

A

Solid bug, Vref(ice).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During landing (landing configuration), what is the minimum speed with REF SPEEDS set to OFF?

A

Open bug, Vref.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The engine starter cranking limit for the first start attempt is ____ seconds maximum time on, followed by ____ minutes off.

A

70 seconds; 2 minutes.

23
Q

What must the temperature be (OAT) on the ground and (SAT) inflight for icing conditions to exist?

A

10ºC and below; 5ºC and below.

24
Q

T or F: the engine intake bypass doors shall be open for engine operation in icing conditions.

A

True.

25
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component approved for takeoff and landing on a hard, dry, or wet runway?

A

32 knots.

26
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance between contents of main fuel tanks in flight?

A

600 pounds.

27
Q

T or F: Tank 1 and Tank 2 auxiliary fuel pumps are required to be on for landing but not for takeoff.

A

False, they are on for both takeoff and landing.

28
Q

The minimum battery temperature for takeoff is ____ and the maximum loadmeter reading for takeoff of the standby battery, auxiliary battery, and the main battery is ____.

A

-20ºC; 0.1 amps.

29
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude for the landing gear and/or flaps extended?

A

15,000 feet.

30
Q

Setting takeoff power prior to brake release, with the nose of the airplane more than 45 degrees out of wind, is prohibited for wind speeds greater than ____ knots.

A

8 knots.

31
Q

T or F: inflight operation of the POWER levers aft of the FLIGHT IDLE gate is prohibited.

A

True.

32
Q

The maximum cabin pressure differential limit is ____ psi and the maximum cabin pressure differential limit during takeoff/landing is ____ psi.

A

5.95 psi; 0.5 psi.

33
Q

Bleed air must be off for takeoff whenever:

A

tailwind component exceeds 10 knots, windshear is suspected, takeoff is being conducted with MTOP power.

34
Q

Bleed air must be off for landing whenever:

A

tailwind component exceeds 10 knots, windshear is suspected, reported OAT exceeds 39ºC.

35
Q

T or F: takeoff in the BASIC mode (AHRS) is prohibited, but takeoff in DG mode is allowable.

A

False. Both modes are prohibited for takeoff.

36
Q

Unless the forward and aft baggage compartments are empty, the airplane shall not be operated farther than ____ from a suitable airport for landing.

A

One hour flying time.

37
Q

T or F: HOT MIC select switches on the Captain and First Officer ARCDU shall be OFF and the INT/RAD switch on the observer’s Audio Control Panel shall be centered when using the flightdeck speakers.

A

True.

38
Q

T or F: the APU is approved for ground operations only.

A

True.

39
Q

T or F: the APU does not need to be shutdown prior to takeoff since it is usable airborne.

A

False.

40
Q

T or F: the APU may be operated unattended with passengers on board if OAT exceeds 30ºC.

A

False.

41
Q

Which of the following refueling limitations for the APU is correct?

A

It shall not be operated during gravity (overwing) refueling.

42
Q

What are the APU ambient temperature limitations?

A

Upper: +50ºC or ISA + 35ºC, whichever is lower.
Lower: -54ºC.

43
Q

T or F: the APU bleed air shall be selected off when the aircraft is being deiced/anti-iced.

A

True.

44
Q

What are the APU starter cranking limitations?

A

First Attempt: max on 60 seconds, 5 minutes off.

Second Attempt: max on 60 seconds, maintenance check required.

45
Q

T or F: during autopilot operation, the pilot shall be seated at the controls with harness secured.

A

True.

46
Q

Autopilot (coupled) and Flight Director (manual) approaches are approved from a nominal glideslope angle of ____ to maximum of ____.

A

2.5 to 4 degrees.

47
Q

AFCS is approved for autopilot coupled approaches to ____.

A

CAT I limits only.

48
Q

Autopilot coupled approaches are approved for all flap configurations except:

A

Flaps 35 with one engine inoperative.

49
Q

Autopilot coupled approaches have been demonstrated in crosswind components up to ____ knots.

A

18 knots.

50
Q

The minimum height for autopilot engagement after takeoff/go-around is ____ feet AFE.

A

1,000 feet AFE.

51
Q

Autopilot shall be disengaged at or above ____ feet AFE for HGS approaches flown in AIII mode, approaches flown with an inoperative engine, or approaches flown with flaps 0.

A

1,000 feet AFE.

52
Q

For coupled approaches (non-CAT III), the autopilot shall be disengaged at or above ____ feet AFE.

A

200 feet AFE.

53
Q

T or F: the autopilot shall be disengaged in severe icing and severe/extreme atmospheric turbulence.

A

True.

Q400 SV (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions