MedSurg 1 Final Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the best way to prevent spread of infection

A

wash hands

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2
Q

What type of precaution standards would be followed for a patient with TB in lungs

A

Airborne

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3
Q

How would the nurse protect herself if someone had TB

A

N-95 mask, gloves, gown

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4
Q

What type of precautions are followed for a person with C-Diff?

A

Contact precautions

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5
Q

How would the nurse protect herself from C-diff

A

gloves, gown

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6
Q

What are standard precautions and when should they be used

A

hand washing, gloves, gown, mask,

Use all the time

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7
Q

What is normal WBC

A

5,000-10,000

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8
Q

If WBC’s are high it is called

A

leukocytosis

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9
Q

The cause of hypovolemic shock

A

sudden blood or fluid loss

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10
Q

The cause of cardiogenic shock

A

heart fails as a pump- heart attack

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11
Q

The cause of Obstructive shock

A

pressure on chest-obstruction in heart

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12
Q

The cause of Distributive shock

A

Allergy, Infection, severe CNS damage

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13
Q

What type of distributive shock is from an infection

A

septic

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14
Q

What type of distributive shock is from an antigen/antibody reaction

A

Anaphylactic

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15
Q

Which adrenergic medication would be given for anaphylactic shock

A

epinephrine

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16
Q

What are symptoms of each type of shock

A

low BP, tachycardia, shallow breathing

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17
Q

What is a key symptom in all forms of shock

A

low BP

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18
Q

What type of shock can result from a hemorrhage

A

Hypovolemic

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19
Q

What blood type is considered the universal donor

A

O negative

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20
Q

What is parkinson’s disease

A

disorder of central nervous system that makes people shake their hands when doing things

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21
Q

What is the main concern for a patient with parkinsons

A

falling

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22
Q

What are some precautions when a patient will be receiving dye for tests

A

allergies to shellfish and iodine

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23
Q

What is the rhomberg test

A

tests for balance

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24
Q

How should the nurse take care of a patient experiencing a seizure

A

safety
don’t restrain
turn on side

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25
Q

What are signs of increased ICP

A
headache, confusion, N/V
cushings triad(widening pulse pressure, hypertension, irregular respirations
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26
Q

What is the first sign of increased ICP

A

decreased LOC

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27
Q

What osmotic diuretic is commonly given to decrease ICP

A

mannitol

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28
Q

What are common side effects of anticholinergic medications

A

dry mouth, blurred vision, hallucinations, increased pulse, increased BP

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29
Q

How long after a stroke can thrombolytics be given

A

3 hours

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30
Q

What is the effect of heparin

A

blood thinner

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31
Q

what is the antidote for heparin

A

protamine sulfate

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32
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

fatigue, weight gain, dry skin, hair loss, low BP

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33
Q

What medication is commonly given for hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine

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34
Q

when should levothyroxine be given

A

on an empty stomach so it absorbs

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35
Q

What are common symptoms of diabetes mellitus

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

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36
Q

What is acromegaly and what are the symptoms

A

giant as an adult

symptoms: large hand and feet, big face

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37
Q

What are precautions and side effects of taking corticosteroids

A

don’t withdraw

fat on back, increased blood sugar, cataracts, increased risk of infection

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38
Q

What are symptoms of hypoparathyroidism

A

tetany, chovsteks, trosseu

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39
Q

What medication should be given for hypoparathyroidism

A

calcium gluconate

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40
Q

What is the onset of Novolog

A

15 minutes

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41
Q

what is the onset of Novolin R

A

30 min

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42
Q

What is the onset of Novolin N

A

1.5 hr

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43
Q

what is the onset of Lantus

A

1 hr

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44
Q

Where is insulin made

A

beta cells in the pancrease

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45
Q

what is the preferred site of an insulin injection

A

stomach

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46
Q

what is pitting edema

A

can push it in

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47
Q

Where is the PMI

A

mid clavicular, 5th intercostal space

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48
Q

What is the pathway of electrical conduction through the heart

A

SA node-AV node-Bundle of His-R/L Bundle Branches-Purkenje fibers

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49
Q

What lung sounds are indicative of left sided heart failure

A

crackles

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50
Q

what is a vagal reaction and what can cause it

A

fainting

bearing down or gagging

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51
Q

Know the pathway of blood through the heart

A

vena cava-right atrium-tricuspid valve-right ventricle-pulmonary valve-pulmonary artery-lungs-pulmonary vein-left atrium-mitral valve-left ventricle-aortic valve-aorta

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52
Q

What blood test is used to monitor clotting times when a patient is on warfarin

A

PT and INR

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53
Q

What is prehypertension

A

120-139/80-89

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54
Q

what is hypertension 1

A

140-159/90-99

55
Q

what is hypertension 2

A

greater than 160/greater than 100

56
Q

what would the nurse teach a patient on anti-hypertensives dealing with postural hypotension

A

stand up slowly

57
Q

What are complications of untreated hypertension

A

stroke, heart attack, kidney failure, circulation problems, blind

58
Q

What type of diet should a hypertensive patient follow

A

low salt

59
Q

When giving thiazide or loop diuretics, what electrolyte loss is of greatest concern

A

potassium

60
Q

a patient has a history of rheumatic fever or valve replacement, what should he take prior to any dental or invasive procedure

A

prophylactic antibiotic

61
Q

what is cardiomyopathy

A

disease of heart muscle

62
Q

what are symptoms of pericarditis

A

intense pain-when you sit up and lean forward, it gets better

63
Q

what is aortic stenosis

A

narrowing and hardening of aortic valve

64
Q

aortic regurgitation

A

aortic valve doesn’t close all the way which causes backflow

65
Q

mitral stenosis

A

narrowing and hardening of mitral valve

66
Q

mitral regurgitation

A

mitral valve doesn’t close all the way which causes backflow

67
Q

mitral valve prolapse

A

mitral valve prolapses into the left ventricle

68
Q

if a patient is taking a ‘statin’ medication, what food should he or she avoid

A

grapefruit or grapefruit juice

69
Q

nitroglycerine is contraindicated if a patient has taken what medication within the last 48 days

