Meeran Chempath Flashcards

1
Q

When does pseudohyponatraemia occur and why?

A

Occurs in hyperlipidaemia or hyperproteinaemia as they occupy a high proportion of the total serum volume. This dilution then causes an apparent hyponatraemia.

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2
Q

What electrolyte imbalance does Addison’s disease show?

A

Hyponatramemia and hyperkalaemia due to impaired aldosterone synthesis (though ACTH will be high)

You can also get hypoglycaemia due to reduced cortisol production

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3
Q

How do you differentiate CKD vs heart failure in hypervolaemic hyponatraemia

A

urine osmolality > 20mmol/l = suggestive of renal cause

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4
Q

What can cause a redistributive hypokalaemia (i.e. potassium shifts from extracellular space into intracellular space)?

A

Insulin overdose
Metabolic acidosis
Adrenaline
Re-feeding syndrome

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5
Q

How does renal failure cause hyperkalaemia?

A

It is secondary to reduced distal renal delivery of sodium ions - this means there is reduced potassium exchange at Na/K ATPase pump in the collecting duct. This causes an accumulation of K in the blood.

*Renal failure will also present with deranged urea and creatinine levels

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6
Q

What is Bartter syndrome?

A

autosomal recessive condition causing a defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle –> hypokalaemia, alkalosis and hypotension. It is associated with NKCC2 or ROMK genes

It can calso cause increased calcioum loss via the urine (hypercalcuria) and the kidneys (nephrocalcinosis)

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7
Q

What is renal tubular acidosis?

A

There is a defect in the H+ secretion into the renal tubules. This then means there is increase potassium secretion into the renal tubules to balance the sodium reabsorped, producing a picture of hypokalaemia with acidosis.

4 different types according to location of defect
Type 1 = distal tubule
Type 2 = proximal tubule
Type 3 = distal and proximal
Type 4 (hyperkalaemia with acidosis) = reduced aldosterone production secondary to defect in adrenal glands

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8
Q

LFTs of gallstones

A

raised GGT and ALP (obstructive picture), that are greater than raises in AST and ALT

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9
Q

LFT for Gilbert’s syndrome

A

normal LFTs apart from raised unconjugated bilirubin.

Conjugated bilirubin is normal

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10
Q

LFTs for non-alcohol fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

A

raised AST and ALT (AST:ALT ratio <1), and increased GGT
Bilirubin and albumin normal

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11
Q

LFTs for alcohol abuse

A

in absence of underlying liver disease, they can present with only an isolated rise in GGT.

Sometimes mild elevations in AST and ALT to suggest mild hepatic damage

*Isolated rises in GGT can also be due to consumption of enzyme-inducing drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine and phenobarbitone

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12
Q

LFTs for alcohol liver disease

A

raised GGT, AST and ALT (with AST:ALT ratio >2)

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13
Q

LFTs of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

raised AFP

There may be deranged LFTs but that would be of underlying pathology

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14
Q

What does a short synACTHen test do?

A

Measure plasma cortisol at 0 minutes
Give 250ug of synthetic ACTH at 30 minutes
Measure plasma cortisol at 60 minutes (if <550nmol/L, then there is a defect in cortisol production

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15
Q

What does a long synACTHen test do?

A

It distinguishes between a primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency issue.

A 1mg dose of synthetic ACTH is administered - after 24hrs if the cortisol level is <900nmol/L then this means there is a primary defect

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16
Q

How are prolactinomas classified?

A

Microprolactinoma: <10mm
Macroprolactinoma: >10mm

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17
Q

What clinical consequences of prolactinomas are there?

A
  1. Hormonal effect from increase in prolactin production (e.g amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia in males)
  2. Mass effect of tumour (compression of pituitary cells which affects other hormone production like TSH, GH and ACTH)
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18
Q

What is the diagnostic test for acromegaly?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) of 75mg glucose - if growth hormone is not suppressed to below 2mU/L, then acromegaly is diagnosed

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19
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism –> leads to reduced LH and FSH production.

Anosmia is also an associated feature

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20
Q

What is De Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

Post-virus induced thyroiditis which initially presents as hyperthyroidism because thyroxine from colloid cells enters the circulation. Then hypothyroidism ensures for a period as thyroxine stores are depleted

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21
Q

Clinical blood test for Paget’s?

A

All calcium blood studies will be normal apart from a raised ALP

*Thought to be due to paramyxovirus which causes impaired bone remodelling - new bone is larger but weaker and prone to fracture

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22
Q

What differentiates secondary hyperparathyroidism from osteolamacia?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism is the release of PTH as a consequence of hypocalcaemia that arises from non-parathyroid pathology (i.e. chronic renal failure).

