Meeran Micriobio Flashcards

1
Q

What is pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

It is a yeast-like fungus that primary affects immunocompromised patients - especially those with HIV and CD4 <200.

Presentation = dry cough, fever, weight loss and night sweats

CXR shows diffuse bilateral pulmonary infilttates and Gomori’s methenamine silver stain shows “flying-saucer” shaped cysts on microsopy.

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2
Q

What is streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Alpha-haemolytic gram+ve diplococci (arranged in pairs).

You use the Quelling reation to stain this capsulated bacteria - mix anti-serum and methylene blue which causes capsule to swell to become visible under microscopy

Optochin-sensitivity also differentiates pneumococcus from Streptococcus viridans (also α-haemolytic), which is optochin-insensitve.

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3
Q

What is staphylococcus aureus?

A

Beta-haemolytic gram+ve cocci arranged in clusters (grape-like)

*All staphylococci are also catalase positive, whereas streptococci are catalase negative

In the GIT, S. aureus produces extotoxin TSST-1 which acts as a superantigen and causes non-specific activation of T cells with release of IL-1, IL-2 and TNF-alpha. This causes a massive immune response leadign to shock and multiple organ failure (with vomiting and diarrhoea approx 12-24hrs post-consumption)

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4
Q

What electrolyte imbalances can be revealed in Legionella pneumophilia?

A

It is a gram-ve rod which causes an atypical pneumonia

Blood chemistry can show hyponatraemia, hypophosphataemia and deranged LFTs

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5
Q

How do you diagnose legionella pneumophilia?

A

Culture of respiratory secretions on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar

or

rapid urinary antigen test

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6
Q

What is moraxella catarrhalis?

A

Aerobic Gram-negative diploccoci which is problematic in patients with chronic lung disease and causes exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD).

Other targets of infection include ears, eyes and central nervous system.

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7
Q

What is haemophilus influenzae?

A

Gram-ve bacillus which can cause annual influenza outbreaks

Chocoalte agar is used to culture it. Further oxidase and catalase tests are positive

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8
Q

What is mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Obligate intracellular bacteria which cause an atypical pneumonia or a mild bronchitis.

A cold-agglutinin test can be used for the diagnosis.

In rare cases, infection may lead to Stevenson–Johnson syndrome.

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9
Q

What is listeria monocytogenes?

A

Beta-haemolytic gram+ve rod that can cause non-invasive gastroenteritis.

It is found in refrigerated food and unpasteurised dairy products

Listeria demonstrates “tumbling motility” due to its flagellar-driven movements.

Neonates and immunocompromised patients are particularly susceptible. Invasive infection can cause more serious problems in these groups including septicaemia, meningitis and encephalitis.

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10
Q

What is virbio cholerae?

A

It is a comma-shaped oxidase positive bacteria which causes profuse watery diarrhoez with no inflammatory cells

Transmission = faecal-oral route

It secretes an enterotoxin which causes active secretion of sodium and chloride ions –> water loss due to osmotic pull of NaCl

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11
Q

What is giardia lamblia?

A

Pear-shaped trophozite containing two nuclei, four flagellae and a suction disc

Transmission is via the ingestion of a cyst from faecally contaminated food/water

Trophozites attach to the duodenum but do not invade –> inhibit protein absorption –> draw water into the GI lumen

Symptoms = foul-smelling non-bloody steatorrhoea with stool containing cysts on microscopy

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12
Q

What does salmonella typhi cause?

A

Enteric fever

It multiples in the Peyer’s patches of the small intestine.

Clinical features include slow onset fever, constipation and splenomegaly. Rose spots are pathognomonic.

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13
Q

What is shigellae?

A

Non-motile, non-hydrogen sulphide producers

This bacteria causes dysentry via invasion of mucosal cells of the distal ileum and colon

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14
Q

What is campylobacter jejuni?

A

Oxidase positive, non-motile bacteria

Transmission via faecal-oral route, generally due to contami- nation by dog faecal matter, causing a watery, foul smelling diarrhoea. Complications include Guillain–Barré syndrome and Reiter’s syndrome.

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15
Q

What is entamoeba histolytica?

