Medical Terms Flashcards
What does ADL stand for in relation to the muscular system?
activities of daily living
ADL refers to the basic tasks that are essential for self-care, such as eating, bathing, and dressing.
What is the abbreviation for carpal tunnel syndrome?
CTS
CTS is a condition that causes numbness, tingling, and other symptoms in the hand and arm.
What does CFS stand for?
chronic fatigue syndrome
CFS is a complex disorder characterized by extreme fatigue that doesn’t improve with rest.
What is the abbreviation for electromyography?
EMG
EMG is a diagnostic procedure to assess the health of muscles and the nerve cells that control them.
What does IC stand for?
intermittent claudication
IC refers to muscle pain or cramping in the legs or buttocks during physical activity.
What is the abbreviation for muscular dystrophy?
MD
MD is a group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive weakness and loss of muscle mass.
What does MG stand for?
myasthenia gravis
MG is an autoimmune disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles.
What is the abbreviation for occupational therapy?
OT
OT is a form of therapy that helps individuals perform daily activities through therapeutic techniques.
What does PM stand for in the context of muscular conditions?
polymyositis
PM is an inflammatory muscle disease causing muscle weakness, particularly in the proximal muscles.
What is the abbreviation for repetitive stress disorder?
RSD
RSD refers to injuries that occur from repetitive motions, often affecting muscles and joints.
What does ROM stand for?
range-of-motion testing
ROM testing assesses the extent of movement around a specific joint or body part.
What is ergonomics?
Ergonomics is the study of the human factors that affect the design and operation of tools and the work environment, aimed at reducing injuries, strain, and stress.
What is a fasciotomy?
A fasciotomy is a surgical incision through the fascia to relieve tension or pressure.
What conditions is myofascial release used to treat?
Myofascial release is used to ease the pain of conditions such as fibromyalgia, myofascial pain syndrome, movement restrictions, TMJ disorders, and carpal tunnel syndrome.
What does occupational therapy (OT) involve?
Occupational therapy consists of activities to promote recovery and rehabilitation to assist patients in performing activities of daily living (ADL), such as grooming, eating, and dressing.
What is the purpose of physical therapy (PT)?
Physical therapy is treatment to prevent disability or restore function through the use of exercise, heat, massage, or other techniques.
What is therapeutic ultrasound?
Therapeutic ultrasound is a physical therapy technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to treat muscle injuries by generating heat deep within muscle tissue.
What does RICE stand for in first aid treatment?
RICE stands for Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation.
What is tenodesis?
Tenodesis is the surgical suturing of the end of a tendon to a bone.
What is tenolysis?
Tenolysis is the release of a tendon from adhesions.
What is tenotomy?
Tenotomy is the surgical cutting of a tendon to provide release or allow lengthening.
What is myorrhaphy?
Myorrhaphy is the surgical suturing of a muscle.
What is a myotomy?
A myotomy is a surgical incision into a muscle.
What is the purpose of range-of-motion testing?
To evaluate joint mobility using a goniometer, with results expressed in degrees.
What is the procedure for assessing deep tendon reflexes?
Testing involves checking the patellar reflex and the Achilles tendon reflex.
Gloves should be worn, or hand-washing must be done before and after touching the patient.
What is atropine used for?
Atropine is an antispasmodic that can be administered preoperatively to relax smooth muscles during surgery.
What is cortisone and its purpose?
Cortisone is a corticosteroid drug injected to relieve pain and inflammation in a specific joint.
What are anabolic steroids used for?
Anabolic steroids are used to replace muscle loss caused by disease and are sometimes used illegally by athletes and bodybuilders to build muscle mass.
What is the function of muscle relaxants?
Muscle relaxants are administered to relax certain muscles and relieve stiffness, pain, and discomfort from strains, sprains, or other muscle injuries.
How do muscle relaxants interact with other substances?
They may have a negative interaction with alcohol and some antidepressants.
What do neuromuscular-blocking drugs do?
They cause temporary paralysis by blocking the transmission of nerve stimuli to the muscles, used as an adjunct to anesthesia during surgery.
What is platelet-rich plasma therapy (PRP)?
PRP is a treatment where some of the patient’s blood is separated to create a concentrated platelet-rich plasma, injected into a joint to promote healing and pain relief.
What is viscosupplementation?
Viscosupplementation involves direct injections of hyaluronic acid into the knee to increase the joint’s viscous fluid, providing temporary relief from arthritis pain.
Sometimes referred to as chicken shots.
What is the consistency of the spinal cord?
The spinal cord is soft, with the consistency of toothpaste.
How is the type of paralysis determined in spinal cord injuries?
The type of paralysis is determined by the level of the vertebra closest to the injury.
What happens when a vertebra is broken in relation to spinal cord injury?
An injury occurs when a vertebra is broken and a piece of the broken bone presses into the spinal cord.
What is the effect of spinal cord injury on brain communication?
The ability of the brain to communicate with the body below the level of the injury may be reduced or lost altogether.
What does an incomplete spinal cord injury mean?
An incomplete injury means that the person has some function below the level of the injury, even though that function isn’t normal.
What does a complete spinal cord injury entail?
A complete injury means there is complete loss of sensation and muscle control below the level of the injury.
What is paralysis?
Paralysis is the loss of sensation and voluntary muscle movements in a muscle through disease or injury to its nerve supply.
What is myoparesis?
Myoparesis is a weakness or slight muscular paralysis.
What is hemiparesis?
Hemiparesis is a weakness or slight paralysis affecting one side of the body.
What is hemiplegia?
Hemiplegia is total paralysis affecting only one side of the body.
What is paraplegia?
Paraplegia is the paralysis of both legs and the lower part of the body.
What is quadriplegia?
Quadriplegia is paralysis of all four extremities.
What are deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)?
DTRs are tested with a reflex hammer to determine homeostasis between the spinal cord and the peripheral nervous system.
What is the purpose of range-of-motion testing (ROM)?
ROM is a diagnostic procedure to evaluate joint mobility and muscle strength.
What is electromyography (EMG)?
EMG is a diagnostic test that measures the electrical activity within muscle fibers in response to nerve stimulation.
What is a muscle biopsy?
A muscle biopsy involves removal of a plug of tissue for examination.
What is an antispasmodic?
An antispasmodic is administered to suppress smooth muscle contractions of the stomach, intestine, or bladder.
What is Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD)?
PTTD, also known as fallen arches, occurs when the tendon supporting the foot’s arch weakens.
What is a soft tissue injury?
A soft tissue injury is damage to the skin, muscles, ligaments, and tendons, as opposed to the bones or internal organs.
What is a sprain?
A sprain is an injury to a joint, such as an ankle, knee, or wrist, usually occurring when a ligament is wrenched or torn.
What is a strain?
A strain is an injury to the body of the muscle or to the attachment of a tendon, often associated with overuse injuries.
What are shin splints?
Shin splints are a painful condition caused by the tibialis anterior muscle tearing away from the tibia, often due to repetitive stress.
What is a hamstring injury?
A hamstring injury can be a strain or tear on any of the three hamstring muscles, characterized by sudden and severe pain in the back of the thigh.
What is Achilles tendinitis?
Achilles tendinitis is a painful inflammation of the Achilles tendon caused by excessive stress on that tendon.
What is Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS)?
ITBS is an overuse injury causing pain, usually just above the knee joint, due to the iliotibial band rubbing against bone.
What protects the spinal cord?
The spinal cord is surrounded and protected by the bony vertebrae.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the tendons that pass through the carpal tunnel become inflamed and swollen, pinching the median nerve.
What is the carpal tunnel?
The carpal tunnel is a narrow, bony passage under the carpal ligament located just below the inner surface of the wrist.
What is carpal tunnel release?
Carpal tunnel release is the surgical enlargement of the carpal tunnel or cutting of the carpal ligament to reduce pressure on the median nerve.
What is a heel spur?
A heel spur is a calcium deposit in the plantar fascia near its attachment to the calcaneus (heel) bone, causing pain often mistaken for plantar fasciitis.
What is plantar fasciitis?
Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the plantar fascia on the sole of the foot, causing foot or heel pain when walking or running.
What is Morton’s neuroma?
Morton’s neuroma is a condition where pain on the ball of the foot is caused by a swollen, inflamed nerve, usually between the third and fourth toes.
What is a ganglion cyst?
A ganglion cyst is a benign, fluid-filled lump that usually occurs on the outer surface of the wrist or hand, often as a result of a past injury.
What is epicondylitis?
Epicondylitis is inflammation of the tissues surrounding the elbow.
What is lateral epicondylitis?
Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain on the outer side of the forearm.
What is medial epicondylitis?
Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain on the palm-side of the forearm.
What are overuse injuries?
Overuse injuries are minor tissue injuries that have not been given time to heal. They can be caused by spending hours at the computer keyboard or by lengthy athletic training sessions.
What is overuse tendinitis?
Overuse tendinitis is an inflammation of tendons caused by excessive or unusual use of a joint.
‘Tendin’ means tendon, and ‘-itis’ means inflammation.
What are stress fractures?
Stress fractures are usually overuse injuries that are discussed in Chapter 3.
What is trigger finger?
Trigger finger is the painful and progressive restriction of movement caused by inflammation of a tendon’s synovial sheath.
What is myofascial pain syndrome?
Myofascial pain syndrome is a chronic pain disorder that affects muscles and fascia throughout the body, caused by a muscle being contracted repetitively.
What are trigger points?
Trigger points are tender areas that most commonly develop where the fascia comes into contact with a muscle.
What is referred pain?
Referred pain describes pain that originates in one area of the body but is felt in another.
What is tendinopathy?
Tendinopathy is the general term for irritation or degeneration of a tendon in any joint.
For example, in the rotator cuff.
What is impingement syndrome?
Impingement syndrome, also known as rotator cuff tendinitis, occurs when inflamed and swollen tendons are caught in the narrow space between the bones within the shoulder joint.
What is a rotator cuff tear?
A rotator cuff tear can occur as the irritated tendon weakens or as the result of a fall or injury.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome symptoms occur when the tendons that pass through the carpal tunnel into the hand become compressed.
What is a contracture?
A contracture is a condition where normally elastic connective tissues are replaced with nonelastic fibrous tissues. The most common causes are scarring or lack of use due to immobilization or inactivity.
What is intermittent claudication?
Intermittent claudication (IC) is pain in the leg muscles that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest. It is associated with poor circulation and peripheral vascular disease.
What is a spasm?
A spasm is any sudden, involuntary contraction of one or more muscles.
What is a tic?
A tic is a repeated spasm, often involving the eyelids or face, and these movements are difficult or impossible to control.
What is myoclonus?
Myoclonus is the quick, involuntary jerking of a muscle or group of muscles. It may occur normally as a person is falling asleep or as a result of a neurological disorder.
What is clonus?
Clonus is a repetitive contraction of the muscles of the knees or ankles associated with neurological conditions.
What is singultus?
Singultus, also known as hiccups, is myoclonus of the diaphragm that causes the characteristic hiccup sound with each spasm.
What is a cramp?
A cramp is a painful localized muscle spasm often named for its cause, such as menstrual cramps or writer’s cramp.
What is torticollis?
Torticollis, also known as wryneck, is a stiff neck due to spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles that pull the head toward the affected side.
What is bradykinesia?
Bradykinesia is extreme slowness in movement and is one of the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
What is dyskinesia?
Dyskinesia is the distortion or impairment of voluntary movement resulting in fragmented or jerky motions.
What is hyperkinesia?
Hyperkinesia, also known as hyperactivity, is abnormally increased muscle function or activity.
What is myasthenia gravis?
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a chronic autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular junction, producing weakness and rapid fatigue of voluntary muscles, especially in the eye, face, and throat.
What is muscular dystrophy?
Muscular dystrophy (MD) refers to a group of more than 30 genetic diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of the skeletal muscles without affecting the nervous system.
What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is the most common form of muscular dystrophy in children, primarily affecting boys with onset between ages 3 and 5.
What is Becker muscular dystrophy?
Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is similar to Duchenne muscular dystrophy but is less severe.
What are repetitive stress disorders?
Repetitive stress disorders (RSD) are muscular conditions resulting from repeated motions performed in normal work, daily activities, or recreation.
What is compartment syndrome?
Compartment syndrome involves the compression of nerves and blood vessels due to swelling within the compartment created by fascia separating muscle groups.
What does ten/o mean?
Ten/o means tendon.
What does synov mean?
Synov means synovial membrane.
What does -itis mean?
-itis means inflammation.
What is tendinitis?
Tendinitis is an acute inflammation or irritation of the tendons caused by excessive or unusual use of the joint.
What is tendinosis?
Tendinosis is a chronic condition characterized by pain due to repetitive overuse or an injury that has not healed.
What is chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?
CFS is a disorder of unknown cause that affects many body systems, characterized by profound fatigue not improved by bed rest.
What are the symptoms of CFS?
The symptoms of CFS are similar to those of fibromyalgia, and the two diseases may be related.
What is an adhesion?
An adhesion is a band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally, forming in muscles or internal organs.
What does atrophy mean?
Atrophy means weakness or wearing away of body tissues and structures, often caused by pathology or disuse.
What is cachexia?
Cachexia is a condition of physically wasting away due to the loss of weight and muscle mass in patients with diseases such as advanced cancer or AIDS.
What is a hernia?
A hernia occurs when tissue protrudes through a weak area in the muscle normally containing it.
What is myalgia?
Myalgia is tenderness or pain in the muscles.
What is polymyositis?
Polymyositis is a muscle disease characterized by simultaneous inflammation and weakening of voluntary muscles in many parts of the body.
What is rhabdomyolysis?
Rhabdomyolysis is a serious syndrome that can result from a direct or indirect muscle injury, leading to the breakdown of muscle fibers.
What is sarcopenia?
Sarcopenia is the loss of muscle mass, strength, and function that comes with aging.
What is muscle tone?
Muscle tone is the state of balanced muscle tension that makes normal posture, coordination, and movement possible.
What does atonic mean?
Atonic means lacking normal muscle tone or strength.
What is dystonia?
Dystonia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary and sometimes repetitive contraction of certain muscles.
What is hypotonia?
Hypotonia is a condition in which there is diminished tone of the skeletal muscles.
What is ataxia?
Ataxia is the lack of muscle coordination during voluntary movement.
What is a contracture?
A contracture is the permanent tightening of fascia, muscles, tendons, ligaments, or skin.
What is the function of the temporalis muscle?
The temporalis muscle moves the lower jaw up and back to close the mouth.
What is the role of the masseter muscle?
The masseter muscle moves the lower jaw up to close the mouth when chewing.
What does the pectoralis major muscle do in males and females?
In males, the pectoralis major makes up the bulk of the chest muscles. In females, it lies under the breast.
What are the functions of the external oblique muscles?
The external oblique muscles flex and rotate the vertebral column, flex the torso, and compress the abdomen.
What do internal oblique muscles do?
The internal oblique muscles flex the spine, support the abdominal contents, help us breathe, and rotate the spine.
What is the function of the rectus abdominis?
The rectus abdominis helps flex the trunk, assists in breathing, and supports the spine.
Where is the transverse abdominis located and what does it do?
The transverse abdominis is located on the side of the abdomen and is engaged when a person laughs or coughs.
What is the role of the deltoid muscle?
The deltoid forms the muscular cap of the shoulder.
What does the trapezius muscle do?
The trapezius muscle moves the head and shoulder blade.
What is the function of the biceps brachii?
The biceps brachii flexes the elbow.
What does the triceps brachii do?
The triceps brachii extends the elbow.
What is the role of an exercise physiologist?
An exercise physiologist develops, implements, and coordinates exercise programs and administers medical tests to promote physical fitness.
What does a neurologist specialize in?
A neurologist specializes in treating the causes of paralysis and similar muscular disorders.
What is the role of an occupational therapist?
An occupational therapist helps enable patients to participate in daily activities, including self-care and social interaction.
What does a physiatrist specialize in?
A physiatrist specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation, focusing on restoring function.
What is the function of a physical therapist?
A physical therapist provides treatment to prevent disability or restore function through various techniques.
What does a sports medicine physician specialize in?
A sports medicine physician specializes in the prevention and treatment of injuries of the bones, joints, and muscles.
What is the function of the rectus femoris?
The rectus femoris extends the leg at the knee and flexes the thigh at the hip joint.
What is the quadriceps femoris composed of?
The quadriceps femoris is made up of four muscles, including the vastus lateralis and vastus medialis.
What is the role of the hamstring group?
The hamstring group is involved in knee flexion and hip extension.
What does the gastrocnemius muscle do?
The gastrocnemius flexes the knee and bends the foot downward.
What is fasciitis?
Fasciitis is inflammation of a fascia.
What is fibromyalgia?
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by fatigue and muscle, joint, or bone pain.
What is tenosynovitis?
Tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon.
What is the largest muscle of the buttock?
The gluteus maximus (GLOO-tee-us MAX-ih-mus) is the largest muscle of the buttock.
Maximus means great or large.
Why is the deltoid muscle named so?
The deltoid muscle (DEL-toyd) is named because it is shaped like an inverted triangle, resembling the Greek letter delta.
What is the origin of the name ‘hamstrings’?
The hamstring group is named because these are the muscles by which a butcher hangs a slaughtered pig.
What muscles make up the hamstring group?
The hamstring group consists of three muscles: the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
What are the primary functions of the hamstrings?
The primary functions of the hamstrings are knee flexion and hip extension.
How many divisions does the biceps brachii have?
The biceps brachii (BYE-seps BRAY-kee-eye) is formed from two divisions.
How many divisions does the triceps brachii have?
The triceps brachii (TRY-seps BRAY-kee-eye) is formed from three divisions.
What is the function of the frontalis muscle?
The frontalis (fron-TAY-lis) muscle raises and lowers the eyebrows.
What is the sternocleidomastoid?
A muscle in the neck that helps with head rotation and flexion.
What is the trapezius?
A large muscle in the upper back that helps move the shoulder blades.
What is the deltoid?
A muscle that forms the rounded contour of the shoulder.
What is the triceps brachii?
A muscle located at the back of the upper arm that extends the elbow.
What are the extensors of the hand and fingers?
Muscles that extend the fingers and wrist.
What is the gluteus maximus?
The largest muscle in the buttocks, responsible for hip extension.
What is the iliotibial band?
A thick band of tissue that runs along the outside of the thigh.
What is the biceps femoris?
One of the hamstring muscles located at the back of the thigh.
What is the semitendinosus?
A muscle in the hamstring group located at the back of the thigh.
What is the semimembranosus?
Another muscle in the hamstring group located at the back of the thigh.
What are the hamstrings?
A group of muscles located at the back of the thigh.
What is the gastrocnemius?
A major calf muscle that helps with walking and running.
What is the Achilles tendon?
The tendon connecting the calf muscles to the heel bone.
What does ‘oblique’ mean in muscle terminology?
Means slanted or at an angle.
Example: external oblique and internal oblique muscles.
What does ‘rectus’ mean in muscle terminology?
Means in straight alignment with the vertical axis of the body.
Example: rectus abdominis and rectus femoris.
What is a sphincter?
A ring-like muscle that tightly constricts the opening of a passageway.
Example: anal sphincter closes the anus.
What does ‘transverse’ mean in muscle terminology?
Means in a crosswise direction.
Example: transverse abdominis muscle.
What is the Frontalis?
A muscle located in the forehead region that raises the eyebrows.
What is the Sternocleidomastoid?
A muscle that helps rotate and flex the head.
What is the Deltoid?
A muscle that covers the shoulder and is responsible for arm abduction.
What is the Temporalis?
A muscle involved in chewing, located on the side of the head.
What is the Levator anguli oris?
A muscle that elevates the angle of the mouth.
What is the Masseter?
A powerful muscle that plays a major role in chewing.
What is the Depressor anguli oris?
A muscle that lowers the angle of the mouth.
What is the Trapezius?
A muscle that extends from the neck to the middle of the back, responsible for moving the shoulder blades.
What is the Pectoralis major?
A thick, fan-shaped muscle situated on the anterior chest wall.
What is the Biceps brachii?
A muscle located in the upper arm that flexes the elbow.
What is the Rectus abdominis?
A muscle that runs vertically along the abdomen, commonly known as the ‘abs.’
What is the External oblique?
A muscle located on the side of the abdomen that helps with trunk rotation.
What are Flexor carpi muscles?
Muscles that allow for the flexion (bending) of the wrist.
What are Extensor carpi muscles?
Muscles that allow for the extension (straightening) of the wrist.
What is the Abdominal aponeurosis?
A flat sheet of connective tissue that covers the abdominal muscles.
What are Thigh adductors?
Muscles that bring the thighs together.
What is the Rectus femoris?
A muscle in the thigh that is part of the quadriceps group.
What is the Vastus medialis?
A muscle located on the inner part of the thigh, part of the quadriceps.
What is the Vastus lateralis?
A large muscle located on the outer side of the thigh.
What is the Patellar tendon?
A tendon that connects the quadriceps muscle to the tibia.
What is the Tibialis anterior?
A muscle located in the front of the lower leg that helps with dorsiflexion of the foot.
What is the Gastrocnemius?
A muscle in the back of the lower leg that is involved in plantar flexion of the foot.
What are muscles named for their action?
Muscles that are named based on the movement they facilitate, such as flexion or extension.
What does ‘carpi’ refer to?
‘Carpi’ means wrist or wrist bones.
What does ‘pectoralis’ mean?
‘Pectoralis’ means relating to the chest.
What does ‘lateralis’ mean?
‘Lateralis’ means toward the side.
What does ‘medialis’ mean?
‘Medialis’ means toward the midline.
What is a rotator muscle?
A rotator muscle turns a body part on its axis.
What is the rotator cuff?
The rotator cuff is the group of muscles and their tendons that hold the head of the humerus securely in place as it rotates within the shoulder joint.
What is supination?
Supination is the act of rotating the arm or the leg so that the palm of the hand or sole of the foot is turned forward or upward.
How can you remember supination?
Think of carrying a bowl of soup, which sounds like the beginning of the term.
What is pronation?
Pronation is the act of rotating the arm or leg so that the palm of the hand or sole of the foot is turned downward or backward.
What is dorsiflexion?
Dorsiflexion is the movement that bends the foot upward at the ankle.
What is plantar flexion?
Plantar flexion is the movement that bends the foot downward at the ankle.
What are the origin and insertion of a muscle?
The origin is where the muscle begins and is located nearest the midline of the body. The insertion is where the muscle ends by attaching to a bone or tendon.
What is the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
The sternocleidomastoid muscle helps bend the neck and rotate the head.
How is the sternocleidomastoid muscle named?
It is named for its two points of origin: stern/o (breastbone) and cleid/o (collar bone).
Where does the mastoid muscle insert?
The mastoid muscle inserts into the mastoid process, which is part of the temporal bone located just behind the ear.
What is elevation in the muscular system?
Elevation is the act of raising or lifting a body part.
For example, the elevation of the levator anguli oris muscles of the face raises the corners of the mouth into a smile.
What is a levator muscle?
A levator is a muscle that raises a body part.
What is depression in the muscular system?
Depression is the act of lowering a body part.
For example, the depressor anguli oris lowers the corner of the mouth into a frown.
What is abduction?
Abduction moves the arm away from the body.
What is adduction?
Adduction moves the arm toward the body.
What is rotation?
Rotation is a circular movement around an axis such as the shoulder joint.
What is circumduction?
Circumduction is the circular movement at the far end of a limb.
An example of circumduction is the swinging motion of the far end of the arm.
What does flexion mean?
Flexion means decreasing the angle between two bones by bending a limb at a joint.
What is a flexor muscle?
A flexor muscle bends a limb at a joint.
What does extension mean?
Extension means increasing the angle between two bones or the straightening out of a limb.
What is an extensor muscle?
An extensor muscle straightens a limb at a joint.
What is hyperextension?
Hyperextension is the extreme or overextension of a limb or body part beyond its normal limit.
For example, movement of the head far backward or far forward beyond the normal range of motion causes hyperextension of the muscles of the neck.
What is muscle innervation?
Muscle innervation is the stimulation of a muscle by an impulse transmitted by a motor nerve.
What do motor nerves do?
Motor nerves enable the brain to stimulate a muscle to contract.
What happens when the stimulation of a muscle stops?
When the stimulation stops, the muscle relaxes.
What do motor nerves control?
Motor nerves control the body’s voluntary muscular contractions.
What occurs if the nerve impulse is disrupted?
The muscle is unable to function properly, which can lead to paralysis or inability to contract properly.
What does neuromuscular mean?
Neuromuscular pertains to the relationship between a nerve and muscle.
What are antagonistic muscle pairs?
Antagonistic muscle pairs are muscles that work in opposition to each other.
What happens when one muscle in an antagonistic pair contracts?
The opposite muscle of the pair relaxes.
What is contraction?
Contraction is the tightening of a muscle, making it shorter and thicker.
What occurs during relaxation of a muscle?
Relaxation occurs when a muscle returns to its original form, becoming longer and thinner.
What is abduction?
Abduction is the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.
What is an abductor?
An abductor is a muscle that moves a body part away from the midline.
What is adduction?
Adduction is the movement of a limb toward the midline of the body.
What is an adductor?
An adductor is a muscle that moves a body part toward the midline.
What are the three types of muscle tissue?
The three types of muscle tissue are skeletal, smooth, and myocardial.
What are skeletal muscles?
Skeletal muscles are attached to the bones of the skeleton and make body motions possible.
Skeletal muscles are also known as voluntary muscles because we have conscious control over them.
What is the appearance of skeletal muscles under a microscope?
Skeletal muscles have a striped appearance due to dark and light bands in the muscle fibers.
Striated means striped.
Where are smooth muscles located?
Smooth muscles are located in the walls of internal organs such as the digestive tract, blood vessels, and ducts leading from glands.
What is the function of smooth muscles?
Smooth muscles move and control the flow of fluids through internal structures.
Smooth muscles are also known as involuntary muscles.
What does it mean that smooth muscles are involuntary?
Smooth muscles are under the control of the autonomic nervous system and are not under voluntary control.
What are visceral muscles?
Visceral muscles are another name for smooth muscles, as they are found in hollow structures such as those of the digestive and urinary systems.
What is myocardial muscle?
Myocardial muscle, also known as myocardium or cardiac muscle, forms the muscular walls of the heart.
How does myocardial muscle compare to other muscle types?
Myocardial muscle is like striated skeletal muscle in appearance but is similar to smooth muscle in that its action is involuntary.
What causes the heartbeat?
The constant contraction and relaxation of the myocardial muscle causes the heartbeat.
What enables a wide range of muscle movements?
A combination of specialized muscle types, muscle innervation, and the organization of muscles into antagonistic muscle pairs enables a wide range of muscle movements.
What are the functions of the muscular system?
Muscles hold the body erect, make movement possible, generate nearly 85% of body heat, move food through the digestive system, aid blood flow, and move fluids through ducts and tubes.
What structures make up the muscular system?
The muscular system includes muscle fibers, fascia, tendons, and three types of muscle.
What is fascia?
Fascia is a band of connective tissue that envelops, separates, or binds together muscles or groups of muscles.
What is a tendon?
A tendon is a narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone.
What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?
Tendons attach muscle to bone, while ligaments connect one bone to another bone.
What is myofascial?
Myofascial means pertaining to muscle tissue and fascia.
What are muscle fibers?
Muscle fibers are the long, slender cells that make up muscles, grouped together by connective tissue.
What is an aponeurosis?
An aponeurosis is a sheet-like fibrous connective tissue that connects muscles together or to a bone.
How are muscles named?
Muscles are named based on various criteria, including their location, function, shape, and size.
What percentage of the body’s weight is made up of muscles?
Muscles make up about 40-45% of the body’s weight.
What are the functions of the muscular system?
Muscles hold the body erect, make movement possible, generate nearly 85% of body heat, move food through the digestive system, aid blood flow, and move fluids through ducts and tubes.
What structures make up the muscular system?
The muscular system includes muscle fibers, fascia, tendons, and three types of muscle.
What is fascia?
Fascia is a band of connective tissue that envelops, separates, or binds together muscles or groups of muscles.
What is a tendon?
A tendon is a narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone.
What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?
Tendons attach muscle to bone, while ligaments connect one bone to another bone.
What is myofascial?
Myofascial means pertaining to muscle tissue and fascia.
What are muscle fibers?
Muscle fibers are the long, slender cells that make up muscles, grouped together by connective tissue.
What is an aponeurosis?
An aponeurosis is a sheet-like fibrous connective tissue that connects muscles together or to a bone.
How are muscles named?
Muscles are named based on various criteria, including their location, function, shape, and size.
What percentage of the body’s weight is made up of muscles?
Muscles make up about 40-45% of the body’s weight.
What does the prefix ‘bi-‘ mean?
‘bi-‘ means twice, double, or two.
What does ‘clon/o’ refer to?
‘clon/o’ refers to violent action.
What does the prefix ‘dys-‘ indicate?
‘dys-‘ indicates bad, difficult, or painful.
What does ‘fasci/o’ mean?
‘fasci/o’ means fascia or fibrous band.
What does ‘fibr/o’ refer to?
‘fibr/o’ refers to fibrous tissue or fiber.
What does ‘-ia’ signify?
‘-ia’ signifies an abnormal condition, disease, or plural of ‘-ium’.
What does ‘-ic’ pertain to?
‘-ic’ pertains to.
What do ‘kines/o’ and ‘kinesi/o’ refer to?
‘kines/o’ and ‘kinesi/o’ refer to movement.
What does ‘-lysis’ mean?
‘-lysis’ means to set free or break down.
What does ‘my/o’ stand for?
‘my/o’ stands for muscle.
What does ‘-plegia’ indicate?
‘-plegia’ indicates paralysis or stroke.
What does ‘tax/o’ refer to?
‘tax/o’ refers to coordination or order.
What do ‘ten/o’, ‘tend/o’, and ‘tendin/o’ mean?
‘ten/o’, ‘tend/o’, and ‘tendin/o’ mean tendon, stretch out, extend, or strain.
What does ‘ton/o’ signify?
‘ton/o’ signifies tone, stretching, or tension.
What does the prefix ‘tri-‘ mean?
‘tri-‘ means three.
What is the definition of ‘abduction’?
‘Abduction’ is the movement away from the midline of the body.
What does ‘adduction’ mean?
‘Adduction’ is the movement toward the midline of the body.
What is ‘adhesion’?
‘Adhesion’ is the abnormal binding of tissues.
What does ‘ataxia’ refer to?
‘Ataxia’ refers to lack of muscle coordination.
What does ‘atonic’ mean?
‘Atonic’ means lacking normal muscle tone.
What is ‘atrophy’?
‘Atrophy’ is the wasting away or decrease in size of muscle.
What does ‘bradykinesia’ mean?
‘Bradykinesia’ refers to slow movement.
What is ‘carpal tunnel syndrome’?
‘Carpal tunnel syndrome’ is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist.
What does ‘chronic fatigue syndrome’ refer to?
‘Chronic fatigue syndrome’ refers to a complex disorder characterized by extreme fatigue.
What is ‘circumduction’?
‘Circumduction’ is the circular movement of a limb.
What does ‘compartment syndrome’ mean?
‘Compartment syndrome’ refers to increased pressure within a muscle compartment.
What is ‘contracture’?
‘Contracture’ is the permanent tightening of muscles and tendons.
What does ‘dorsiflexion’ refer to?
‘Dorsiflexion’ refers to the movement of the foot upwards.
What is ‘dyskinesia’?
‘Dyskinesia’ refers to abnormal or impaired movement.
What does ‘dystonia’ mean?
‘Dystonia’ refers to muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements.
What is ‘electromyography’?
‘Electromyography’ is a diagnostic procedure to assess the health of muscles and the nerve cells that control them.
What does ‘epicondylitis’ refer to?
‘Epicondylitis’ refers to inflammation of the tendons around the elbow.
What is ‘ergonomics’?
‘Ergonomics’ is the study of people’s efficiency in their working environment.
What does ‘exercise physiologist’ mean?
‘Exercise physiologist’ refers to a professional who studies the body’s responses to physical activity.
What is ‘fasciitis’?
‘Fasciitis’ refers to inflammation of the fascia.
What does ‘fibromyalgia’ mean?
‘Fibromyalgia’ is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain.
What is a ‘ganglion cyst’?
‘Ganglion cyst’ is a noncancerous lump that often develops along the tendons or joints of wrists or hands.
What does ‘heel spur’ refer to?
‘Heel spur’ refers to a bony growth on the underside of the heel bone.
What is ‘hemiparesis’?
‘Hemiparesis’ refers to weakness on one side of the body.
What does ‘hemiplegia’ mean?
‘Hemiplegia’ refers to paralysis on one side of the body.
What is a ‘hernia’?
‘Hernia’ is a condition in which an organ pushes through an opening in the muscle or tissue that holds it in place.
What does ‘hyperkinesia’ refer to?
‘Hyperkinesia’ refers to excessive movement.
What is ‘hypotonia’?
‘Hypotonia’ refers to decreased muscle tone.
What does ‘impingement syndrome’ mean?
‘Impingement syndrome’ refers to the condition where tendons of the shoulder are intermittently trapped or compressed.
What is ‘innervation’?
‘Innervation’ refers to the supply of nerves to a specific body part.
What does ‘insertion’ refer to?
‘Insertion’ refers to the point where a muscle attaches to a bone.
What is ‘intermittent claudication’?
‘Intermittent claudication’ refers to pain in the legs or buttocks during exercise due to inadequate blood flow.
What does ‘muscular dystrophy’ mean?
‘Muscular dystrophy’ refers to a group of diseases that cause progressive weakness and loss of muscle mass.
What is ‘myasthenia gravis’?
‘Myasthenia gravis’ is an autoimmune disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles.
What does ‘myoclonus’ refer to?
‘Myoclonus’ refers to sudden, involuntary muscle jerks.
What is ‘myofascial release’?
‘Myofascial release’ is a manual therapy technique used to relieve tension in the fascia.
What does ‘myoparesis’ mean?
‘Myoparesis’ refers to weakness of muscle.
What is ‘myorrhaphy’?
‘Myorrhaphy’ refers to the surgical suturing of a muscle.
What does ‘neuromuscular’ refer to?
‘Neuromuscular’ refers to the relationship between nerves and muscles.
What does ‘oblique’ mean?
‘Oblique’ refers to muscles that are neither parallel nor perpendicular to the body’s midline.
What is ‘origin’ in muscle anatomy?
‘Origin’ refers to the fixed attachment point of a muscle.
What does ‘paralysis’ mean?
‘Paralysis’ refers to the loss of muscle function in part of your body.
What is ‘paraplegia’?
‘Paraplegia’ refers to paralysis of the lower half of the body.
What does ‘physiatrist’ mean?
‘Physiatrist’ refers to a medical doctor specializing in physical medicine and rehabilitation.
What is ‘plantar fasciitis’?
‘Plantar fasciitis’ refers to inflammation of the plantar fascia, causing heel pain.
What does ‘polymyositis’ mean?
‘Polymyositis’ refers to a disease that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles.
What is ‘pronation’?
‘Pronation’ refers to the rotation of the forearm or foot inward.
What does ‘quadriplegia’ mean?
‘Quadriplegia’ refers to paralysis of all four limbs.
What is ‘sarcopenia’?
‘Sarcopenia’ refers to the loss of muscle mass and strength associated with aging.
What is a ‘shin splint’?
‘Shin splint’ refers to pain along the shin bone due to overuse.
What does ‘singultus’ mean?
‘Singultus’ refers to hiccups.
What is a ‘sphincter’?
‘Sphincter’ refers to a ring of muscle that constricts a passage or closes a natural opening.
What does ‘sprain’ refer to?
‘Sprain’ refers to the stretching or tearing of ligaments.
What is ‘tendinopathy’?
‘Tendinopathy’ refers to a condition involving pain and dysfunction of a tendon.
What does ‘tenodesis’ mean?
‘Tenodesis’ refers to the surgical fixation of a tendon to a bone.
What is ‘tenolysis’?
‘Tenolysis’ refers to the surgical release of a tendon.
What does ‘tenosynovitis’ mean?
‘Tenosynovitis’ refers to inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon.
What is ‘tenotomy’?
‘Tenotomy’ refers to the surgical cutting of a tendon.
What does ‘torticollis’ mean?
‘Torticollis’ refers to a condition in which the neck muscles contract, causing the head to twist.
What does ‘transverse’ refer to?
‘Transverse’ refers to a plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts.
What are the major structures of the muscular system?
Muscles, fascia, and tendons.
What are the related combining forms for muscles?
muscul/o, my/o, myos/o
What is the related combining form for fascia?
fasci/o
What are the related combining forms for tendons?
ten/o, tend/o, tendin/o
What are the primary functions of the muscular system?
Make body movement possible, hold body erect, move body fluids, and produce body heat.
What is the function of fascia in the muscular system?
Cover, support, and separate muscles.
What is the function of tendons?
Attach muscles to bones.
What is internal fixation?
Internal fixation, also known as open reduction internal fixation (ORIF), is a fracture treatment in which a plate or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold the broken pieces in place.
Is internal fixation usually removed after healing?
No, this form of fixation is not usually removed after the fracture has healed.
What does BDT stand for?
BDT stands for bone density testing.
What does OA stand for?
OA stands for osteoarthritis.
What does OP stand for?
OP stands for osteoporosis.
What does PKR stand for?
PKR stands for partial knee replacement.
What does PMR stand for?
PMR stands for polymyalgia rheumatica.
What does RA stand for?
RA stands for rheumatoid arthritis.
What does THR stand for?
THR stands for total hip replacement.
What does TKR stand for?
TKR stands for total knee replacement.
What should you be cautious about when using abbreviations?
Always be cautious when using abbreviations to avoid errors or confusion.
What is revision surgery?
Revision surgery is the replacement of a worn or failed implant.
What is amputation?
Amputation is the surgical or accidental removal of a limb.
What is phantom limb pain?
Phantom limb pain is a post amputation phenomenon in which there is a sensation of pain from a body part that is no longer there.
What is a percutaneous diskectomy?
A percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a herniated intervertebral disk that does not respond to physical therapy or other treatments.
In this procedure, a thin tube is inserted through the skin of the back to remove the fragment of the disk compressing the nerve.
What does percutaneous mean?
Percutaneous means performed through the skin.
What is percutaneous vertebroplasty?
Percutaneous vertebroplasty is performed to treat osteoporosis-related compression fractures.
In this minimally invasive procedure, bone cement is injected to stabilize compression fractures within the spinal column.
What is a laminectomy?
A laminectomy is the surgical removal of the lamina, or posterior portion, of a vertebra.
This procedure, also known as decompression surgery, relieves pressure on the spinal cord by enlarging the spinal canal.
What is spinal fusion?
Spinal fusion is a technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together (fusing) two or more vertebrae.
What is a decompressive craniectomy?
A decompressive craniectomy is the surgical removal of a portion of the skull to relieve increased intracranial pressure due to swelling from a traumatic brain injury.
What is a craniotomy?
A craniotomy is a surgical incision or opening into the skull to gain access to the brain.
This procedure is performed to remove a tumor, relieve intracranial pressure, or obtain access for other surgical procedures.