Osteomalacia is due to insufficient bone mineralisation 2º to vitamin D or phosphate deficiency. Low vitamin D causes hypocalcaemia due to reduced 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D production so there is reduced calcium resorption from the gut - this then causes an increase in PTH production - this causes increased bone resorption so ALP rises

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23
Q

What is familial benign hypercalcaemia?

A

Genetic condition that results in a mutation in the calcium receptor on parathyroid glands and kidneys. This causes an underestimation of calcium which leads to increased PTH production, and therefore a hypercalcaemic picture. The receptor failure in kidneys reduces calcium excretion, so there is also a hypocalcuric state.

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24
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Genetic condition where there is resistance to PTH. Therefore, patients have high PTH and phosphate, but low calcium.

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25
Q

Where is amylase produced?

A

Parotid glands and pancreas

*In inflammation of the parotid glands (i.e. mumps), high levels of amylase get released into the blood stream. It can also be used to diagnose pancreatitis

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26
Q

How does ferritin distinguish between different causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

*Ferritin is responsable for the storage of iron. It is also an acute phase protein so will raise secondary to inflammation

Iron deficiency anaemia (i.e. GI bleed) - reduced ferritin, reduced serum iron, raised TIBC

Anaemia of chronic disease - raised ferritin

Thalassaemia - normal ferritin

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27
Q

Features of B12 deficiency

A

Raised MCV and hypersegemented neutrophils

Subacute combined degeneration of the cord –> ataxia and progressive weakness in lumbs and trunks; babinski’s sign positive

*Can be caused by pernicious anaemia which has associations with other autoimmune diseases like Grave’s

28
Q

What does Vitamin C do?

A

It is a water soluble vitamin, important for the hydroxylation of collagen. If vitamin C is lacking, collagen cannot form a helical structure and hence cannot produce any cross-links –> damaged vessels and slow healing wounds.

Vitamin C deficiecny results in scurvy: bleeding (gums, skin and joints) and bone weakness (microfractures and brittle bones)

29
Q

What does Vitamin E do?

A

It is an important anti-oxidant (scavenges free radicals in blood). If vitamin E is deficient, it leads to haemolytic anaemia which can be present alongside spino-cerebellar neuropathy (ataxia and areflexia).

Vitamin E deficiency also has an increased risk of ischaemic heart disease later in life due to oxidation of LDLs which perpetuate atherosclerosis.

30
Q

What does Vitamin B6 do?

A

It is an essential co-factor in numerous metabolic pathways such as amino acid and neurotransmitter synthesis.

Common causes of vitamin B6 deficiency include reduced dietary intake and TB treatment (isoniazid).

B6 deficiency can present as sideroblastic anaemia and seborrhoeic dermatitis. Diagnosis is made by determining erythrocyte levels of aspartate aminotransferase

31
Q

What happens in Vitamin A deficiency?

A

Deficiency in vitamin A impairs the production of rods (causing night blindness). There can also be ocular epithelial changes which cause conjunctival Bitot’s spots.

Deficiency can also predispose measles and diarrhoeal illnesses

32
Q

What happens in Vitamin B2 deficiency?

A

Deficiency in vitamin B2 leads to mucosal damage and presents with angular stomatitis, glossitis and/or corneal ulceration

33
Q

What is homocystinuria?

A

Amino acid disorder where there is a deficiency in the enzyme cystathionine synthetase. This causes children to present with very fair skin and brittle hair. It can also lead to developmental delays and progressive learning difficulties.

Convulsions, skeletal abnormalities and thrombotic episodes have also been reported. Management include Vitamin B6 supplementation and maintaining a low-methionine diet.

34
Q

What is phenylketonuria?

A

Amino acid disorder where there is a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.

This is currently diagnosed at birth through the Guthrie test.

The child will be fair-haired and present with developmental delay between 6 and 12 months. Later in life, the IQ will be severely impaired. Eczema and seizures have also been implicated in the disease process.

35
Q

What is maple syrup urine disease?

A

Organic aciduria with impaired metabolism of leucine, isoleucine and valine. As a result, accumulation of toxic compounds occue causing toxic encephalopathy (lethargy, poor feeding, hypotonia. seizures).

Characteristically, they will present with sweet odour and sweaty feet.

Gold diagnostic test = gas chromatography with mass spectometry.

Management = avoid certain amino acids

36
Q

What is Fabry’s disease?

A

Lysosomal storage disorder with a deficiency in alpha-galactosidase.

Presentation is a child with developmental delays and dysmorphia. They can also present with movement abnormalities, seizures, deafness, blindness. Examination findings may include hepatosplenomegaly, pulmonary and cardiac problems.

Pathognomonic feature of lysosomal storage disorders = “cherry-red spot”

37
Q

What are peroxisomal disorders?

