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Q400 SV > Engines > Flashcards

Engines Flashcards

1
Q

For takeoff, pilots will smoothly advance the power levers to the ____ position.

A

Rating.

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2
Q

T or F: the aircraft has auto-throttle capabilities.

A

False.

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3
Q

What is the shaft horsepower of each engine under normal takeoff conditions?

A

4580 SHP.

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4
Q

What does the shaft horsepower increase to on the operating engine in the event of an engine failure after takeoff?

A

5071 SHP.

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5
Q

T or F: propeller rotation is accomplished by the turning of power turbines.

A

True.

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6
Q

Where is the accessory gearbox mounted on the engine?

A

On the high pressure compressor.

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7
Q

T or F: the low pressure (axial) compressors are driven by their associated low pressure turbine.

A

True.

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8
Q

Which of the following represents the speed of the low pressure axial compressor?

A

NL.

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9
Q

Which of the following represents the speed of the high pressure centrifugal compressor?

A

NH.

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10
Q

What powers the power turbines?

A

Exhaust gas.

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11
Q

When on the ground and the propellers are in the ground range of beta, it is indicated by:

A

PROPELLER GROUND RANGE light.

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12
Q

T or F: the propeller has a beta range used for reverse thrust on the ground.

A

True.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the engine intake bypass doors?

A

To prevent solid contaminant from entering the engine.

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14
Q

When should the engine intake bypass doors be open on the ground?

A

On contaminated runways.

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15
Q

When should the engine intake bypass doors be selected open?

A

In icing and on contaminated runways.

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16
Q

T or F: the auxiliary fuel pump is powered by the accessory gearbox.

A

False.

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17
Q

T or F: the engine driven fuel pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

True.

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18
Q

T or F: the oil pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

True.

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19
Q

T or F: the DC starter generator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

True.

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20
Q

T or F: the permanent magnet alternator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

True.

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21
Q

T or F: the FADEC is the primary computer for engine control.

A

True.

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22
Q

What powers the FADEC once the engine is running?

A

Permanent magnet alternator (PMA).

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23
Q

What provides an alternate power source for the FADEC during engine starting or if a PMA failure occurs?

A

The essential buses.

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24
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 1020 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Normal takeoff power (NTOP) or max takeoff power (MTOP).

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25
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 900 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Maximum climb (MCL).

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26
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 850 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Maximum cruise (MCR).

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27
Q

What prop speed is automatically set when in the over-travel range?

A

1020 RPM.

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28
Q

What must pilots do to enter the ground beta range?

A

Raise the gate release and move the lever aft to the DISC detent.

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29
Q

T or F: when in MAX REV, propeller RPM is limited.

A

True.

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30
Q

T or F: in order for uptrim to be armed, the power levers must be high and torque on both engines must be at least 50%.

A

True.

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31
Q

When is uptrim triggered?

A

Torque on the failed engine falls below 25% OR NP falls below 80%.

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32
Q

What does the FADEC limit torque to in reverse mode?

A

35%.

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33
Q

What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the forward range?

A

106%.

34
Q

What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the over travel range?

A

135%.

35
Q

T or F: there is an independent engine overspeed protection built into the FADEC and it has the capability of cutting off fuel flow during NH overspeeds.

A

True.

36
Q

T or F: the FADEC fault classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.

A

True.

37
Q

T or F: the FADEC fault classes are warning, advisory, and normal.

A

False, they are critical, cautionary, and advisory.

38
Q

What does a green arc on the engine gauges mean?

A

Normal operating range.

39
Q

What does a yellow arc on the engine gauges mean?

A

Caution range.

40
Q

What does the red dash on the engine gauges mean?

A

Minimum or maximum value.

41
Q

What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge needle enters the cautionary range?

A

Yellow.

42
Q

What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge is in the green arc?

A

White.

43
Q

What happens if the data becomes invalid for either engine gauge?

A

Digital value changes to dashes, gauge changes to white arc, needle is removed.

44
Q

How is torque (TRQ) displayed on the electronic display?

A

As a percentage of max power.

45
Q

T or F: NH is shown in both analog and digital format on the engine display.

A

True.

46
Q

T or F: NL is shown in both analog and digital format on the engine display.

A

False. Only digital.

47
Q

T or F: the oil indications on the engine display show both oil temperature and oil pressure.

A

True.

48
Q

T or F: power lever AND condition lever positions are communicated to the FADEC to determine the appropriate fuel schedule to the engines.

A

True.

49
Q

T or F: the engine ignition system is controlled automatically by the FADEC.

A

True.

50
Q

At about what PSI will the #1 or #2 ENG OIL PRESS warning light illuminate?

A

Below 44 psi.

51
Q

T or F: the oil is cooled by engine intake air.

A

True.

52
Q

T or F: the engine oil system lubricates bearings, gearboxes, and the landing gear.

A

False, it does not lubricate the landing gear.

53
Q

T or F: each propeller is constant-speed and fully feathering and can be operated in the reverse thrust range.

A

True.

54
Q

What controls propeller pitch?

A

Pressurized oil from the engine oil system, controlled by the PCU.

55
Q

T or F: electrical heater elements are bonded to the inner leading edge of every other prop blade for ice protection?

A

False, they are on every blade.

56
Q

What turbine is the prop reduction gear box powered by?

A

Engine power turbine.

57
Q

T or F: if a PEC failure occurs, the PCU automatically defaults to controlling the minimum blade pitch in flight.

A

True.

58
Q

What do the counter weights do when oil pressure is lost in the propeller?

A

Ensure the blade assumes a safe, high pitch angle.

59
Q

T or F: the overspeed governor uses a flyweight design to limit propeller overspeed in the event of a malfunction.

A

True.

60
Q

Propeller RPM in flight depends on the position of what compenents?

A

Condition levers.

61
Q

The PCU uses ____ to control propeller blade angle.

A

Engine oil.

62
Q

T or F: propeller synchrophasing is a manual function.

A

False.

63
Q

T or F: a failed engine with a wind-milling propeller at low blade angle creates a large amount of drag.

A

True.

64
Q

Which of the following is not a method used for propeller feathering?

A

These are: auto feathering, manual feathering, alternate feathing.

65
Q

What must engine torque exceed for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?

A

50%.

66
Q

What must the power levers be above for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?

A

60 degrees.

67
Q

If torque on either engine falls below ____ torque for at least ____ seconds, the PEC commands the propeller to the feather position.

A

25% torque for at least 3 seconds.

68
Q

T or F: pilots can use the alternate feather function if the autofeather does not activate properly or is not selected.

A

True.

69
Q

When is manual feathering most commonly used?

A

Engine shutdown.

70
Q

When should engine intake bypass doors be opened?

A

In icing condition and/or on contaminated runways.

71
Q

FADEC FAIL warning light will ultimately result in which of the following?

A

Shutdown of the powerplant.

72
Q

In the forward range, propeller pitch ____.

A

Is governed to maintain a constant speed.

73
Q

If the aircraft is configured properly for an NTOP takeoff and an engine fails, uptrim automatically accomplishes what?

A

Increases the operating engine’s rating from NTOP to MTOP.

74
Q

If an engine instrument digital display changes to dashes, what must be true?

A

The data is no longer valid.

75
Q

T or F: uptrim is dependent on arming the autofeather system.

A

False.

76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the engine-driven fuel pump is most accurate?

A

It is powered by the engine accessory gearbox.

77
Q

With the ignition switch in NORM, the FADEC activates the ignition circuitry during which of the following?

A

Engine surge, engine flameout, and engine starts.

78
Q

What is engine oil cooled by?

A

An air cooler (intake air).

79
Q

How is propeller pitch controlled?

A

PEC signals the PCU to use engine oil to move a piston in the hub.

80
Q

Pushing the ALT FEATHER switchlight will feather the prop ____.

A

Only when the condition lever and the power levers are in the proper condition.

81
Q

T or F: in the ground beta range, the power levers directly control the propeller pitch angle.

A

True.

Q400 SV (24 decks)

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