What is osteotomy?
Osteotomy is the surgical cutting and reshaping of a bone.
This may include removing part or all of a bone, or cutting into or through a bone.
What is closed reduction?
Closed reduction, also known as manipulation, is the attempted non-surgical realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation.
What is open reduction?
Open reduction is a surgical procedure required to realign the bone parts when a closed reduction is not practical.
What is immobilization?
Immobilization, also known as stabilization, is the act of holding, suturing, or fastening the bone in a fixed position.
What is traction?
Traction is a pulling force exerted on a limb in a distal direction to return the bone or joint to normal alignment.
What is external fixation?
External fixation is a fracture treatment procedure in which pins are placed through the soft tissues and bone to hold the pieces of bone firmly in place during healing.
What is a partial knee replacement (PKR)?
A procedure in which only part of the knee is replaced, which can be the medial, lateral, or front patella. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments are preserved.
What is a total hip replacement (THR)?
A surgery performed to restore a damaged hip to full function by fitting a plastic liner with a metal shell into the acetabulum and replacing the head of the femur with a metal or ceramic ball attached to a metal shaft.
What is hip resurfacing arthroplasty?
An alternative to removing the head of the femur, where a metal cap is placed over the head of the femur to allow smooth movement over a metal lining in the acetabulum. This technique is often used in younger, more active patients.
What does shoulder replacement surgery involve?
Repairs injuries to the shoulder joint by replacing the top of the humerus with a metal ball and the damaged portion of the socket with a plastic prosthesis.
What is low dose hormone replacement therapy used for?
It is sometimes used in the short term to maintain bone density in women at high risk for bone loss after menopause.
What is a bone marrow transplant (BMT)?
A BMT is a stem cell transplant used to treat certain types of cancers, such as leukemia and lymphomas.
What happens to the patient’s bone marrow during a BMT?
Initially, both the cancer cells and the patient’s bone marrow are destroyed with high-intensity radiation and chemotherapy.
What occurs after the destruction of cancer cells and bone marrow in a BMT?
Healthy bone marrow stem cells are infused into the recipient’s blood, where they migrate to the spongy bone and multiply to form cancer-free red bone marrow.
What is an allogenic bone marrow transplant?
An allogenic bone marrow transplant uses healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor, often a sibling.
What is the risk associated with an allogenic bone marrow transplant?
Unless there is a perfect match, there is a danger that the recipient’s body will reject the transplant.
What is an autologous bone marrow transplant?
An autologous bone marrow transplant involves the patient receiving his or her own bone marrow cells, which have been harvested, cleansed, treated, and stored.
What is a peripheral blood stem cell transplant?
It utilizes blood-forming stem cells from the bloodstream of the patient or donor, which are removed, stored, and then the blood is returned to the donor.
What is an orthotic?
An orthotic is a mechanical appliance designed to support, control, correct, or compensate for impaired limb function.
What is a prosthesis?
A prosthesis is a substitute for a diseased or missing body part, such as an amputated leg.
What is ACL reconstruction?
ACL reconstruction is a surgery to replace a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee.
What is arthrodesis?
Arthrodesis is the surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint, performed to treat severe arthritis or a damaged joint.
What is arthroscopic surgery?
Arthroscopic surgery is a minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of the interior of a joint.
What is bone grafting?
Bone grafting is a surgical procedure using transplanted bone to repair and rebuild bones damaged by injury or disease.
What is a synovectomy?
A synovectomy is the surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint, usually the knee.
What does arthroplasty mean?
Arthroplasty means the surgical repair of a damaged joint, often referring to the resurfacing of bones or placement of an artificial joint.
What is a total knee replacement (TKR)?
A total knee replacement means that all parts of the knee are replaced, also known as total knee arthroplasty.
What is an oblique fracture?
An oblique fracture occurs at an angle across the bone.
What is a pathologic fracture?
A pathologic fracture occurs when a bone breaks under normal strain due to weakened bones from conditions like osteoporosis or cancer.
What is a spiral fracture?
A spiral fracture is a complete fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart, often due to severe twisting motions.
What is a stress fracture?
A stress fracture is a small crack in the bone that develops from chronic, excessive impact.
What is a transverse fracture?
A transverse fracture occurs straight across, perpendicular to the shaft of the bone.
What is a bone marrow biopsy?
A bone marrow biopsy is a diagnostic test necessary after abnormal types or numbers of blood cells are found in a complete blood count.
What is bone marrow aspiration?
Bone marrow aspiration is the use of a syringe to withdraw tissue from the red bone marrow for diagnostic purposes or medical procedures.
What is MRI used for?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to image soft tissue structures, but is not effective for hard tissues like bone.
What is a fat embolus?
A fat embolus can form when a long bone is fractured, releasing fat cells into the blood, which can block blood vessels.
What is crepitation?
Crepitation, also known as crepitus, is the grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together.
What is a callus in bone healing?
A callus forms as a bulging deposit around the area of a break and eventually becomes bone.
What is bone density testing?
Bone density testing (BDT) is used to determine losses or changes in bone density and diagnose conditions like osteoporosis.
What is ultrasonic bone density testing?
Ultrasonic bone density testing is a screening test for osteoporosis using sound waves to measure the calcaneus (heel) bone.
What is dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)?
Dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) is a low-exposure radiographic measurement of the spine and hips to measure bone density.
What is X-ray imaging?
X-ray imaging uses electromagnetic radiation to create x-rays that visualize bone fractures and abnormalities.
What is arthroscopy?
Arthroscopy is the visual examination of the internal structure of a joint using an arthroscope.
What are bisphosphonates?
Bisphosphonates are drugs used to slow the loss of bone density due to osteoporosis, reducing the risk of broken bones.
What is an osteoporotic hip fracture?
An osteoporotic hip fracture is usually caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis and can occur either spontaneously or as the result of a fall.
Complications can result in loss of function, mobility, independence, or death.
What does ‘osteoporotic’ mean?
‘Osteoporotic’ means pertaining to or caused by the porous condition of bones.
What is a closed fracture?
A closed fracture, also known as a simple fracture or a complete fracture, is one in which the bone is broken, but there is no open wound in the skin.
What is an open fracture?
An open fracture, also known as a compound fracture, is one in which the bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin.
What is a comminuted fracture?
In a comminuted fracture, the bone is splintered or crushed. Comminuted means crushed into small pieces.
What is an incomplete fracture?
An incomplete fracture is one in which the bone does not break into two separate pieces and occurs primarily in children.
What is a greenstick fracture?
In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone is broken and the other side is only bent.
What is a buckle fracture?
A buckle fracture, also called a torus fracture, is when the affected side of the bone is compressed and buckles but does not break.
What is Paget’s disease?
Paget’s disease is a chronic bone disease characterized by abnormal breakdown of bone followed by abnormal bone formation, often resulting in enlarged, misshapen, and weak bones.
What is periostitis?
Periostitis is an inflammation of the periosteum, often associated with shin splints.
What is radiculopathy?
Radiculopathy is a condition caused by the compression of a nerve in the spine, leading to pain, numbness, or weakness along the nerve’s path.
What is rickets?
Rickets is a deficiency disease in children characterized by defective bone growth due to a lack of vitamin D necessary for maintaining calcium and phosphorus levels in bones.
What is spinal stenosis?
Spinal stenosis is a narrowing of the spaces within the spine, potentially putting pressure on the nerves and spinal cord, causing pain.
What is short stature?
Short stature, formerly known as dwarfism, results from the failure of limb bones to grow to an appropriate length compared to the head and trunk, defined as an average adult height of no more than 4 feet 10 inches.
What is clubfoot?
Clubfoot, or talipes, describes any congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus (ankle bones).
What is primary bone cancer?
Primary bone cancer is a rare malignant tumor that originates in a bone.
What is secondary bone cancer?
Secondary bone cancer occurs when cancer cells metastasize to the bones from other organs such as the breasts, prostate, or lungs.
What is multiple myeloma?
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer occurring in blood-making plasma cells found in red bone marrow, weakening bones and impacting other body systems.
What is an osteochondroma?
An osteochondroma is a benign bony projection covered with cartilage, also known as an exostosis.
What is osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis is a marked loss of bone density and an increase in bone porosity, frequently associated with aging, especially in women over 50.
What is osteopenia?
Osteopenia is thinner-than-average bone density, indicating a greater-than-average chance of developing osteoporosis.
What is a compression fracture?
A compression fracture occurs when the bone is pressed together, often due to the collapse of weakened vertebrae, leading to pain and loss of height.
What is a Colles fracture?
A Colles fracture, also known as a broken wrist, occurs at the lower end of the radius when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on their hands.
What is Lumbago?
Lumbago, also known as low back pain (LBP), is the general term for pain in the lumbar region of the spine.
‘Lumb’ means lumbar, and ‘-ago’ means diseased condition.
What is Spondylolisthesis?
Spondylolisthesis is the forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra or sacrum below it.
‘Spondyl/o’ means vertebrae, and ‘-listhesis’ means slipping.
What is Spina Bifida?
Spina bifida is a congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy when the spinal canal fails to close completely around the spinal cord.
‘Spina’ means pertaining to the spine. ‘Bifida’ means split.
What is Kyphosis?
Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side.
‘Kyph’ means hump, and ‘-osis’ means abnormal condition or disease.
What is Lordosis?
Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine.
‘Lord’ means bent backward, and ‘-osis’ means abnormal condition or disease.
What is Scoliosis?
Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature of the spine.
‘Scoli’ means curved, and ‘-osis’ means abnormal condition or disease.
What is Avascular Necrosis?
Avascular necrosis, also known as osteonecrosis, is an area of bone tissue death caused by insufficient blood flow.
It most commonly occurs in patients between ages 30 and 50.
What is Osteitis?
Osteitis is an inflammation of a bone.
‘Oste’ means bone, and ‘-itis’ means inflammation.
What is Osteomalacia?
Osteomalacia, also known as adult rickets, is abnormal softening of bones in adults.
This condition is most often caused by a vitamin D deficiency.
What is Osteomyelitis?
Osteomyelitis is an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone.
The bacterial infection often originates in another part of the body and spreads to the bone via the bloodstream.
What is gout?
Gout, also known as gouty arthritis, is a type of inflammatory arthritis characterized by deposits of urate crystals in the joints, often the big toe. Joints affected by gout are typically hot, red, and excruciatingly sensitive. High levels of uric acid in the blood can lead to the formation of urate crystals.
What is pseudogout?
Pseudogout is a form of arthritis that most commonly affects the knees or wrists, caused by a buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints and some organs are attacked, leading to inflammation and thickening of the synovial membranes, resulting in swollen, painful, and immobile joints.
What is ankylosing spondylitis?
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae, leading to progressive stiffening and potential fusion of the vertebrae, limiting mobility and lung capacity.
What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is an autoimmune disorder affecting children ages 16 years or younger, with symptoms including stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue. Many children with JIA outgrow it.
What is psoriatic arthritis?
Psoriatic arthritis (PsA) is an inflammatory form of arthritis developed by about 20% of all people with the autoimmune skin disease psoriasis.
What is a herniated disk?
A herniated disk, also known as a slipped or ruptured disk, is the breaking apart of an intervertebral disk resulting in a bulge that can put pressure on spinal nerve roots.
What is bursitis?
Bursitis is an inflammation of a bursa.
(burs means bursa, and -itis means inflammation)
What is chondromalacia?
Chondromalacia is the abnormal softening of cartilage.
(chondr/o means cartilage, and -malacia means abnormal softening)
What is costochondritis?
Costochondritis is an inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum.
(cost/o means rib, chondr means cartilage, and -itis means inflammation)
What is hallux valgus?
Hallux valgus, also known as a bunion, is an abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe.
(hallux is Latin for big toe, and valgus means bent)
What is hemarthrosis?
Hemarthrosis is blood within a joint.
(hem means blood, arthr means joint, and -osis means abnormal condition or disease)
What is polymyalgia rheumatica?
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is an inflammatory disorder of the muscles and joints characterized by pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips and thighs.
(poly- means many, my means muscle, and -algia means pain)
What is a sprain?
A sprain occurs when a ligament that connects bones to a joint is wrenched or torn.
What is synovitis?
Synovitis is inflammation of the synovial membrane that results in swelling and pain of the affected joint.
(synov means synovial membrane, and -itis means inflammation)
What is dislocation?
Dislocation, also known as luxation, is the total displacement of a bone from its joint.
What is subluxation?
Subluxation is the partial displacement of a bone from its joint.
What is arthritis?
Arthritis is an inflammatory condition of one or more joints.
(arthr means joint, and -itis means inflammation)
What is osteoarthritis?
Osteoarthritis (OA), also known as wear-and-tear arthritis, is most commonly associated with aging.
(oste/o means bone, arthr means joint, and -itis means inflammation)
What characterizes osteoarthritis?
Osteoarthritis is characterized by the wearing away of the articular cartilage within the joints and hypertrophy of bone with the formation of osteophytes.
What is spondylosis?
Spondylosis is also known as spinal osteoarthritis and can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function.
(spondyl means vertebrae, and -osis means abnormal condition or disease)
What is the fibula?