A

These result from disordered beta-oxidation of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA), which accumulate in the blood stream.

Neonates present with seizures, dysmorphic features, severe muscular hypotonia and jaundice.

38
Q

What is short-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase (SCAD) defiency?

A

One of four fatty acid oxidation disorders.

Presents in neonates with failure to thrive, hypotopnia, metabolic acidosis and hyperglycaemia.

39
Q

What are urea cycle disorders?

A

Deficiency in one of six enzymes in the urea cycle –> hyperammonaemia

Presents as encephalopathy with other neurological features

*Autosomal recessive

40
Q

What is galactosaemia?

A

Deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (Gal-1-PUT)

Symptoms occur after milk ingestion - poor feeding, vomiting, jaundice and hepatomegaly.

Management = galactose-free diet

41
Q

What is phenytoin?

A

Anti-epileptic agent with a narrow therapeutic range (10-20ug/ml)

Drug toxicity occurs by saturation of CYP enzymes in the liver - causes hypotension, heart block, ventricular arrhythmias and ataxia

42
Q

What is lithium?

A

Mood stabiliser commonly used in bipolar affective disorder.

Drug monitoring needs to be done 12hrs post-dose. Lithium is excreted by the kidneys so serum drug levels may increase (with potential toxicity) in states of low GFR, sodium depletion and diuretic use.

Lithium toxicity presents as diarrhoea, vomiting, dysarthria and coarse tremor. Severe toxicity can cause convulsions, renal failure and possibly death

43
Q

What is gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycoside antibiotic useful against gram-ve bacteria.

Factors precipitating gentamicin toxicity include: dosage, kidney function and other medications like vancomycin.

Gentamicin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic which can lead to deafness (as well as balance and vision issues through targetting the vestibular system) and renal failure

44
Q

What is digoxin?

A

Anti-arrhythmic agent used to treat atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. Toxicity occurs due to its narrow therapeutic window

Toxicity signs and symptoms include: tiredness, blurred vision, nausea, abdominal pain and confusion - ECG changes may show a prolonged PR interval and bradycardia. As it is excrreted via the kidneys, renal failure can also ensue if there is accumulation

45
Q

What is theophylline?

A

Drug used to treat asthma and COPD.

Toxicity can manifest as nausea, diarrhoea, tachycardia arrhythmias and headaches. Severe toxicity can cause seizures.

Toxic effects are potentiated by erythromycin and ciprofloxacin

46
Q

What is procainamide?

A

Anti-arrhythmic agent with toxicity leading to rash, fever and agranulocytosis.

Toxic levels can also lead to drug-induced lupus erythematous

47
Q

What is methotrexate?

A

Anti-folate drug commonly used in cancer and autoimmune condition treatments.

Toxicity can lead to ulcerative stomatitis, leukocytopenia and rarely pulmonary fibrosis

48
Q

What is carbamazepine?

A

Anti-convulsant medication.

Toxicity can cause headaches, ataxia and abdominal pain. It can also cause SIADH (through increased production of vasopressin) and rarely aplastic anaemia.

*It is part of the “terrible 3Cs” that cause aplastic anaemia *- carbamazepine, carbimazole and chloramphenicol

49
Q

What are the electrolyte abnormalities present in bulaemia nervosa?

A

Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia alongside paradoxical aciduria

The hypokalaemia is present due to the loss of H+ ions. Remember LOW POTASSIUM = LOW HYDROGEN

There is then a further loss of potassium and hydrogen through the kidneys (in order to preserve sodium and water - ?due to dehydration). Hence you get an aciduria

50
Q

What is the exclusion criteria for SIADH?

A

“Two low in the blood” - hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality
“Two high in the urine” - high urinary sodium >20mmol/l and high urinary osmolality
“Three exclusions everywhere else” - NO renal/adrenal/thyroidi/cardiac cause, NO hypovolaemia, NO contributing drugs

51
Q

What do you measure to detect thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency?

A

Red blood cell transkelotase - it is a thiamine pryophosphate requiring enzyme which catalyses reactions in the pentose phosphate pathway essential for regenerarting NADPH in erythrocytes

52
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can tissue injury cause

A

Hyperkalaemia

  1. Infarction leading to reduced aerobic respiration so Na-K gradient is not maintained causing potassium release into the blood stream from intracellularly
  2. Cell damage with intracellular potassium leaking into plasma
53
Q

How does GI losses (diarrhoea or vomiting) lead to hypernatraemia and then hyponatraemia?

A

You get an initial water loss which is paired with raised sodium (due to reduction in circulating volume)

The reduction in circulating volume leads to reduced blood flow to the kidneys. This results in increased renin secretion from the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidneys.