A

It is a motile trophozite transmitted by the ingestion of cysts leading to colonisation of the caecum and colon –> “flask-shaped” ulcer

Clinical features involve dysentery, chronic weight loss and liver abscess formation

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16
Q

How would CSF results of mycobacterium tuberculosis present?

A

CSF appearance: clear/fibrin web
Protein: high
Glucose: low
WBC: high

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17
Q

What is leptospira interrogans?

A

Causes Leptospirosis (Weil’s syndrome)

Transmitted via animal contacts

1st stage: non-specific symptoms such as fever, headache, malaise and photophobia

2nd stage: formation of IgM antibodies with meningitis, liver damage (jaundice) and renal failure

Gold standard test = microscopic agglutination test

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18
Q

What is cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Polysaccharide encapsulated yeast which can cause subacute or chronic meningoencephalitis ususally in immunocompromised

Transmitted via inhalation (pigeon droppings)

Diagnosis: examination of CSF with india ink which reveals yeast cells with a surrounding halo. A cryptococcal antigen test can also be used (higher sensitivity)

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19
Q

How does a viral CSF appear?

A

Appearance: colourless
Protein: moderately raised
Glucose: normal
WCC: raised

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20
Q

What are the subtype serovars of chlamydia trachomatis and what do they cause?

A

It is a gram-ve obligate intracellular bacterium

Serovars D-K cause genital chlamydiosis resulting in dyspareunia, dysuria and vaginal/penile discharge

Serovars L1. L2 and L3 cause lymphogranuloma venereum which is a painless papule/ulcer on the genitals which heals spontaneously

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21
Q

What is syphilis caused by?

A

Treponema pallidum

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22
Q

What are the 3 clinical stages of syphilis?

A

Primary - firm painless chancre that appears approximately 1 month after sexual contact and resolves within a few weeks

Secondary - bacteriaemic stage with a widespread rash and lymphadenopathy

Tertiary (decades after primary infection and multi-organ involvement) - gummatous lesionson the skin and bone, aortic arch aneurysm, peripheral neuropathy, tabes dorsalis, Argyll-Robertson pupils

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23
Q

What is Haemophilus ducreyi?

A

Gram-ve coccobacillus that causes tropical ulcer diseaese (chancroid) and is sexually-transmitted. It can be cultured on chocolate agar.

Chancroid is characterized by a painful genital ulcer that leads to unilateral painful swollen inguinal lymph nodes. Infected lymph nodes may rupture releasing pus

Ddx to consider: syphilis, HSV1 and 2, lymphogranuloma venereum

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24
Q

What is a (rare) side effect of flucloxacillin?

A

Cholestatic jaundice which develops weeks after treatment cessation

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25
Q

Why is trimethoprim contra-indicated in pregnancy?

A

It is a folate metabolism inhibitor which interferes with DNA synthesis.

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26
Q

What is the treatment for pneumocystitis jirovecii?

A

Co-trimoxazole: Trimethorpim + sulphamethoxazole

27
Q

WHat are side effects of vancomycin?

A

Renal failure
Ototoxicity
Blood disorders
Rash
Anaphylaxis

28
Q

What is the ideal treatment for Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Cefotaxime (3rd generation cephalosporin)

29
Q

What is chloramphenicol used for and what is a side effect?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Can cause aplastic anaemia

30
Q

What is chloramphenicol used for and what is a side effect?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Can cause aplastic anaemia

31
Q

What type of virus is Hepatitis B and how is it transmitted?

A

It is a double-stranded DNA virus

Transmission is via: sexual contact, contaminated blood products, IV drug use, vertical transfer from mother to child during birth

It has an incubation period of 2-6 months: 20% of infections become chronic with a risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma

32
Q

What other infections are AIDS patients predisposed to?

A

Bacterial - mycobacterium avium-intracellulare, TB
Fungal - candida albicans oesophagitis
Protozoal - pneumocystis jerovicci
Cancers - Kaposi’s sarcoma

33
Q

What is Epstein-Barr virus’ mechanism of action?

A

Primarily infects B lymphocytes by binding via a complement receptor

34
Q

What can EBV virus further cause?

And how can it be diagnosed?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma (latent reactivation of EBV), Burkitt’s lymphoma and nasopharyngeal cancers

It is diagnosed on blood film (atypical lymphocytes), positive monospot test, EBV antibodies in blood

35
Q

What do the haemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) glycoproteins do in influenza virus?