The fibula is one of the two bones in the lower leg, alongside the tibia.
What are the bones of the foot?
The bones of the foot include the talus, calcaneus, metatarsals, and phalanges.
What are the types of phalanges?
The types of phalanges are distal phalanx, middle phalanx, and proximal phalanx.
What does -osis mean?
-osis means abnormal condition or disease.
What does mobility mean?
Mobility means being capable of movement.
What is adhesive capsulitis?
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is painful ankylosis of the shoulder caused by adhesions forming in the synovial capsule surrounding the shoulder.
What is arthrosclerosis?
Arthrosclerosis is stiffness of the joints, especially in the elderly.
What is a Baker’s cyst?
A Baker’s cyst, also known as a popliteal cyst, is a fluid-filled sac behind the knee.
What are the femurs?
The femurs are the largest bones in the body, also known as thigh bones.
What does femoral mean?
Femoral means pertaining to the femur.
What is the head of the femur?
The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum (hip socket).
What is the femoral neck?
The femoral neck is the narrow area just below the head of the femur.
What is the patella?
The patella, also known as the kneecap, is the bony anterior portion of the knee.
What does popliteal refer to?
Popliteal describes the posterior space behind the knee where ligaments, vessels, and muscles are located.
What are cruciate ligaments?
The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments enable knee movements and are shaped like a cross.
What is an ACL injury?
A tear in the anterior cruciate ligament is often referred to as an ACL injury.
What bones make up the lower leg?
The lower leg is made up of the tibia and the fibula.
What is the tibia?
The tibia, also known as the shinbone, is the larger anterior weight-bearing bone of the lower leg.
What is the fibula?
The fibula is the smaller of the two bones of the lower leg.
What are the ankles?
The ankles are the joints that connect the lower leg and foot.
How many tarsal bones are in each ankle?
Each ankle is made up of seven short tarsal bones.
What is the malleolus?
The malleolus is a rounded bony projection on the tibia and fibula on the sides of each ankle joint.
What is the talus?
The talus is the ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula.
What is the calcaneus?
The calcaneus, also known as the heel bone, is the largest of the tarsal bones.
What are metatarsals?
The five metatarsals form that part of the foot to which the toes are attached.
What are phalanges?
The phalanges are the bones of the toes; the great toe has two phalanges, while each of the other toes has three.
What does a chiropractor specialize in?
A chiropractor specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating from misalignment of the spine.
What is an orthopedic surgeon?
An orthopedic surgeon specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles.
What does an osteopath do?
An osteopath uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation.
What does a podiatrist specialize in?
A podiatrist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot.
What does a rheumatologist specialize in?
A rheumatologist specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of arthritis and disorders characterized by inflammation in the joints and connective tissues.
What is ankylosis?
Ankylosis is the loss or absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure.
What is the pelvis?
The pelvis, also known as the bony pelvis, protects internal organs and supports the lower extremities.
What bones make up the pelvic girdle?
The pelvic girdle consists of the ilium, ischium, and pubis.
What is the ilium?
The ilium is the broad, blade-shaped bone that forms the back and sides of the pubic bone.
What is the sacroiliac joint?
The sacroiliac is the slightly movable articulation between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium.
What is the ischium?
The ischium forms the lower posterior portion of the pubic bone and bears the weight of the body when sitting.
What is the pubis?
The pubis forms the anterior portion of the pubic bone, located just below the urinary bladder.
What happens to the ilium, ischium, and pubis at birth?
At birth, the ilium, ischium, and pubis are three separate bones that fuse to form the left and right pubic bones.
What is the pubic symphysis?
The pubic symphysis is the cartilaginous joint that unites the left and right pubic bones.
What is the acetabulum?
The acetabulum, also known as the hip socket, is the large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint.
What are the first five cervical vertebrae?
The first cervical vertebra is known as C1, and the second as C2.
What is the curvature of the cervical region?
The cervical region is curved anteriorly.
What is the curvature of the thoracic region?
The thoracic region is curved posteriorly.
What are the first five lumbar vertebrae?
The lumbar vertebrae are known as L1 through L5.
What is the curvature of the lumbar region?
The lumbar region is curved anteriorly.
What are the sacral and coccygeal regions’ curvature?
The sacral and coccygeal regions are curved posteriorly.
What is the function of the lumbar vertebrae?
The lumbar vertebrae are the largest and strongest of the vertebrae, bearing most of the body’s weight.
What is the sacrum?
The sacrum is a slightly curved, triangular-shaped bone at the base of the spine, formed from five separate bones that fuse together.
What is the coccyx?
The coccyx, or tailbone, is made up of four small vertebrae that are entirely or partially fused together.
What does the term ‘lumbar’ refer to?
Lumbar refers to the part of the back and sides between the ribs and the pelvis.
What is the spinal column also known as?
The spinal column is also known as the vertebral column.
What does the spinal column protect?
The spinal column protects the spinal cord.
How many vertebrae make up the spinal column?
The spinal column consists of 26 vertebrae.
What is each bony unit of the spinal column called?
Each bony unit is known as a vertebra.
What is the anterior portion of a vertebra called?
The anterior portion is known as the body of the vertebra.
What is the posterior portion of a vertebra called?
The posterior portion is known as the lamina.
What is the function of the transverse and spinous processes?
They serve as attachments for muscles and tendons.
What is the vertebral foramen?
The vertebral foramen is the opening in the middle of the vertebra that allows the spinal cord to pass through.
What are intervertebral disks made of?
Intervertebral disks are made of cartilage and pads of tissue.
What is the function of intervertebral disks?
They separate and cushion the vertebrae from each other and allow for movement of the spinal column.
What is the inner core of intervertebral disks called?
The inner core is called the nucleus pulposus.
What are the cervical vertebrae?
The cervical vertebrae are the first set of seven vertebrae that form the neck.
What are the thoracic vertebrae?
The thoracic vertebrae are the second set of 12 vertebrae, each with a pair of ribs attached.
What is the range of cervical vertebrae?
Cervical vertebrae are known as C1 through C7.
What is the range of thoracic vertebrae?
Thoracic vertebrae are known as T1 through T12.
What does the term ‘thoracic’ refer to?
Thoracic means pertaining to the thoracic cavity.
What is the bone of the upper arm?
The humerus (HEW-mer-us) is the bone of the upper arm (plural, humeri).
What is the smaller and shorter bone in the forearm?
The radius (RAY-dee-us) is the smaller and shorter bone in the forearm. It runs up the thumb side of the forearm (plural, radii).
What is the larger and longer bone of the forearm?
The ulna (ULL-nah) is the larger and longer bone of the forearm (plural, ulnae).
What joint is formed by the ulna and humerus?
The proximal end of the ulna articulates with the distal end of the humerus to form the elbow joint.
What is the olecranon?
The olecranon (oh-LEK-rah-non), commonly known as the funny bone, is the large, proximal tip of the ulna.
What forms the point of the elbow?
The olecranon forms the point of the elbow and exposes a nerve that tingles when struck.
What are the bones that form the wrist?
The eight carpals (KAR-palz) are the bones that form the wrist (singular, carpal).
What is the carpal tunnel?
The carpals form a narrow bony passage known as the carpal tunnel, through which the median nerve and the tendons of the fingers pass to reach the hand.
What are the bones that form the palms of the hand?
The metacarpals (met-ah-KAR-palz) are the five bones that form the palms of the hand.
What are the bones of the fingers called?
The phalanges (fah-LAN-jeez) are the 14 bones of the fingers (singular, phalanx).
How many bones does each of the four fingers have?
Each of the four fingers has three bones: the distal (outermost), middle, and proximal (nearest the hand) phalanges.
How many bones does the thumb have?
The thumb has two bones: the distal and proximal phalanges.
What is the thoracic cavity?
The thoracic cavity, also known as the rib cage, is the bony structure that protects the heart and lungs.
What structures make up the thoracic cavity?
The thoracic cavity consists of the ribs, sternum, and upper portion of the spinal column extending from the neck to the diaphragm.
How many pairs of ribs are there?
There are 12 pairs of ribs, also known as costals.
What are true ribs?
The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs, and they attach anteriorly to the sternum.
What are false ribs?
The next three pairs of ribs are called false ribs, and they attach anteriorly to cartilage that connects them to the sternum.
What are floating ribs?
The last two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs, because they are only attached posteriorly to the vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly.
What is the sternum?
The sternum, also known as the breast bone, is a flat, dagger-shaped bone located in the middle of the chest.
What are the three parts of the sternum?
The sternum is divided into three parts: the manubrium, the body (gladiolus), and the xiphoid process.
What is the manubrium?
The manubrium is the bony structure that forms the upper portion of the sternum.
What is the body of the sternum?
The body of the sternum, also known as the gladiolus, is the bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum.
What is the xiphoid process?
The xiphoid process is the structure made of cartilage that forms the lower portion of the sternum.
What is the pectoral girdle?
The shoulders form the pectoral girdle, which supports the arms and hands.
What is the clavicle?
The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is a slender bone that connects the manubrium of the sternum to the scapula.
What is the scapula?
The scapula, also known as the shoulder blade, is a bone that forms part of the shoulder.
What is the acromion?
The acromion is an extension of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder.
What bones make up the coronal suture?
Frontal bone, Parietal bone, Sphenoid bone, Temporal bone, Ethmoid bone
What do the two nasal bones form?
The upper part of the bridge of the nose.
What are the zygomatic bones also known as?
Cheekbones. They articulate with the frontal bone that makes up the forehead.
What do the two maxillary bones form?
Most of the upper jaw (singular, maxilla). They are also known as the maxillae.
What do the two palatine bones form?
The anterior part of the hard palate of the mouth and the floor of the nose.
What do the two lacrimal bones contribute to?
Part of the orbit (socket of the eye) at the inner angle.
What are the inferior conchae?
Thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose.
What does the vomer bone form?
The base for the nasal septum, which divides the two nasal cavities.
What is the mandible also known as?
The jawbone, and it is the only movable bone of the skull.
Where is the mandible attached to the skull?
At the temporo-mandibular joint (TMJ).
What is the frontal bone?
The frontal bone is the anterior portion of the cranium that forms the forehead. This bone houses the frontal sinuses and forms the roof of the ethmoid sinuses, the nose, and part of the socket that protects the eyeball.
What do the parietal bones form?
The parietal bones are two of the largest bones of the skull. Together they form most of the roof and upper sides of the cranium.
What is the function of the occipital bone?
The occipital bone forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium.
What do the temporal bones form?
The two temporal bones form the sides and base of the skull.
What is the external auditory meatus?
The external auditory meatus is the opening of the external auditory canal of the outer ear, located within the temporal bone on each side of the skull.
What is the sphenoid bone?
The sphenoid bone is an irregular, wedge-shaped bone at the base of the skull that makes contact with all of the other cranial bones and helps form the base of the cranium, the sides of the skull, and the floors and sides of the eye sockets.
What is the ethmoid bone?
The ethmoid bone is a light, spongy bone located at the roof and sides of the nose. It separates the nasal cavity from the brain and forms a portion of each orbit.
What are the auditory ossicles?
The auditory ossicles are the three tiny bones located in each middle ear, known as the malleus, incus, and stapes.
How many bones make up the face?
The face is made up of 14 bones, some of which contain air-filled cavities known as sinuses that help lighten the weight of the skull.
What is the cranium?
The cranium is the portion of the skull that encloses and protects the brain.
How many bones make up the cranium?
The cranium is made up of eight bones.
What are the joints that connect cranial bones called?
The cranial bones are joined by jagged fibrous joints referred to as sutures.
List the bones of the human skeleton.
Frontal, Temporal, Zygomatic, Maxilla, Sternum, Thorax, Parietal, Occipital, Cervical vertebrae, Clavicle, Scapula, Vertebral column, Ribs, Ilium, Sacrum, Coccyx, Carpals, Metacarpals, Phalanges, Femur, Patella, Tibia, Fibula, Tarsals, Metatarsals, Phalanges, Calcaneus.
What are ligaments?
Ligaments are bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting one bone to another bone or by joining a bone to cartilage.
What is a bursa?
A bursa is a fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction.
How many bones does the typical adult human skeleton consist of?
The typical adult human skeleton consists of approximately 206 bones.
What are the two main divisions of the human skeleton?
The skeleton is divided into the axial and appendicular skeletal systems.
What does the axial skeleton protect?
The axial skeleton protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems.
How many bones are in the axial skeleton?
The axial skeleton consists of 80 bones.
What are the five parts of the axial skeleton?
The five parts are (1) the bones of the skull; (2) the ossicles of the middle ear; (3) the hyoid bone; (4) the rib cage; and (5) the vertebral column.
What is the function of the appendicular skeleton?
The appendicular skeleton makes body movement possible and protects the organs of digestion, excretion, and reproduction.
How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?
The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones.
What are the two main groups of bones in the appendicular skeleton?
The two groups are (1) the upper extremities and (2) the lower extremities.
What is an appendage?
An appendage is anything that is attached to a major part of the body.
How many bones make up the skull?
The skull consists of 8 bones that form the cranium, 14 bones that form the face, and 6 bones in the middle ear.
What are synovial joints?
Synovial joints are created where two bones articulate to permit a variety of motions.
What are the types of synovial joints?
The types of synovial joints include ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints.
What is a ball-and-socket joint?
A ball-and-socket joint allows a wide range of movement in many directions, such as the hips and shoulders.
What is a hinge joint?
A hinge joint allows movement primarily in one direction or plane, such as the knees and elbows.
What are cartilaginous joints?
Cartilaginous joints allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage.
Where can you find cartilaginous joints?
Cartilaginous joints can be found where the ribs connect to the sternum and in the pubic symphysis.
What are fontanelles?
Fontanelles, or soft spots, are flexible areas on a newborn’s skull that facilitate passage through the birth canal and allow for skull growth.
What is the synovial capsule?
The synovial capsule is the outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that surrounds the joint.
What does the synovial membrane do?
The synovial membrane lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid.
What is the function of synovial fluid?
Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant to enable smooth movement of the joint.
What are synovial joints?
Synovial joints are created where two bones articulate to permit a variety of motions.
What are the types of synovial joints?
The types of synovial joints include ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints.
What is a ball-and-socket joint?
A ball-and-socket joint allows a wide range of movement in many directions, such as the hips and shoulders.
What is a hinge joint?
A hinge joint allows movement primarily in one direction or plane, such as the knees and elbows.
What are cartilaginous joints?
Cartilaginous joints allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage.
Where can you find cartilaginous joints?
Cartilaginous joints can be found where the ribs connect to the sternum and in the pubic symphysis.
What are fontanelles?
Fontanelles, or soft spots, are flexible areas on a newborn’s skull that facilitate passage through the birth canal and allow for skull growth.
What is the synovial capsule?
The synovial capsule is the outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that surrounds the joint.
What does the synovial membrane do?
The synovial membrane lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid.
What is the function of synovial fluid?
Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant to enable smooth movement of the joint.
What is periosteum?
Periosteum is the tough, fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of bone.
‘peri-‘ means surrounding, ‘oste’ means bone, and ‘-um’ is a noun ending.
What is compact bone?
Compact bone, also known as cortical bone, is the dense, hard, and very strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of bones.
What percentage of the body’s bone matter does compact bone account for?
Compact bone accounts for more than 75% of the body’s bone matter.
What is spongy bone?
Spongy bone, also known as cancellous bone, is porous and lighter than compact bone.
Where is red bone marrow located?
Red bone marrow is often located within spongy bone, commonly found in the ends and inner portions of long bones, as well as in the pelvic bones, ribs, and vertebrae.
What are examples of long bones?
The major bones of the arms and legs, including the femur and humerus, are examples of long bones.
What are short bones?
Short bones include the bones of the wrist and ankle, which are roughly cube-shaped and made up of spongy bone covered with a layer of compact bone.
What is the medullary cavity?
The medullary cavity is the central cavity located in the shaft of long bones, surrounded by compact bone.
What is stored in the medullary cavity?
Red and yellow bone marrow are stored in the medullary cavity.
What is endosteum?
Endosteum is the tissue that lines the medullary cavity.
‘end-‘ means within, ‘oste’ means bone, and ‘-um’ is a noun ending.
What is the function of red bone marrow?
Red bone marrow manufactures red blood cells, hemoglobin, white blood cells, and thrombocytes.
What does hematopoietic mean?
Hematopoietic means pertaining to the formation of blood cells.
‘hemat/o’ means blood, and ‘-poietic’ means pertaining to formation.
What is yellow bone marrow?
Yellow bone marrow functions as a fat storage area and is composed chiefly of fat cells.
What is cartilage?
Cartilage is the smooth, rubbery, blue-white connective tissue that acts as a shock absorber between bones.
What is articular cartilage?
Articular cartilage covers the surfaces of bones where they articulate to form joints.
What is the meniscus?
The meniscus is the curved, fibrous cartilage found in some joints, such as the knee and temporomandibular joint.
What is the diaphysis?
The diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone.
What are epiphyses?
The epiphyses are the wider ends of long bones, covered with articular cartilage.
What is a foramen?
A foramen is an opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass.
What is a process in bone anatomy?
A process is a normal projection on the surface of a bone that serves as an attachment for a muscle or tendon.
What are joints?
Joints, also known as articulations, are the place of union between two or more bones.
What are fibrous joints?
Fibrous joints consist of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue that hold the bones tightly together.
What are the major functions of the skeletal system?
The skeletal system provides framework, supports and protects internal organs, facilitates body movements with joints, stores calcium, and houses red bone marrow for blood cell formation.
What are the three types of joints?
The three types of joints are fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial.
What is the difference between the axial and appendicular skeletons?
The axial skeleton consists of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage, while the appendicular skeleton includes the limbs and girdles.
Who are the medical specialists that treat skeletal system disorders?
Orthopedic surgeons and rheumatologists are medical specialists who treat disorders of the skeletal system.
What is ossification?
Ossification is the process where a newborn’s skeleton transforms from membranes and cartilage into bone, continuing through adolescence.
What role do osteoclasts and osteoblasts play in bone formation?
Osteoclasts break down old or damaged bone, while osteoblasts help rebuild new bone.
What is the hardest tissue in the human body?
Dental enamel is the hardest tissue, while bone is the second hardest.
What are the main components of bone structure?
Bone structure includes articular cartilage, red bone marrow, spongy bone, medullary cavity, compact bone tissue, endosteum, yellow bone marrow, periosteum, proximal epiphysis, diaphysis, and distal epiphysis.
What does ‘ankyl/o’ mean?
crooked, bent, stiff
What does ‘arthr/o’ refer to?
joint
What is ‘burs/o’?
bursa
What do ‘chondr/i’ and ‘chondr/o’ signify?
cartilage
What does ‘cost/o’ represent?
rib
What does ‘crani/o’ refer to?
skull
What does ‘-desis’ mean?
to bind, tie together
What does ‘kyph/o’ indicate?
bent, hump
What does ‘lord/o’ mean?
curve, swayback, bent
What does ‘lumb/o’ refer to?
lumbar, lower back
What does ‘myel/o’ signify?
spinal cord, bone marrow
What do ‘oss/e’, ‘oss/i’, ‘ost/o’, and ‘oste/o’ refer to?
bone
What does ‘scoli/o’ mean?
curved, bent
What does ‘spondyl/o’ signify?
vertebrae, vertebral column, backbone
What do ‘synovi/o’ and ‘synov/o’ refer to?
synovial membrane, synovial fluid
What is an ‘acetabulum’?
a cup-shaped socket in the hip bone
(ass-eh-TAB-you-lum)
What does ‘allogenic’ mean?
derived from a different individual of the same species
(al-oh-JEN-ick)
What is ‘ankylosing spondylitis’?
a type of arthritis that affects the spine
(ang-kih-LOH-sing spon-dih-LYE-tis)
What is ‘arthrodesis’?
surgical fusion of a joint
(ar-throh-DEE-sis)
What is ‘arthroscopy’?
a minimally invasive surgical procedure on a joint
(ar-THROS-koh-pee)
What does ‘autologous’ mean?
derived from the same individual
(aw-TOL-uh-guss)
What is ‘avascular necrosis’?
death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply
(ay-VAS-cue-ler neh-KROH-sis)
What is a ‘callus’?
a thickened and hardened part of the skin or bone
(KAL-us)
What is ‘chondromalacia’?
softening of the cartilage
(kon-droh-mah-LAY-shee-ah)
What is a ‘comminuted fracture’?
a fracture in which the bone is broken into several pieces
(KOM-ih-newt-ed)
What is a ‘compression fracture’?
a fracture that occurs when the bone is crushed
(compression fracture)
What is ‘costochondritis’?
inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum
(kos-toh-kon-DRIGH-tis)
What does ‘crepitation’ refer to?
a crackling or popping sound in the joints
(krep-ih-TAY-shun)
What is ‘dual x-ray absorptiometry’?
a technique used to measure bone density
(ab-sorp-shee-OM-eh-tree)
What is a ‘fat embolus’?
a blockage caused by fat globules in the bloodstream
(EM-boh-lus)
What is ‘gout’?
a form of arthritis characterized by severe pain and swelling
(GOWT)
What is ‘hallux valgus’?
a bunion; a deformity of the big toe
(HAL-ucks VAL-guss)
What is ‘hemarthrosis’?
bleeding into a joint space
(hem-ar-THROH-sis)
What does ‘hematopoietic’ mean?
related to the formation of blood cells
(hee-MAH-toh-poy-et-ick)
What is ‘internal fixation’?
a surgical method to stabilize broken bones
What is ‘juvenile idiopathic arthritis’?
a type of arthritis that occurs in children
(id-ee-oh-PATH-ick ar-THRIGH-tis)
What is ‘kyphosis’?
excessive outward curvature of the spine
(kye-FOH-sis)
What is ‘laminectomy’?
surgical removal of the lamina of a vertebra
(lam-ih-NECK-toh-mee)
What is ‘lordosis’?
excessive inward curvature of the spine
(lor-DOH-sis)
What is ‘lumbago’?
lower back pain
(lum-BAY-goh)
What is a ‘malleolus’?
the bony prominence on each side of the ankle
(mah-LEE-oh-lus)
What is a ‘manubrium’?
the upper part of the sternum
(mah-NEW-bree-um)
What are ‘metacarpals’?
the five bones of the hand between the wrist and fingers
(met-ah-KAR-palz)
What are ‘metatarsals’?
the five bones of the foot between the ankle and toes
(met-ah-TAHR-salz)
What is ‘multiple myeloma’?
a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow
(my-eh-LOH-mah)
What is an ‘open fracture’?
a fracture where the bone breaks through the skin
What is an ‘orthopedic surgeon’?
a doctor specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders
(or-thoh-PEE-dick)
What is an ‘orthotic’?
a device used to support, align, or improve the function of movable parts of the body
(or-THOT-ick)
What is ‘osteitis’?
inflammation of the bone
(oss-tee-EYE-tis)
What is ‘osteoarthritis’?
degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of cartilage
(oss-tee-oh-ar-THRIGH-tis)
What is ‘osteochondroma’?
a benign tumor made up of cartilage and bone
(oss-tee-oh-kon-DROH-mah)
What is ‘osteomalacia’?
softening of the bones due to vitamin D deficiency
(oss-tee-oh-mah-LAY-shee-ah)
What is ‘osteomyelitis’?
infection of the bone or bone marrow
(oss-tee-oh-my-eh-LYE-tis)
What is ‘osteopenia’?
lower than normal bone density
(oss-tee-oh-PEE-nee-ah)
What is ‘osteoporosis’?
a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones
(oss-tee-oh-poh-ROH-sis)
What is an ‘osteoporotic hip fracture’?
a fracture of the hip in a person with osteoporosis
(oss-tee-oh-pah-ROT-ick)
What is ‘Paget’s disease’?
a chronic disorder that can result in enlarged and misshapen bones
(PAJ-its)
What is a ‘pathologic fracture’?
a fracture that occurs in a bone weakened by disease
What is ‘percutaneous vertebroplasty’?
a minimally invasive procedure to stabilize vertebral fractures
(per-kyou-TAY-nee-us VER-tee-broh-plas-tee)
What is a ‘podiatrist’?
a medical professional specializing in foot and ankle care
(poh-DYE-ah-trist)
What is ‘polymyalgia rheumatica’?
an inflammatory disorder causing muscle pain and stiffness
(pol-ee-my-AL-jee-ah roo-MA-tih-kah)
What is a ‘prosthesis’?
an artificial device that replaces a missing body part
(pros-THEE-sis)
What is ‘radiculopathy’?
a condition caused by compression of the spinal nerves
(rah-dick-you-LOH-path-ee)
What is ‘rheumatoid arthritis’?
an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects joints
(ROO-mah-toyd ar-THRIGH-tis)
What is ‘rickets’?
a disease caused by vitamin D deficiency in children, leading to soft bones
(RICK-ets)
What is ‘scoliosis’?
abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
(skoh-lee-OH-sis)
What is ‘spina bifida’?
a birth defect in which the spine does not close properly
(SPY-nah BIF-ih-dah)
What is ‘spinal stenosis’?
narrowing of the spinal canal that can cause pressure on the spinal cord
(steh-NOH-sis)
What is a ‘spiral fracture’?
a fracture that occurs when a rotating force is applied to the bone
What is ‘spondylolisthesis’?
a condition in which one vertebra slips forward over another
(spon-dih-loh-liss-THEE-sis)
What is ‘spondylosis’?
degenerative changes in the spine due to aging
(spon-dih-LOH-sis)
What is ‘subluxation’?
a partial dislocation of a joint
(sub-luck-SAY-shun)
What is ‘synovectomy’?
surgical removal of the synovial membrane
(sin-oh-VECK-toh-mee)
What are ‘vertebrae’?
the individual bones that make up the spinal column
(VER-teh-bray)
What are the major structures of the skeletal system?
Bones, Bone Marrow, Cartilage, Joints, Ligaments, Synovial Membrane, Synovial Fluid, Bursa
What are the related combining forms for bones?
oss/e, oss/i, oste/o, ost/o
What is the combining form for bone marrow?
myel/o (also means spinal cord)
What is the combining form for cartilage?
chondr/o
What is the combining form for joints?
arthr/o
What is the combining form for ligaments?
ligament/o
What are the combining forms for synovial membrane and fluid?
synovi/o, synov/o
What is the combining form for bursa?
burs/o
What are the primary functions of the skeletal system?
