Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FMGE > Medicine > Flashcards

Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

A combination of involuntary hand movements and
cognitive issues points to

A

Huntington chorea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Which wave is absent in Cardiac tamponade

A

Y descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

motor aphasia is seen in which lesion

A

Broca’s lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

not making sense but can speak fluently

A

Fluent aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in scissoring gait, which nerve is affected

A

Obturator nerve, from the lesion to upper MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What wave is seen in Wolff- Parkinson-white syndrome

A

Broad QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dry eyes and dry mouth indicates to which syndrome

A

Sjrogen Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cell of rigin for multiple myeloma

A

Plasma cell
Disease presents with lytic lesions, increased gamma immunoglubulins , Abnormal KFT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Marker for medullary thyroid cancer

A

calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Smoky urine and dysmorphic RBC

A

Acute Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Duke’s criteria is used for

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Thalamic Dejerine Roussy syndrome occurs due to

A

ischemic stroke damaging the thalamus hence gives a feeling of burning on the contralateral side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Epitaxis, Cola colored urine, granulomatous lesions in the lungs

A

Wegners granulomatosis; cANCA is tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal pT with abnormal pTT and bleeding time with no easy bruising

A

vWF disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Intermittent proptosis from coughing or valsalva

A

Orbital varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

adrenaline dosage IM for anaphylaxis

A

Injection adrenaline 1M 1:1000 dilution, repeat again if no response, till patient reaches hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Giant v wave is seen in in

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pulses paradoxes and kussmal sign with no mumur

A

Constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pulsus Paradoxus with non pulsatile elevated JVP

A

cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pneumonia with negative gram stain and hyponatremia

A

Atypical Pneumonia from Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Post URTI infection , periorbital edema and Anti-DNAase antibody present with RBC in urine

A

PSGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

difficulty standing up with Heliotrope rash

A

Dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for HIV patient with ccryptococcal meningitis

A

Liposomal Amphotericin-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Necrolytic migratory erythrema with hyperglycemia and depression

A

Glucogonoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

occupational lung disease with ground glass appearance

A

Sillicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

knee pain with negatively bifringent crystals on polarized microscopy

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

negative skin tuberculin test and normal CXR in elderly means

A

Cryptic milliary TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hemoptysis, hematuria and Anti GBM bodies

A

Goodpasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Worst headache ever + Nuchal rigidity

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage ( SAH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

gaisbock syndrome

A

volume depletion from diuretics causing relative increase in RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Female on OCP with headache, papilledema and increased ICP

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ptosis with diurnal variation of symptoms and relief with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are features of

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

preferred managment of Acromegaly

A

long acting octreotide called Lanreotide depot formulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

imaging used to locate parathyroid tumor

A

Tc 99 sestamibi scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

arteritis of the subclavian

A

Takayasu Arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

jaundice after unexplained physical stress or drug intake

A

Gilbert syndrome ( autosommal recessive ) UG1A1 gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment for criggler najjar syndrome

A

Plasmapheresis for Type 1
Phenobarital for type 2
Transplant is curative for Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

safer CD4 count for patient with HIV

A

300 cells/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

lung infection with CD4 count below 5 indicated with organism

A

Mycobacterium Avium-intracellulare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

high volume pulse and diastolic murmur

A

Aortic insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

chest pain at rest with pericardial friction rub

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fever+ splenomegaly+ roth spots

A

Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

most common site of brain hemorrhage

A

Putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Distant heart sounds with engorged neck veins points to

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

management of ventricular fibrillation

A

2 minutes of cpr at 100-120 beats per min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Persistent chest pain with ST elevation >60 minutes after thrombolysis, what is the management

A

rescue PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

right sided heart failure due to pulmonary hypertension is called

A

corpulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Waterhammer pulse is seen in what deficiency

A

Vitamin b1 (beri-beri)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Wide fixed s2 is seen in

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Narrow split S2 is seen in

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

absent y descent with prominent x wave indicates

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Mconnels sign is seen in

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cavitation at the upper lobe with no fever

A

SCC lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

bulbar palsy results from

A

lesion to the LMN of cranial nerves, pseodobulbar palsy is upper MN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Primary sign in corticobulbar palsy

A

Spastic Tongue ( no protrusion )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Normal CSF sugar value

A

66 % of blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

IOC for cerebral edema

A

plasma hydroxy butyrate levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

pneumonia with hyponatremia is caused by which organism

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Components of child pugh score

A

Encephalopathy, ascites, albumin, Bilirubin and PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

par acinar emphysema and cirrhosis

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin defieciency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Screening for M.Myeloma