A

HA binds to sialic acid receptors presents in the upper respiratory tract - the viral RNA is inserted into the host cell and HA is cleaved by clara cell tryptase

NA cleaves neuraminic acid (protective component of mucin), consequently disrupting the protective barrier. It also facilities the release of newly formed influenza virions

36
Q

What is the standard treatment for hepatitis B?

A

A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) and interferon-alpha

37
Q

What is oseltamivir?

A

Viral neuraminidase inhibitor used in the treatment of influenza - prefents viral replication and release

38
Q

What is used in CMV infection?

A

Gancyclovir

It is also used in the prophylaxis of CMV in bone marrow transplant patients; HHV6 and EBV virus infection

It can cause bone marrow toxicity so may be prescribed alongisde G-CSF (granulocyte-colony stimulating factor)

39
Q

What is acyclovir’s mechanism of action?

A

It is metabolised into acyclo-GMP by viral thymidine kinase. It it then further phosphorylated into acyclo-GTP. This is then incorporated into the viral DNA which eventually stops DNA polymerase from functioning

40
Q

What are two common presentations of candida albicans in immunocompetent people?

A

Oral thrush - white patches with a red base over mucous membranes of the mouth. Treat with nystatin

Vaginitis - vaginal inflammation with pruritis and discharge. Cottage cheese-like clumps. Treat with oral fluconazole or vaginal clotrimazole

41
Q

What are two common presentations of candida albicans in immunosuppressed people?

A

Oesophagitis - characterised by odynophagia

Candidaemia - severe flu-like symptoms and diagnosed by blood test for beta-D-glucan (compoenent of fungal cell walls)

42
Q

What is pityriasis versicolor?

A

Chronic fungal infection caused by malassezia furfur.

It causes hypopigmentation (in dark skin tones) and hyperpigmentation (in pale skin toles). These spots affect the back, underarm, arm, legs, chest, neck and rarely the face.

Microscopic investigations of malassezia furfur with potassium hydroxide reveals “spaghetti with meatballs”.

Wood’s light can also reveral orange fluorescence

43
Q

What is aspergillus flavus associated with?

A

Allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) - type I hypersensitivity reaction.

Aspergilloma - lung cavity on CXR

Invasive aspergillosis - chronic necrotising infection in neutropenic patients or end-stage AIDS

Hepatocellular carcinoma (via production of carcinogen aflatoxin)

44
Q

What is rose garderner’s disease?

A

It is caused by sporothrix schenckii which is a fungus found in the soil and plants causing sporotrichosis.

A prick can cause nodular lesions on the skin whih can then become ulcerated if left untreated.

Infection may also spread to joints, bone and muscle by this route. Inhalation of spores may lead to pulmonary disease and systemic infection may lead to central nervous system involvement.

Treatment = itraconazole, fluconazole and oral potassium iodide.

45
Q

What is Brucellosis?

A

It is a gram negative bacillus that is seen in many animals - cattle, goats, pigs, dogs

They can be transmitted by inhalation, unpasteurised dairy produce or direct contact with animals.

Symptoms: fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tiredness, depression

Diagnosis: blood culture on castaneda medium

Complications: granulomatous hepatitis, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, thrombocytopenia

46
Q

What is lyme disease?

A

It is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and trasmitted by Ixodes ticks

Initial symptoms include: erythema migrans, malaise, fever and MSK pain

Later symptoms: neurological (headache, meningitis and Bell’s palsy), cardiac (arrhythmias, myocarditis and pericarditis)

PEACH
Peripheral neuropathy
Erythema chronicum migrans
Arthritis
Cranial nerve palsies
Heart block

47
Q

What is Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A

It is caused by rickettsia (gram -ve).

It is found in small wild rodents and domestic animals (transmitted to humans via ticks).

Rickettsia can cause vasculitis by invading the endothelial lining of capillary

Early signs = headache, fever, myalgia, vomiting, confusion

Late signs = maculopapular rash

48
Q

What is psittacosis?

A

It is caused by chlamydia psittaci (contracted from birds).

It can cause severe pneumonia ± hepatitis

Diagnosis; cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa staining, fluorescent anitbody stained sputum or biopsy sample

49
Q

What is mycobacterium marinium?

A

It is a disease transmitted by a bite or fin injury of a fish.

Infections can cause nodules to appear on the elbows, knees and feet

50
Q

What can occur years after primary measles infection?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

It can lead to CNS damage with loss of neurological function, dementia and eventually death

51
Q

Why is plasma amylsase raised during mumps infection?

A

Due to salivary gland inflammation

52
Q

What are longterm complications of syphilis?

A

Saddle nose deformity

Higoumenaki’s sign - unilateral enlargement of the clavicle

Clutton’s joints - symmetrical joint swelling

53
Q

What is the appearance of myclobacterium tuberculosis on a Lowenstein-Jensen medium?

A

“Buff, rough and tough”

Buff: brown coffee-coloured
Rough: Granular bread crumb-like colonies
Tough: Colonies stick to the bottm of the growth plate and are hard to remove

It takes approxiamtely 4-6 weeks for these colonies to be visible

54
Q

What stains can be used to detect TB?

A

Ziehl-Neelson: bright red against a blue background

Auramine: yellow fluorescence

55
Q

Keywords for klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Gram -ve bacillus
Alcoholics and elderly

“red currant jelly” blood-stained sputum

Commonly leads to lung abscesses and empyemas

56
Q

Common important oxidase positive organisms

A

Pseudomonas
Neisseria
Campylobacter
Helicobacter
Moraxella
Vibrio
Legionella

57
Q

What are the subtypes of leishmaniasis?

A

Visceral (aka Kala-azar):
* Presentation - fever, hepatosplenomegaly, skin hyperpigmentation, dry warty skin
* Caused by - L. donovani, L. infantum and L. chagasi

Cutaneous:
* Presentation - Itchy papule at the bite site which turns into an ulcer with raised edges + local lymphadenopathy
* Caused by - L. major, L. tropica

Mucocutaenous (severe form of cutaneous):
* Presentation - mutilation of mucous membranes, and disfiguring facial lesions
* Caused by - L. braziliensis,

58
Q

What can influence the clearance of hepatitis C virus?

A

The specific genotype - genotype 1 has a poor response to antiviral treatment than other genotypes

59
Q

What are the different types of human africa trypanosomiasis?

A

Transmitted by Tsetse flies

Two main types:

Trypanosoma brucei grambiense
* West and central Africa
* 95% of total cases
* Gradual infection - months/years

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
* South and eastern Africa
* 5% of total cases
* Rapid (acute) infection - weeks/months

60
Q

What causes Chagas disease?

A

Trypansoma cruzi through reduviid bug transmission

61
Q

What is the pattern of fever spikes in malaria?

A

Plasmodium knolwesi - quotidian (every 24hrs)
Plasmodium malariae - quartan (every 72hrs)
Everything else - tertian (every 48hrs)

62
Q

What is the life cycle of malaria?

A
  1. Female anopheles mosquite injfects sporozites into a person’s blood stream
  2. Sporozites are taken to the liver and infect hepatocytes
  3. Multiply and differentiate to form haploid merozoites which have a signet-ring appearance (found in schizonts). P vivax and ovale do not form merozoites, instead forming hypnozoites that reamin dormant in the liver
  4. Merozoites escape the liver and infect RBCs in the blood stream
  5. Merozoites multiply in RBCs and are released (spikes of fever correspçond to release of more merozoites)
  6. Some merozoites develop into sexual forms of the parasite (male and female gametocytes)
  7. Gametocytes are ingested by another mosquito which forms gametes –> oocytes –> sporozites to re-infect the next person
63
Q

What cells can be seen on plasmodium falciparum electron microscopy?

A

Maurer’s clefts - disc-like granulations of the erythrocytic life cycle of the malarial parasite

64
Q

A 58yo man presents to hospital with hip pain after a fall. X-rays confirm a left fractured neck of femur, and patient undergoes a left total hip replacement. Two weeks later, he returns to hospital complaining of increasing pain, stiffness and swelling around the left hip – this has worsened since discharge, and he says it ‘never really felt right’. Infection of the prosthetic joint is considered likely. Which organism would most likely be responsible?

A

Staph epidermis