Renin converts to angiotensinogen which is then converted to angiotensin I which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) in the lungs.

Angiotensin II increased aldosterone release which acts to increase sodium retention alongside ADH release from the posterior pituitary. ADH increases free water retention (not to the level of euvolaemia, but slightly above that of hypovolaemia).

Hence you start off with a hypernatraemic pictuire followed by hyponatraemia

54
Q

What is the water deprivation test and what does it show?

A

The water deprivation test measures weight, total urine volume and urine osmolality at 3 different intervals (0 hours, 8 hours and 16 hours).

At 8 hours, you measure the urine osmolality and if it is >800mOsmol/kg it suggests endogenous vasopressin action is fine. If it is <300mOsmol/kg then it suggests the urine is dilute (cranial or nephorgenic diabetes insipidus). You then administer 2micrograms of desmopressin. They can also drink water of up to 1.5x their total urine output in the first 8 hours (any more and you nullify the test).

At 16 hours (post-desmopressin), you remeasure the osmolality and if it is >800 you suggest that the desmopressin is working and this is cranial DI. If it is low <300 then it’s nephrogenic DI.

Any weight loss of >5% in an adult is an indication to stop.

In psychogenic polydipsia you get a normal test with excessive water drinking despite no physiological stimulus.

55
Q

How can chronic psychogenic polydipsia present?

A

It can result in mineral washout of the renal interstitium resulting in a physiological inability to concentrate urine - in other words nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

56
Q

What causes gout?

A

Gout can be acute or chronic and is caused by hyperuricaemia

Hyperuricaemia is caused by either increased urate production or decreased urate excretion

57
Q

How do the following exacerbate gout?

Thiazide diuretics
Alcohol
Chemotherapy
Aspirin
Psoriasis?

A

Thiazide diuretics - inhibit NaCl transport in distal convoluted tubule and increase uric acid concentration.

Alcohol - increased ATP turnover which activates salvage pathway producing more urate. It produces organic compounds which compete with urate in the kidney for excretion.

Chemotherapy - destruction of malignant cells which release intracellular components (including purines) into the blood

Aspirin - directly competes with urate acid for excetion in the nephron

Psoriasis (severe) - T-cell mediated hyperproliferation with eventual breakdown of cells releasing intracellular components (same mechanism as chemotherapy)

58
Q

Which is not commonly associated with chronic renal failure?

  • Acidosis
  • Anaemia
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Hypophosphataemia
A

Hypophosphataemia - hyperphosphataemia is associated instead.

REMEMBER KIDNEYS EXCRETE PHOSPHATE (PHOSPHATE TRASHING HORMONE)

59
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of raised alkaline phosphatase levels?

  • Pregnancy
  • Paget’s
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Obstructive jaundice
  • Myeloma
A

Myeloma

ALP is caused by osteoblast activation whereas in myeloma there is direct osteoclast activation through the release of various cytokines. Although you see areas of lysis on XR, there is little osteoblast response leading to a normal ALP

60
Q

What are the causes of raised ALP?

A

Liver - cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, tumour
Drugs - phenytoin, erythromycin, carbamazepine, verapamil
Bones (bone disease) - Paget’s, renal osteodystrophy, fracture
Bones (non-bone disease) - vitamin D deficiency, malignancy, secondary hyperparathyroidism
Cancer (non-bony mets) - breast, colon and Hodgkin’s lymphoma

61
Q

How many half lives does it take drugs in general to reach steady state?

A

4-5 half lives.

Steady state in pharmacology refers to the point at which the amount of a drug being administered is balanced by the amount being eliminated from the body. This occurs when the rate of drug intake and the rate of drug elimination are equal.

62
Q

What calcium imbalance is a consequence of pancreatitis?

A

Hypocalcaemia due to fat saponification from the released enzymes

*Hypercalcaemia is a cause of pancreatitis through increased small intraductal stones in the pancreas creating a blockage

63
Q

Which of the following does not lower plasma potassium levels?

  • Calcium resonium
  • Sodium bicarbonate
  • Calcium gluconate
  • Insulin
  • Salbutamol
A

Calcioum gluconate - it is given in hyperkalaemia to stabilise the myocardium to prevent fatal arrhythmias. It does this by increasing the threshold potential making the myocardium less exitable

64
Q

What is creatinine kinease muscle brain (MB)?

A

It is a heart isoenzyme which rises about 6-12 hours post-infarction and peaks in concentration at 24 hours. It then reduces to normal within 48-72hours.

It is very sensitive especially in re-infarction due to its rapid return to normal levels (compared to troponin I and T).

Good explanation in page 72 of chemical path SBAs.

65
Q

What is the commonest cause of primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia of zona glomerulosa