Act as the framework for the body, protect internal organs, and store calcium.
What role does red bone marrow play?
Helps form red blood cells.
What does yellow bone marrow do?
Stores fat.
What is the function of cartilage in the skeletal system?
Creates a smooth surface for motion within the joints and protects the ends of the bones.
How do joints and muscles work together?
They work together to make a variety of motions possible.
What is the function of ligaments?
Connect one bone to another.
What does the synovial membrane do?
Forms the lining of synovial joints and secretes synovial fluid.
What is the role of synovial fluid?
Lubricant that makes smooth joint movements possible.
What is an intensivist?
An intensivist is a physician specializing in the care of critically ill patients hospitalized in the ICU.
What is a hospitalist?
A hospitalist is a physician focusing on the general medical care of hospitalized patients.
What is a telemetry unit?
A telemetry unit provides continuous cardiac monitoring for patients with heart problems not requiring intensive care.
The term telemetry refers to the electronic transmission of data about the patient’s heart rhythm.
What is a medical/surgical unit?
A medical/surgical unit provides nursing care for lower-acuity patients who are recovering from surgery or require continued drug therapy or monitoring.
What does A & P stand for?
A & P stands for anatomy and physiology.
What does DNA stand for?
DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid.
What does GP stand for?
GP stands for general practitioner.
What does HD stand for?
HD stands for Huntington’s disease.
What does LLQ stand for?
LLQ stands for left lower quadrant.
What does LUQ stand for?
LUQ stands for left upper quadrant.
What does PA stand for?
PA stands for physician assistant.
What does RLQ stand for?
RLQ stands for right lower quadrant.
What does RUQ stand for?
RUQ stands for right upper quadrant.
What does a geriatrician specialize in?
A geriatrician specializes in problems related to aging and in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease in older people.
What is a certified medical assistant (CMA)?
A certified medical assistant (CMA) is a medical assistant certified through the American Association of Medical Assistants.
What is the role of a medical coder?
A medical coder reviews patients’ medical records for insurance purposes, assigning codes for treatment and services based on universal alphanumeric codes for medical diagnoses, equipment, and procedures.
What does ‘alphanumeric’ mean?
Alphanumeric means consisting of both letters and numbers.
What is the focus of the emergency room (ER)?
The emergency room (ER) focuses on diagnosing and treating life-threatening emergency medical conditions.
What is triage in the context of an emergency room?
Patients are triaged by nursing staff before receiving additional care, with critically ill patients treated first.
What is an emergency physician?
An emergency physician is a doctor who specializes in high-acuity medicine in the ER.
What does ‘acuity’ refer to?
Acuity refers to the level of severity of an illness.
What is the role of an emergency medical technician (EMT)?
An emergency medical technician (EMT) is a licensed health care professional who works in a pre-hospital setting on an ambulance or in an emergency room.
What is a registered nurse (RN)?
A registered nurse (RN) is a licensed health care professional who works in a variety of health care settings, assessing patients and providing care following a doctor’s orders.
What is the role of a licensed vocational nurse (LVN)?
A licensed vocational nurse (LVN), also known as a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in certain states, works under the supervision of a doctor or RN to provide basic patient care.
What does a certified nursing assistant (CNA) do?
A certified nursing assistant (CNA) works under the supervision of an RN to provide basic patient care.
What is the role of a pharmacist?
A pharmacist is a licensed medical professional who dispenses prescribed medication to patients.
What does the intensive care unit (ICU) provide?
The intensive care unit (ICU) provides continuously monitored care for critically ill patients.
What types of specialized ICUs might hospitals have?
Some hospitals have specialized ICUs for burn and trauma patients, cardiac patients, or neurological patients.
What does a geriatrician specialize in?
A geriatrician specializes in problems related to aging and in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease in older people.
What is a certified medical assistant (CMA)?
A certified medical assistant (CMA) is a medical assistant certified through the American Association of Medical Assistants.
What is the role of a medical coder?
A medical coder reviews patients’ medical records for insurance purposes, assigning codes for treatment and services based on universal alphanumeric codes for medical diagnoses, equipment, and procedures.
What does ‘alphanumeric’ mean?
Alphanumeric means consisting of both letters and numbers.
What is the focus of the emergency room (ER)?
The emergency room (ER) focuses on diagnosing and treating life-threatening emergency medical conditions.
What is triage in the context of an emergency room?
Patients are triaged by nursing staff before receiving additional care, with critically ill patients treated first.
What is an emergency physician?
An emergency physician is a doctor who specializes in high-acuity medicine in the ER.
What does ‘acuity’ refer to?
Acuity refers to the level of severity of an illness.
What is the role of an emergency medical technician (EMT)?
An emergency medical technician (EMT) is a licensed health care professional who works in a pre-hospital setting on an ambulance or in an emergency room.
What is a registered nurse (RN)?
A registered nurse (RN) is a licensed health care professional who works in a variety of health care settings, assessing patients and providing care following a doctor’s orders.
What is the role of a licensed vocational nurse (LVN)?
A licensed vocational nurse (LVN), also known as a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in certain states, works under the supervision of a doctor or RN to provide basic patient care.
What does a certified nursing assistant (CNA) do?
A certified nursing assistant (CNA) works under the supervision of an RN to provide basic patient care.
What is the role of a pharmacist?
A pharmacist is a licensed medical professional who dispenses prescribed medication to patients.
What does the intensive care unit (ICU) provide?
The intensive care unit (ICU) provides continuously monitored care for critically ill patients.
What types of specialized ICUs might hospitals have?
Some hospitals have specialized ICUs for burn and trauma patients, cardiac patients, or neurological patients.
What are common health problems in premature babies?
Breathing difficulties and heart problems are common in premature babies.
What are birth injuries?
Birth injuries are disorders that occur as a result of trauma during labor or delivery.
How do most birth injuries heal?
Most birth injuries, including fractures of the clavicle, heal quickly.
What is geriatrics?
The study of the medical problems and care of older people.
What does postmortem mean?
Postmortem means after death.
What is an autopsy?
An autopsy is a postmortem examination usually conducted to determine the cause of death.
What are advance directives?
Advance directives are documents used to provide guidance about treatment a person may want in case of a medical emergency.
What is a health care proxy?
A health care proxy allows a person to appoint someone to make treatment decisions if they cannot do so themselves.
What is a living will?
A living will allows a person to state their wishes for end-of-life medical care.
What is a Do Not Resuscitate order (DNR)?
A DNR is a legal document stating that a person does not wish to receive CPR if their heart or breathing stop.
Who are health care professionals?
Health care professionals include doctors, nurses, administrative staff, and allied health professionals.
What are allied health professions?
Allied health professions include roles outside of medicine, nursing, and pharmacy, such as dental hygienists and physical therapists.
What is a general practitioner (GP)?
A GP provides ongoing care for patients of all ages.
What does an internist specialize in?
An internist specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases of the internal organs.
What is a pediatrician?
A pediatrician specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of infants and children.
What is a geriatrician?
A geriatrician specializes in the care of older people.
What is a nurse practitioner (NP)?
An NP is a nurse with graduate training who often works as a primary care provider.
What is a physician assistant (PA)?
A PA is a licensed professional who works under the supervision of a physician.
What does a medical receptionist do?
A medical receptionist schedules and registers patients for appointments.
What is the role of a medical assistant?
A medical assistant performs administrative and clinical tasks in a doctor’s office.
What does the term ‘pandemic’ refer to?
Pandemic refers to an outbreak of a disease occurring over a large geographic area, possibly worldwide.
For example, the worldwide spread of HIV and COVID-19 are pandemics.
What is an organic disorder?
An organic disorder produces symptoms that are detectable physical changes in the body.
For example, varicella (chickenpox) is an organic disorder caused by a virus.
What is a functional disorder?
A functional disorder, or non-organic disorder, produces physical symptoms for which no disease or organic cause can be identified.
Chronic fatigue syndrome is an example of a functional disorder.
What is an iatrogenic illness?
An iatrogenic illness is an unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment.
For example, severe burns from radiation therapy are iatrogenic.
What is an idiopathic disease?
An idiopathic disease is any disease without a known cause.
What is an infectious disease?
An infectious disease is an illness caused by living pathogenic organisms such as bacteria and viruses.
What is a nosocomial infection?
A nosocomial infection, or hospital-acquired infection (HAI), is a disease acquired in a hospital or clinical setting.
For example, multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections are often spread in hospitals.
What is a syndrome?
A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.
What is metabolic syndrome?
Metabolic syndrome is a common medical condition characterized by risk factors for developing heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes.
What is a congenital disorder?
A congenital disorder is an abnormal condition that exists at the time of birth.
What is a developmental disorder?
A developmental disorder, or birth defect, can result in an anomaly or malformation such as the absence of a limb.
What does the term atresia describe?
Atresia describes the congenital absence or narrowing of a normal body opening or passage.
For example, anal atresia is the congenital absence of the opening at the bottom end of the anus.
What are prenatal risk factors?
Prenatal risk factors include the mother’s health, her behavior, and the prenatal medical care she receives before delivery.
What is an example of a problem with the mother’s health during pregnancy?
An example is a rubella infection, which can lead to birth defects if contracted early in pregnancy.
What is fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
Fetal alcohol syndrome is the result of the mother’s consumption of alcohol during pregnancy, characterized by growth abnormalities and mental retardation.
What can lack of adequate prenatal medical care lead to?
Lack of adequate prenatal medical care can lead to premature delivery or a low birth-weight baby.
What is premature birth?
Premature birth is a birth that occurs earlier than the 37th week of development and can cause serious complications.
What does the term ‘pandemic’ refer to?
Pandemic refers to an outbreak of a disease occurring over a large geographic area, possibly worldwide.
For example, the worldwide spread of HIV and COVID-19 are pandemics.
What is an organic disorder?
An organic disorder produces symptoms that are detectable physical changes in the body.
For example, varicella (chickenpox) is an organic disorder caused by a virus.
What is a functional disorder?
A functional disorder, or non-organic disorder, produces physical symptoms for which no disease or organic cause can be identified.
Chronic fatigue syndrome is an example of a functional disorder.
What is an iatrogenic illness?
An iatrogenic illness is an unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment.
For example, severe burns from radiation therapy are iatrogenic.
What is an idiopathic disease?
An idiopathic disease is any disease without a known cause.
What is an infectious disease?
An infectious disease is an illness caused by living pathogenic organisms such as bacteria and viruses.
What is a nosocomial infection?
A nosocomial infection, or hospital-acquired infection (HAI), is a disease acquired in a hospital or clinical setting.
For example, multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections are often spread in hospitals.
What is a syndrome?
A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.
What is metabolic syndrome?
Metabolic syndrome is a common medical condition characterized by risk factors for developing heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes.
What is a congenital disorder?
A congenital disorder is an abnormal condition that exists at the time of birth.
What is a developmental disorder?
A developmental disorder, or birth defect, can result in an anomaly or malformation such as the absence of a limb.
What does the term atresia describe?
Atresia describes the congenital absence or narrowing of a normal body opening or passage.
For example, anal atresia is the congenital absence of the opening at the bottom end of the anus.
What are prenatal risk factors?
Prenatal risk factors include the mother’s health, her behavior, and the prenatal medical care she receives before delivery.
What is an example of a problem with the mother’s health during pregnancy?
An example is a rubella infection, which can lead to birth defects if contracted early in pregnancy.
What is fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
Fetal alcohol syndrome is the result of the mother’s consumption of alcohol during pregnancy, characterized by growth abnormalities and mental retardation.
What can lack of adequate prenatal medical care lead to?
Lack of adequate prenatal medical care can lead to premature delivery or a low birth-weight baby.
What is premature birth?
Premature birth is a birth that occurs earlier than the 37th week of development and can cause serious complications.
What is pathology?
Pathology is the study of disease: its nature and cause as well as the produced changes in structure and function.
What does the term pathologist refer to?
A pathologist is a physician who specializes in the laboratory analysis of diseased tissue samples to confirm or establish a diagnosis.
What is etiology?
Etiology is the study of the causes of diseases or abnormal conditions.
What is a pathogen?
A pathogen is a disease-producing microorganism such as a virus.
What does transmission mean in the context of disease?
Transmission is the spread of a disease.
What is contamination?
Contamination means that a pathogen is possibly present.
What is a communicable disease?
A communicable disease is any condition that is transmitted from one person to another either directly or by indirect contact with contaminated objects.
What is direct transmission?
Direct transmission occurs when there is human-to-human contact in the form of touch or the exchange of bodily fluids.
What is bloodborne transmission?
Bloodborne transmission is the spread of pathogens through infected blood or other body fluids.
What is droplet transmission?
Droplet transmission is the spread of infected respiratory droplets sprayed by coughing or sneezing onto a nearby person.
What is indirect contact transmission?
Indirect contact transmission occurs when a susceptible person is infected by contact with a contaminated surface.
What is airborne transmission?
Airborne transmission occurs through contact with pathogens floating in the air.
What is food-borne and waterborne transmission?
