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RJET E-170 Validation Guide > Melody Gouge Oral > Flashcards

Melody Gouge Oral Flashcards

1
Q

Name three ways the max takeoff weight is derived.

A

The most restrictive of the following:

  1. Max takeoff weight (climb limited)
  2. Max field length limited takeoff weight
  3. Max certified takeoff weight
  4. Obstacle clearance, enroute and landing limitations
  5. Brake energy limit weights

SOP 3-2

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2
Q

What is the max zero fuel weight for the E170? Is that the only number?

A

65,256 lbs or 66,446 lbs. Refer to the dispatch to confirm

SOP 3-3

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3
Q

Where else can we find the zero fuel weight?

A

Dispatch release

SOP 3-3
FOM 12-12

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4
Q

Show me on the release where zero fuel weight is

A

In the computerized flight plan section, estimated and structural ZFW max are listed

FOM 12-12

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5
Q

What would you do if you received the cargo load report and there was more than the max allowable baggage in the forward cargo bin?

A

Write it up, call maintenance because you’ve exceeded a limitation

tbd

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6
Q

What is the forward cargo limit for the E170?

A

3,020 lbs

SOP 3-3

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7
Q

What are all of the crosswind limitations?

A 
Dry - 38 kts
Wet - 31 kts
Compacted snow - 20 kts
Standing water/slush - 18 kts
Wet Ice (no melting) - 12 kts
CAT II - 12 kts (SOP 3-19)

SOP 3-4

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8
Q

Turbulent air penetration speeds for the 170?

A

= 10,000ft - 270 KIAS/0.76M

SOP 3-6

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9
Q

Max tire ground speed

A

195 kts

SOP 3-6

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10
Q

Vfe limits for each flap setting (republic)

A 
1 - 230 KIAS
2 - 215 KIAS
3 - 200 KIAS
4 - 180 KIAS
5 - 180 KIAS
Full - 165 KIAS

SOP 3-6

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11
Q

Direct vision window speed

A

160 KIAS

SOP 3-6

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12
Q

Maneuvering speed

A

240 KIAS

SOP 3-8

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13
Q

Definitions of icing conditions.

A

Icing conditions exist when SAT on ground or TAT in flight is:

  1. 10C and below, and
  2. Visible moisture present, e.g.; clouds, fog,
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14
Q

Where do we set anti-ice?

A

Inflight its set via the Ice Protection Control Panel. Ice Protection Mode Selector knob. AUTO allows automatic operation of the system. ON turns the system on.
On ground and during takeoff the A/I is set via T/O DATASET MENU by pressing TRS button then selecting LSK 6R.

ASM 16-10

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15
Q

What are the anti-ice options and when would we use them?

A

ALL, OFF, ENG

On ground and takeoff the system must be set to ALL during actual or expected icing conditions.

SOP 3-9

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16
Q

During anti-ice ALL, what is heated during taxi? When are the wings heated?

A

Each engine is heated while it is running. Wing is heated once speed > 40 kts

ASM 12-12

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17
Q

Max fuel imbalance?

A

790 lbs

SOP 3-10

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18
Q

Pressurization limits?

A

37,000ft - 8.3psi
Max differential overpressure - 8.7psi
Max neg press diff - -0.5psi
Max diff press for T/O and Land - 0.2psi

SOP 3-11

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19
Q

Max single pack altitude

A

31,000ft

SOP 3-11

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20
Q

Max flap extension altitude?

A

20,000ft

SOP 3-12

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21
Q

Other than speed and altitude limits, what are the limitations on flap use and why?

A

No enroute use, no holding in icing, flaps 4 for takeoff only,

SOP 3-12

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22
Q

Minimum RVSM equipment?

A
  • 2 RVSM compliant ADSs
  • 1 autopilot, engaged, with ALT hold mode operative
  • 1 altitude alerter
  • 1 transponder

SOP 3-14

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23
Q

What are the RVSM altitudes

A

FL290-410

TBD

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24
Q

Max CAT II crosswind component

A

12 kts

SOP 3-19

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25
Q

Starting ITT limit

A

815C

SOP 3-20

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26
Q

Engine starter limits

A

1st and 2nd: 90secs (120 secs inflight) on, 10 secs off
3rd-5th: 90 secs on (120 secs inflight), 5 mins off

SOP 3-22

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27
Q

Engine dry motoring limits

A

1st: 90 secs ON, 5 mins OFF
2nd-5th: 30 secs ON, 5 mins OFF

SOP 3-22

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28
Q

Limits on TRs

A

Ground use only, rejected takeoffs and full stop landings only, no go-around after deployment, no power backs, must be stowed below 60kias, don’t put TLs into forward until REV shows amber or green on EICAS

SOP 3-12

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29
Q

Min autopilot engagement height. min coupled use

A

Engagement - 400 ft AGL
Min use on ILS - 50 ft AGL
Min height Non-precision - MDA

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30
Q

APU altitude limits

A

Max electrical - 33,000ft
Max start - 30,000ft
Max engine start assist - 21,000ft
Max bleed - 15,000ft

SOP 3-23

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31
Q

APU starter limits

A

1st-2nd: 60 secs ON, 60 secs OFF
3rd: 60 secs ON, 5 mins OFF

SOP 3-23

32
Q

Courtesy lights

A

Consists of the main door light, service door light, stairways lights and cockpit step light. Powered by hot batt bus 1

ASM 2-58

33
Q

Items on the hot battery buses

A
  • Courtesy/Service Lights Fwd
  • DC ceiling lights
  • Engine oil level
  • Engine fire extinguishers
  • Engine SOVs
  • Refuel panel
  • Waste and water system controller
  • Central maint computer (CMC)

ASM 6-30

34
Q

Safety and power-on checklist:

What are you checking on maintenance status? What else are you going to do?