A

SPEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Tx for M.Myeloma

A

lenalidomide + Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hematuria Protinuria hypertension edema

A

PSGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

hemoptysis with hematuria

A

good pasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

proximal muscle weakness with skin involvement

A

dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. HIV positive patient presents with cryptococcal
    meningitis. Treatment is?
A

LAMB + Flucystosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

DOC for invasive aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole

65
Q

Testing for insulinoma

A

C-peptide and blood sugar

66
Q

IOC for pancreatic endocrine tumor

67
Q

IOC for crohn’s

A

CT enteroscopy

68
Q

Knee pain with negatively bi fringed crystals

69
Q

Sign of chronic gout

A

MARTEL sign

69
Q

Mass effect and posturing is found in patient , whats the medication ?

70
Q

Tennis ball appearance in CT chest

A

Aortic Dissection

71
Q

Ocular signs of M. Gravis

A

Ptosis and Diplopia

72
Q

Causes of pseudotumor cerebri

A

OCP, Vit a Toxicity, sudden Steroid Stoppage

73
Q

a headache that occurs on the side of the head, above the ears

A

temporal headache

74
Q

IOC for M Gravis

A

Single fiber Electro myography

75
Q

TOC for M. Gravis

A

Thymectomy
Steroids
Azathrioprine

76
Q

Confirmatory test for M Gravis

A

Tensilon Test

77
Q

Antibodies present in M Gravis

A

Anti ACH receptor antibody
Anti- Musk
Anti- LipoProtein Receptor - 4

78
Q

Antibody of Lambert Eaton syndrome

A

Anti PIQ antibody

79
Q

Difference of Lambert Eaton from M. Gravis is

A

Weakness starts at the shoulders in LE than the eyes in M.GRavis

80
Q

DOC of Lambert Eaton

A

3,4 Aminopyridines

81
Q

Preferred managment of Acromegaly is

A

Lanreotide Depot formulation

82
Q

X-hands showing Brown tumor is indicative of

A

Hyperparathyroidism

83
Q

IOC for parathyroid adenoma

A

Tc 99 Sestamibi Scan

84
Q

Fiest line management of Hypercalcemia crisis

A

Normal saline

85
Q

DOC for hypercalcemia crisis

A

Ibandronate

86
Q

Headache, Hypertension with Claudication of the ARM

A

Takayasu Arteritis; mostly in the left subclavian artery

87
Q

Commonest hyperbilirubinemia ( unconjugated

A

Gilbert Syndrome ; (-) UDP gluconyl transferase
Dubin johnson - Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia
Criggler Najjar- Neonatal with Kernicterus

88
Q

TOC for Massive haemoptysis

A

Brochial artery embolization

89
Q

Pleural plaque calcification with bloody pleural effusion is caused by

A

Mesothelioma

90
Q

MC cancer in Asbestos Exposure

A

Adenocarcinoma; Mesothelioma

91
Q

ECG Findings of Pericarditis

A

St elevation in all leads

92
Q

Ecg findings in inferior wall myocardial infarction

A

st elevation in one ii and a V F

93
Q

Example for steroid responsive hypercalcemia

A

Sarcoidosis

93
Q

Lung cancer that causes hypercalcemia

A

Squamous cell carcinoma; PTH- related peptide

94
Q

DOC for bleeding varices

A

IV octreotide

95
Q

DOC for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

IV ceftriaxone

96
Q

DOC for hepatorenal syndrome

A

IV albumin plus midodrine

97
Q

TOC for refractory peritonitis

A

Large volume Paracentesis

98
Q

DOC for life threatening hyperkalaemia

A

10% calcium gluconate , but to lower K+ is insulin

99
Q

Test for carcinoid tumor

A

Urinary 5HIAA

100
Q

DOC for HTN in pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

101
Q

DOC for Absence seizures

A

Sodium Valproate

102
Q

MC type of seixure in kids

A

Febrile seizure

103
Q

MC seizure in Neurocysticercosis is

A

Focal seizures

104
Q

MC seizure in neonates

A

Subtle seizures

105
Q

upper pharyngeal web with dysphagia, anemia, Koilonychia

A

Patterson kelly syndrome

105
Q

t (9:12) is a presentation of

106
Q

confirmatory test for CML

107
Q

Screening test for IDA

A

Serum transferrin

108
Q

Confirmatory test for IDA

A

Serum ferritin

109
Q

Anaemia of chromic disease

A

Normocytic normochromic anaemia

110
Q

Investigational choice for Alpha Thalassemia

111
Q

Which haemoglobin Causes the severity of sickle cell anaemia

A

Absense of HbA and presence of HbS

112
Q

Screening test for Beta Thalassemia

112
Q

Investigation of choice for beta thalassemia

113
Q

Chromosomes affected in Thalassemia

A

Alpha- Ch16
Beta- Ch11

114
Q

Prothrombine time is indicated by what factors

A

Extrinsic factors - 5,7

115
Q

aPTT is indicated by what factors

A

intrinsic - 8

116
Q

Bleeding time is an indication of

A

Platelet plug formation

117
Q

in Von Willebrand disease what factors are affected

A

Platelet plug or bleeding time
Intrinsic factor 8 or aPTT
Normal PT

118
Q

IOC for vWD

A

Ristocein aggregation test

118
Q

Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by:

A

Diastolic murmur duration

119
Q

DOC for A Fib

119
Q

MC arrythmia

120
Q

Preferred biochemical marker(s) in patients presenting
with myocardial infarction:

A

Trop I and T as early as 3 hrs

121
Q

osbourne waves are seen in which condition

A

Hypothermia

122
Q

Reasons for ST elevation

A

Hypercalcemia
LBBB
Ventricular aneurysm
Trauma
Ischemia
Osbourne waves
Non-exclusive vasospasm

123
Q

IOC for Dysphagia Lusoria

A

CTA- Aberrant left subclavian artery

124
Q

Pseudo Achalasia is caused by

A

Ca Stomach

124
Q

Punched out lesions in the esophagus

A

Herpes simplex

125
Q

Serpiginous ulcers in the esophagus

A

CMV esophagitis

126
Q

Serpiginous ulcers in the ileum

A

Crohn’s disease

127
Q

causes of High Anion Gap metabolic acidosis

A

Ketoacidosis
Uremia
Lactic acidosis
Toxins

128
Q

causes of Normal Anion Gap metabolic acidosis

A

Diarrhea
RTA
Fistula
Ureterosigmoidoscopy

128
Q

Gait instability and ripples in the quadriceps muscle while standing is

A

Orthostatic tumor

129
Q

The finding of enlarged calf muscles and atrophied thigh muscles with a history of muscle
weakness are suggestive of

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD).

130
Q

Best treatment for acute mania and biploar disorder long term

131
Q

Absolute contradiction for Sildenafil

132
Q

Murmur of mitral stenosis

A

Mid-Diastolic Murmur

133
Q

Dislocation of the radiocarpal joint is the hallmark of

A

Barton’s fracture

134
Q

The dimorphic fungus that causes subcutaneous mycosis is

A

Sporothrix schenckii.

135
Q

The Borchardt triad comprises of:

A

The Borchardt triad comprises of:
* Sudden-onset severe upper abdominal pain
* Recurrent retching with minimal vomitus
* Inability to pass a nasogastric (NG) tube

gastric volvulus is the Borchardt’s triad.

136
Q

The Renal function is best assessed by

A

Tc-99m MAG3 (mercaptoacetyltriglycine)

137
Q

lesions of Infective endocarditis

A

Janeway lesions

138
Q

Christmas tree bladder or pine cone bladder is a cystogram appearance which usually seen in

A

Neurogenic bladder

139
Q

DOC for resistant HTN

A

Spironolactone

140
Q

DOC for HTN encephalopathy

A

Labetelol and nifedipine

141
Q

DOC for HTN emergency

A

Labetelol and nifedipine

142
Q

Butterfly rash on face

A

Libman sac endocarditis

143
Q

Slapped cheek apperance

A

Parvovirus B19

144
Q

Post MI pericarditis is called

A

Dressler Syndrome
diffuse ST elevation in ECG
Treatment is high dose aspirin

145
Q

Murmur that presents after MI (4-7 days )

A

MR- pulmonary edema
at sternal border - VSD

146
Q

DOC for PSVT

A

Adenosine 6 to 12 mg IV

147
Q

Saw Tooth pattern in ECG

A

Atrial Flutter -

148
Q

Recurrent syncope attacks + Complete heart block

A

Stokes Adam Syndrome

149
Q

Uveitis+ Parottitis+ Fever

A

Heerfordt’s syndrome

150
Q

Erythema nodosum + B/L hilar Lymphadenopathy+ Polyarthritis

A

Löfgren syndrome

151
Q

Panda/ Lambda sign in gallium scan

A

Sarcoidosis

152
Q

Spirometry below 30 % indicates

A

Severe COPD- Stage 4

153
Q

Black urine and black deposits

A

Alkaptonuria

154
Q

Dermatitis, Diarrhea and dementia

A

Pellagra by Vit b3 - Niacin

155
Q

Bleeding gums, poor wound healing, fatigue

FMGE (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions