Engines Flashcards
For takeoff, pilots will smoothly advance the power levers to the ____ position.
Rating.
T or F: the aircraft has auto-throttle capabilities.
False.
What is the shaft horsepower of each engine under normal takeoff conditions?
4580 SHP.
What does the shaft horsepower increase to on the operating engine in the event of an engine failure after takeoff?
5071 SHP.
T or F: propeller rotation is accomplished by the turning of power turbines.
True.
Where is the accessory gearbox mounted on the engine?
On the high pressure compressor.
T or F: the low pressure (axial) compressors are driven by their associated low pressure turbine.
True.
Which of the following represents the speed of the low pressure axial compressor?
NL.
Which of the following represents the speed of the high pressure centrifugal compressor?
NH.
What powers the power turbines?
Exhaust gas.
When on the ground and the propellers are in the ground range of beta, it is indicated by:
PROPELLER GROUND RANGE light.
T or F: the propeller has a beta range used for reverse thrust on the ground.
True.
What is the purpose of the engine intake bypass doors?
To prevent solid contaminant from entering the engine.
When should the engine intake bypass doors be open on the ground?
On contaminated runways.
When should the engine intake bypass doors be selected open?
In icing and on contaminated runways.
T or F: the auxiliary fuel pump is powered by the accessory gearbox.
False.
T or F: the engine driven fuel pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.
True.
T or F: the oil pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.
True.
T or F: the DC starter generator is attached to the accessory gearbox.
True.
T or F: the permanent magnet alternator is attached to the accessory gearbox.
True.
T or F: the FADEC is the primary computer for engine control.
True.
What powers the FADEC once the engine is running?
Permanent magnet alternator (PMA).
What provides an alternate power source for the FADEC during engine starting or if a PMA failure occurs?
The essential buses.
When the condition levers are set to the 1020 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?
Normal takeoff power (NTOP) or max takeoff power (MTOP).
When the condition levers are set to the 900 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?
Maximum climb (MCL).
When the condition levers are set to the 850 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?
Maximum cruise (MCR).
What prop speed is automatically set when in the over-travel range?
1020 RPM.
What must pilots do to enter the ground beta range?
Raise the gate release and move the lever aft to the DISC detent.
T or F: when in MAX REV, propeller RPM is limited.
True.
T or F: in order for uptrim to be armed, the power levers must be high and torque on both engines must be at least 50%.
True.
When is uptrim triggered?
Torque on the failed engine falls below 25% OR NP falls below 80%.
What does the FADEC limit torque to in reverse mode?
35%.
What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the forward range?
106%.
What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the over travel range?
135%.
T or F: there is an independent engine overspeed protection built into the FADEC and it has the capability of cutting off fuel flow during NH overspeeds.
True.
T or F: the FADEC fault classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.
True.
T or F: the FADEC fault classes are warning, advisory, and normal.
False, they are critical, cautionary, and advisory.
What does a green arc on the engine gauges mean?
Normal operating range.
What does a yellow arc on the engine gauges mean?
Caution range.
What does the red dash on the engine gauges mean?
Minimum or maximum value.
What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge needle enters the cautionary range?
Yellow.
What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge is in the green arc?
White.
What happens if the data becomes invalid for either engine gauge?
Digital value changes to dashes, gauge changes to white arc, needle is removed.
How is torque (TRQ) displayed on the electronic display?
As a percentage of max power.
T or F: NH is shown in both analog and digital format on the engine display.
True.
T or F: NL is shown in both analog and digital format on the engine display.
False. Only digital.
T or F: the oil indications on the engine display show both oil temperature and oil pressure.
True.
T or F: power lever AND condition lever positions are communicated to the FADEC to determine the appropriate fuel schedule to the engines.
True.
T or F: the engine ignition system is controlled automatically by the FADEC.
True.
At about what PSI will the #1 or #2 ENG OIL PRESS warning light illuminate?
Below 44 psi.
T or F: the oil is cooled by engine intake air.
True.
T or F: the engine oil system lubricates bearings, gearboxes, and the landing gear.
False, it does not lubricate the landing gear.
T or F: each propeller is constant-speed and fully feathering and can be operated in the reverse thrust range.
True.
What controls propeller pitch?
Pressurized oil from the engine oil system, controlled by the PCU.
T or F: electrical heater elements are bonded to the inner leading edge of every other prop blade for ice protection?
False, they are on every blade.
What turbine is the prop reduction gear box powered by?
Engine power turbine.
T or F: if a PEC failure occurs, the PCU automatically defaults to controlling the minimum blade pitch in flight.
True.
What do the counter weights do when oil pressure is lost in the propeller?
Ensure the blade assumes a safe, high pitch angle.
T or F: the overspeed governor uses a flyweight design to limit propeller overspeed in the event of a malfunction.
True.
Propeller RPM in flight depends on the position of what compenents?
Condition levers.
The PCU uses ____ to control propeller blade angle.
Engine oil.
T or F: propeller synchrophasing is a manual function.
False.
T or F: a failed engine with a wind-milling propeller at low blade angle creates a large amount of drag.
True.
Which of the following is not a method used for propeller feathering?
These are: auto feathering, manual feathering, alternate feathing.
What must engine torque exceed for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?
50%.
What must the power levers be above for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?
60 degrees.
If torque on either engine falls below ____ torque for at least ____ seconds, the PEC commands the propeller to the feather position.
25% torque for at least 3 seconds.
T or F: pilots can use the alternate feather function if the autofeather does not activate properly or is not selected.
True.
When is manual feathering most commonly used?
Engine shutdown.
When should engine intake bypass doors be opened?
In icing condition and/or on contaminated runways.
FADEC FAIL warning light will ultimately result in which of the following?
Shutdown of the powerplant.
In the forward range, propeller pitch ____.
Is governed to maintain a constant speed.
If the aircraft is configured properly for an NTOP takeoff and an engine fails, uptrim automatically accomplishes what?
Increases the operating engine’s rating from NTOP to MTOP.
If an engine instrument digital display changes to dashes, what must be true?
The data is no longer valid.
T or F: uptrim is dependent on arming the autofeather system.
False.
Which of the following statements regarding the engine-driven fuel pump is most accurate?
It is powered by the engine accessory gearbox.
With the ignition switch in NORM, the FADEC activates the ignition circuitry during which of the following?
Engine surge, engine flameout, and engine starts.
What is engine oil cooled by?
An air cooler (intake air).
How is propeller pitch controlled?
PEC signals the PCU to use engine oil to move a piston in the hub.
Pushing the ALT FEATHER switchlight will feather the prop ____.
Only when the condition lever and the power levers are in the proper condition.
T or F: in the ground beta range, the power levers directly control the propeller pitch angle.
True.