A

Verify all maintenance items are appropriate and all MEL/CDLs considered cleared. CBs are in or collared as appropriate. Verify all safety items on board.

SOP 6-3

35
Q

Safety and power-on checklist:

BATT 1 and 2 - ON. What will you see? What screens light up? What things will you get in an electrical emergency?

A
  • EICAS (DU3)
  • Pilot MFD (DU2)
  • Copilot MCDU

ASM 6-25

36
Q

If hydraulic pumps are on, will it screw up the PBIT? What if speed brake lever is open

A

Yes to both

SOP 6-7

37
Q

What is an IDG? How many electrical networks do we have? What if IDG # 2 fails? What are the positions of the bus tie contactors in those situations? If we start the APU, what do the bus contactors do?

A
  • IDG = Integrated Drive Generator
  • The aircraft has two electrical networks
  • If IDG fails, consult QRC/QRH. IDG can be manually disconnected
  • Bus contactor will be open
  • With one IDG failed and APU online, one BTC will open and networks are isolated.

ASM 6-10

38
Q

What do TRUs do?

A

Each Transformer Rectifier Unit converts 115 VAC to 28 VDC.

ASM 6-13

39
Q

What does the amber light mean? When do we get it? What is likely the problem?

A
  • Indicates which IDG is associated with an EICAS “IDG 1 (2) OIL”.
  • Indicates a HOTLOP.
  • Will extinguish once IDG is disconnected.

ASM 6-3, 6-50

40
Q

DVDR tests, how to conduct them

A
  • Honeywell: Press and hold button for 3 secs. Verify no fail messages on EICAS.
  • Universal: Press and hold 2 secs. 10 secs flashing, followed by steady green, happens twice

SOP 6-22

41
Q

Fire test. How do you run it? What are you looking for? What lights up? What messages will you see? What aural warnings? What about ITTs?

A 
Press and hold TEST button. 
Verify: 6-5-4-2
- 6 lights (2 handles and 4 pushbutton)
- 5 EICAS messages
- 4 boxes (2 MSTR WARN lights and 2 ITT FIRE icons)
- 2 aural (Fire bell and triple chime)

SOP 6-24

42
Q

What is the PTU? How does it work? When does it come on? Will it work on the ground?

A
  • Power transfer unit
  • Consists of HYD pump in SYS 2 powered by HYD pressure in SYS 1
  • Assists in gear retraction or extension in event of right engine or EDP failure.

ASM 15-9

43
Q

What kind of hydraulic pumps do we have? What happens if you press the eng pump shutoff button?

A
  • 2 engine driven pumps
  • 4 electric hydraulic pumps
  • ENG PUMP SHUTOFF will close HYD SOV, isolating EDP from respective system

ASM 15-2

44
Q

Pressurization: If we are in manual mode, can we depressurize the cabin using the dump button? How can we depressurize the cabin?

A

No. Dump function is only effective in automatic mode. Hold CABIN ALT switch to UP to depressurize.

ASM 3-4

45
Q

What is LFE? when would we use it?

A

Landing field elevation. Used if destination is not in Nav DB.

ASM 3-5

46
Q

When we push the DUMP button, what happens?

A
  • ECS packs and recirc fans are set to OFF
  • OUTFLOW VALVE opens, commanding 2,000 ft/min climb to 12,400ft cabin alt, then closes

ASM 3-21

47
Q

If we are down to one generator in flight, what happens to windshield heat? What else is shed?

A

Right windshield and galley are load shed

ASM 6-36

48
Q

When will the packs close automatically?

49
Q

When will the bleeds close automatically?

50
Q

When will the O2 masks deploy?

51
Q

Do we have oxygen generators up front?

52
Q

When do we get an EICAS message about the cabin altitude?

53
Q

Flight controls, normal and direct. Explain how each mode works

54
Q

Name some higher level flight control functions

55
Q

Name three ways to extend landing gear

56
Q

how many parking brake applications do we get? Do we have an protections associated with the parking brake?

57
Q

Name the protections you get with normal braking

58
Q

trim switch priority

59
Q

How long does it take the RAT to spool up?

60
Q

What is powering the flight controls during the RAT spool?

61
Q

Name the specific flight controls that HYD system 3 power

62
Q

What kind of fuel pumps do we have? When will the AC pumps come on? Can we transfer fuel? What is the DC pump for?

63
Q

What are the lines on the radome?

A

Static dissipators.

tbd

64
Q

What are the differences between the TAT and smart probes? How many of each?

65
Q

How many ice detectors? How do the ice detectors work? How long will they stay on since the last detection of ice?

66
Q

What do you do if you see an object stuck in an aircraft orifice?

67
Q

Identify the aircraft vents

68
Q

What are the tubes on the landing gear?

69
Q

What are the cables in the landing gear wheel well

70
Q

Max wiper speed

A

250kias

SOP 3-9

71
Q

Limitations on use of windshield wiper, other than speed?

A

Wipers will stop if operated on a dry windshield. Will remain INOP until the control knob is cycled to OFF

ASM 16-13

72
Q

Max fuel quantity

A

10,467 per side; 20,935 lbs total

ASM 14-8

73
Q

Unusable fuel per tank

A

75 lbs

SOP 3-10

74
Q

Min fuel tank temperature

A

-40 C

SOP 3-10

75
Q

Where is the fuel temperature measured?

A

Left fuel tank

ASM 14-3

RJET E-170 Validation Guide (7 decks)

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