A

erectile dysfunction meds

70
Q

what are side effects of nitroglycerin tablems

A

hypotension, painful headache

71
Q

what is the desired INR level of a patient on warfarin

A

2-3

72
Q

what would you do if the INR is high

A

hold med and call the doctor

73
Q

what would be done if the INR is low

A

give a higher dose or another blood thinner

74
Q

why is a dysrhythmia a problem

A

heart doesn’t pump effectively

75
Q

what is the difference between a positive inotropic drug and a positive chronotropic drug

A

positive inotropic drug-affects the force of contractions

positive chronotropic drug-affects the heart rate

76
Q

what do the p waves look like in atrial flutter

A

sawtooth

77
Q

what is sinus tachycardia

A

pulse greater than 100

78
Q

what is sinus bradycardia

A

pulse less than 60

79
Q

atrial fibrillation

A

quivering, irregular heart beat

80
Q

ventricular tachycardia

A

ventricles beat very fast

81
Q

ventricular fibrillation

A

ventricles quiver and hear beats irregularly

82
Q

After assessing the patient, the nurse finds that the bradycardia the patient is experience is symptomatic, what medication is typically given for symptomatic bradycardia

A

Atropine

83
Q

When is the best time of day for diuretics to be given

A

morning

84
Q

What step should be taken before administering Digoxin

A

Apical pulse

85
Q

What should you do if the apical pulse is below normal

A

hold meds-call doctor

86
Q

What is the best way to determine fluid loss/gain

A

daily weight

87
Q

What is the primary goal in treating CHF

A

to reduce the workload of the heart

88
Q

What are symptoms of right sided heart failure

A

edema, jugular vein distention, ascities

89
Q

What are symptoms of left sided heart failure

A

pink, frothy sputum, pulmonary edema, fatigue, crackles

90
Q

What are normal sodium levels

A

135-145

91
Q

What are normal potassium levels

A

3.5-5

92
Q

What blood test is indicative of heart failure

A

brain natriuretic peptide

93
Q

What heart sound is indicative of heart failure

A

S3 - kentucky

94
Q

What should the nurse do if she walks into a room and finds the patient unresponsive and the monitor shows asystole

A

start CPR - call for help

95
Q

If a patient shows signs of having a blood transfusion reaction, what is the first step the nurse should take

A

stop the blood transfusion

96
Q

What in the patient’s history could indicate a possible B12 deficiency

A

vegetarian

gastric bypass

97
Q

a low erythrocyte count indicates

A

anemia

98
Q

a high leukocyte count indicates

A

infection

99
Q

a low thrombocyte count can cause increased

A

bleeding

100
Q

a high thrombocyte count can cause increased

A

clotting

101
Q

what is the suffix for too many cells

A

-osis

102
Q

what is the suffix for too few cells

A

-penia

103
Q

What is pernicious anemia

A

anemia caused by low B12

104
Q

What is iron deficiency anemia

A

anemia caused by lack of iron

105
Q

How should the IM iron injection be given

A

z-track

106
Q

how should oral liquid iron be given

A

use a straw with orange juice

107
Q

what are side effects of iron administration

A

black stool
stained teeth
constipation

108
Q

what is idiopathic thromboyctopenia purpura

A

don’t have platelets

109
Q

what are symptoms of idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

petichiae, bleeding everywhere

110
Q

What is sickle cell disease

A

RBC’s sickle and harden

111
Q

which ethnicity would most likely be affected

A

African Americans

112
Q

what is the main concern with patients in sickle cell crisis

A

pain

113
Q

what is the difference between hodgkin’s and non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Hodgkin’s has reed sternberg cells

114
Q

what is the main concern for a patient with leukemia

A

infection

115
Q

what is multiple myeloma and what area of the body would you see the first symptoms

A

cancer of plasma

bone marrow

116
Q

Name the pathway of airflow through the respiratory system

A

nose - nasopharynx - oropharynx - laryngeopharynx - trachea - bronchi - bronchioles - alveoli

117
Q

What are symptoms of asthma

A

chest pain, cough, wheezing, difficulty breathing

118
Q

what is tidal volume

A

what you breathe in and out

119
Q

what is vital capacity

A

all you can breathe in and all you can breathe out

120
Q

what is residual air

A

amount of air left in lungs after exhaling

121
Q

what is the biggest risk factor for lung disease

A

smoking

122
Q

what class of medication is used for allergic reactions

A

antihistamines

123
Q

what class of med is used to decrease coughing

A

antitussive

124
Q

what class of med is used to assist in clearing secretions

A

expectorants

125
Q

what can happen if decongestant nasal spray is used for more than 3 days

A

can cause rebound congestion

126
Q

what class of med is used for bacterial pharyngitis

A

antibiotics

127
Q

what is the medical term for a nosebleed

A

epistaxis

128
Q

what are symptoms of laryngeal cancer

A

hoarseness for longer than 2 weeks

129
Q

How is TB transmitted

A

airborne

130
Q

what indicates a positive TB test

A

hard bump( induration)

131
Q

what are symptoms of pulmonary embolism

A

respiratory distress, chest pain, sputum

132
Q

what is a common side effect of bronchodilator administration (albuterol)

A

increased heart rate

133
Q

what are symptoms of chronic bronchitis

A

shortness of breath, coughing, blue bloater