Food-borne and waterborne transmission is caused by eating or drinking contaminated food or water.
What is vector-borne transmission?
Vector-borne transmission is the spread of certain diseases through blood-sucking vectors, such as mosquitoes.
What is an epidemiologist?
An epidemiologist is a specialist in the study of outbreaks of disease within a population group.
What does endemic mean?
Endemic refers to the ongoing presence of a disease within a population, group, or area.
What is an epidemic?
An epidemic is a sudden and widespread outbreak of a disease within a specific population group or area.
What is the major body system that includes bones, joints, and cartilage?
Skeletal System
Refer to Chapter 3 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Muscular System?
Muscles, fascia, and tendons
Refer to Chapter 4 for more details.
What is the primary function of the Cardiovascular System?
Blood circulates throughout the body to transport oxygen and nutrients to cells, and to carry waste products to the kidneys where waste is removed by filtration.
Refer to Chapter 5 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Lymphatic System?
Lymph, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes
Refer to Chapter 6 for more details.
What is the function of the Immune System?
Defends the body against invading pathogens and allergens.
Refer to Chapter 6 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Respiratory System?
Nose, pharynx, trachea, larynx, and lungs
Refer to Chapter 7 for more details.
What is the primary function of the Digestive System?
Digests ingested food so it can be absorbed into the bloodstream and eliminates solid waste.
Refer to Chapter 8 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Urinary System?
Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra
Refer to Chapter 9 for more details.
What is the function of the Nervous System?
Coordinates the reception of stimuli and transmits messages throughout the body.
Refer to Chapter 10 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Special Senses?
Eyes and ears
Refer to Chapter 11 for more details.
What is the primary function of the Integumentary System?
Aids in regulating the body temperature and water content.
Refer to Chapter 12 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Endocrine System?
Adrenal glands, gonads, pancreas, parathyroids, pineal, pituitary, thymus, and thyroid
Refer to Chapter 13 for more details.
What are the major structures of the Reproductive Systems?
Male: penis and testicles; Female: ovaries, uterus, and vagina
Refer to Chapter 14 for more details.
What is muscle hypertrophy?
Muscle hypertrophy is the enlargement of muscle fibers, which is a desired response to weight lifting.
What is a gland?
A gland is a group of specialized epithelial cells capable of producing secretions.
What are the two major types of glands?
The two major types of glands are exocrine glands and endocrine glands.
What do exocrine glands do?
Exocrine glands secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead to other organs or out of the body.
Examples include salivary, mammary, and sweat glands.
What do endocrine glands do?
Endocrine glands produce hormones that are secreted directly into the bloodstream.
These hormones are transported to organs and structures throughout the body.
What does the word root ‘aden’ mean?
The word root ‘aden’ means gland.
What is adenitis?
Adenitis is the inflammation of a gland.
What is mesenteric adenitis?
Mesenteric adenitis is inflammation of the lymph nodes in the abdomen with symptoms similar to appendicitis.
What is an adenocarcinoma?
An adenocarcinoma is a malignant tumor that originates in the glands and may spread to other parts of the body.
What is an adenoma?
An adenoma is a benign tumor that starts in the epithelial tissue of a gland or gland-like structure.
A polyp in the colon is a common type of adenoma.
What is adenosis?
Adenosis is any disease or condition of a gland.
What is an organ?
An organ is a somewhat independent part of the body that performs a specific function.
How are related tissues and organs organized?
Related tissues and organs are organized into body systems with specialized functions.
What is a tissue?
A tissue is a group or layer of similarly specialized cells that join together to perform certain specific functions.
What is histology?
Histology is the microscopic study of the structure, composition, and function of tissues.
What does the term histologist refer to?
A histologist is a non-physician specialist who studies the microscopic structure of tissues.
What are the four main types of tissue?
The four main types of tissue are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nerve tissue.
What is epithelial tissue?
Epithelial tissue forms a protective covering for all of the internal and external surfaces of the body and also forms glands.
What is epithelium?
Epithelium is the specialized epithelial tissue that forms the epidermis of the skin and the surface layer of mucous membranes.
What is endothelium?
Endothelium is the specialized epithelial tissue that lines the blood and lymph vessels, body cavities, glands, and organs.
What is the function of connective tissue?
Connective tissues support and connect organs and other body tissues.
What are the four kinds of connective tissue?
The four kinds of connective tissue are dense connective tissues, adipose tissue, loose connective tissue, and fluid connective tissues.
What is adipose tissue?
Adipose tissue, also known as fat, provides protective padding, insulation, and support.
What is muscle tissue?
Muscle tissue contains cells with the specialized ability to contract and relax.
What is nerve tissue?
Nerve tissue contains cells with the specialized ability to react to stimuli and to conduct electrical impulses.
What is aplasia?
Aplasia is the defective development, or the congenital absence, of an organ or tissue.
What is hypoplasia?
Hypoplasia is the under-development of an organ or tissue, usually due to a deficiency in the number of cells.
What is anaplasia?
Anaplasia is a change in the structure of cells and in their orientation to each other, characteristic of most cancerous tumor formation.
What is dysplasia?
Dysplasia is the abnormal development or growth of cells, or the presence of abnormal cells within a type of tissue.
What is hyperplasia?
Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.
What is hypertrophy?
Hypertrophy is a general increase in the bulk of a body part or organ that is due to an increase in the size, but not in the number, of cells in the tissues.
What is a fertilized egg that divides?
It is the beginning of identical twins, which have identical DNA but develop unique characteristics such as fingerprints.
What can a small sample of DNA be used for?
To identify individuals in criminal investigations, paternity suits, or genealogical research.
What is a genetic mutation?
A change in the sequence of a DNA molecule caused by factors like radiation or environmental pollution.
What is a somatic cell mutation?
A change within the cells of the body that affects the individual but cannot be transmitted to the next generation.
What is a gametic cell mutation?
A change within the genes in a gamete (sex cell) that can be transmitted to offspring.
What is genetic engineering?
The manipulating or splicing of genes for scientific or medical purposes, such as producing human insulin from modified bacteria.
What is a genetic disorder?
A pathological condition caused by an absent or defective gene, also known as a hereditary disease.
What is cystic fibrosis?
A genetic disorder present at birth that affects the respiratory and digestive systems.
What is Down syndrome?
A genetic variation associated with characteristic facial appearance, learning disabilities, and physical abnormalities, caused by a third copy of the 21st chromosome.
What is Fragile X syndrome?
A condition caused by changes in the MR1 gene, characterized by developmental delays and learning disabilities.
What is hemophilia?
A hereditary bleeding disorder in which a blood-clotting factor is missing, mostly affecting males.
What is Huntington’s disease?
A genetic disorder passed from parent to child, causing nerve degeneration with symptoms appearing in midlife.
What is Marfan syndrome?
A disorder affecting connective tissue, characterized by a tall, slender build and disproportionately long limbs.
What is muscular dystrophy?
A group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of skeletal muscles.
What is phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A rare genetic disorder where the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase is missing, detectable by a blood test at birth.
What is a gene?
A gene is a fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity that controls hereditary diseases and physical traits such as hair, skin, and eye color.
What is genetics?
Genetics is the study of how genes are transferred from parents to their children and the role of genes in health and disease.
What is a geneticist?
A specialist in the field of genetics.
What happens when a dominant gene is inherited?
The offspring will inherit that genetic condition or characteristic.
What is an example of a dominant gene trait?
Freckles are a physical trait transmitted by a dominant gene.
What occurs when a recessive gene is inherited from both parents?
The offspring will have the condition associated with that recessive gene.
What is an example of a recessive gene disorder?
Sickle cell anemia is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders transmitted by a recessive gene.
What is a genome?
A genome is the complete set of genetic information of an organism.
What was the Human Genome Project?
It studied the genetic code for individual people and found that it is more than 99 percent identical among humans.
What is a chromosome?
A chromosome is a genetic structure located within the nucleus of each cell, made up of DNA molecules containing the body’s genes.
How many chromosomes do somatic cells contain?
Somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes arranged into 23 pairs.
What determines the sex of an individual?
The remaining pair of chromosomes, XX for females and XY for males, determines the sex.
What is a gamete?
A gamete (sperm or egg) is the only type of cell that does not contain 46 chromosomes; it has 23 single chromosomes.
What is the role of the X or Y chromosome from the father?
It determines the sex of the child.
What can a defect in chromosomes lead to?
It can lead to birth defects, such as Down syndrome, which involves having 47 chromosomes instead of 46.
What is DNA?
DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the main component of chromosomes and carries the body’s genetic information.
What is the structure of DNA?
DNA is packaged in a chromosome as two spiraling strands that twist together to form a double helix.
Are DNA patterns the same for all individuals?
No, the DNA for each individual is different, except for identical twins.
What are adult stem cells?
Adult stem cells, also known as somatic stem cells, are undifferentiated cells found among differentiated cells in a tissue or organ. Their primary role is to maintain and repair the tissue in which they are found.
What does undifferentiated mean?
Undifferentiated means not having a specialized function or structure.
What does differentiated mean?
Differentiated means having a specialized function or structure.
What are embryonic stem cells?
Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated cells that can form any adult cell. They come from the cord blood found in the umbilical cord and placenta of a newborn infant.
What is the significance of embryonic stem cells?
Embryonic stem cells can proliferate indefinitely in a laboratory and may provide a source for adult muscle, liver, bone, or blood cells.
What is informed consent?
Informed consent means that those involved have been given information about what is involved before granting permission.
What is stem cell therapy?
Stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative medicine, has many potential uses to heal injuries and treat diseases.
Where are cells for stem cell therapy usually harvested from?
Cells for stem cell therapy are usually harvested from the hematopoietic (blood forming) tissue of the bone marrow.
What is graft versus host disease?
Graft versus host disease is the possibility of rejection that occurs unless there is an excellent match between the donor and recipient.
What does retroperitoneal mean?
Located behind the peritoneum.
Example: The location of the kidneys is retroperitoneal with one on each side of the spinal column.
What is peritonitis?
Inflammation of the peritoneum.
What are the structural units of the body from smallest to largest?
Cells, tissues, organs, and body systems.
What are cells?
The basic structural and functional units of the body.
What is cytology?
The study of the anatomy, physiology, pathology, and chemistry of the cell.
Who is a cytologist?
A specialist in the study and analysis of cells.
What is the cell membrane?
The tissue that surrounds and protects the contents of a cell from the external environment.
What is cytoplasm?
The material within the cell membrane that is not part of the nucleus.
What is the nucleus?
A structure within the cell that controls the activities of the cell and helps it divide.
What are stem cells?
Unspecialized cells that can renew themselves and can be transformed into specialized cells under certain conditions.
What is the significance of stem cells?
They can renew themselves for long periods and can transform into cells with special functions.
What does retroperitoneal mean?
Located behind the peritoneum.
Example: The location of the kidneys is retroperitoneal with one on each side of the spinal column.
What is peritonitis?
Inflammation of the peritoneum.
What are the structural units of the body from smallest to largest?
Cells, tissues, organs, and body systems.
What are cells?
The basic structural and functional units of the body.
What is cytology?
The study of the anatomy, physiology, pathology, and chemistry of the cell.
Who is a cytologist?
A specialist in the study and analysis of cells.
What is the cell membrane?
The tissue that surrounds and protects the contents of a cell from the external environment.
What is cytoplasm?
The material within the cell membrane that is not part of the nucleus.
What is the nucleus?
A structure within the cell that controls the activities of the cell and helps it divide.
What are stem cells?
Unspecialized cells that can renew themselves and can be transformed into specialized cells under certain conditions.
What is the significance of stem cells?
They can renew themselves for long periods and can transform into cells with special functions.
What is the umbilical region?
The umbilical region surrounds the umbilicus, commonly known as the belly button or navel. This marks the point where the umbilical cord was attached before birth.
Where are the right and left iliac regions located?
The right and left iliac regions are located near the hip bones.
What does the term ‘hypogastric region’ refer to?
The hypogastric region is located below the stomach.
What are the four quadrants of the abdomen?
The quadrants of the abdomen are: Right upper quadrant (RUQ), Left upper quadrant (LUQ), Right lower quadrant (RLQ), Left lower quadrant (LLQ).
What is the peritoneum?
The peritoneum is a multilayered membrane that protects and holds the organs in place within the abdominal cavity.
What is the parietal peritoneum?
The parietal peritoneum is the outer layer of the peritoneum that lines the interior of the abdominal wall.
What is the mesentery?
The mesentery is a fused double layer of the parietal peritoneum that attaches parts of the intestine to the interior abdominal wall.
What is the visceral peritoneum?
The visceral peritoneum is the inner layer of the peritoneum that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity.
What is the ventral cavity?
The ventral cavity is located along the front of the body and contains the organs that sustain homeostasis.
What is homeostasis?
Homeostasis is the process through which the body maintains a constant internal environment.
What are the portions of the ventral cavity?
The ventral cavity is divided into the thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity, and pelvic cavity.
What does the thoracic cavity protect?
The thoracic cavity surrounds and protects the heart and lungs.
What is the function of the diaphragm?
The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
What does the abdominal cavity contain?
The abdominal cavity contains the major organs of digestion.
What is the pelvic cavity?
The pelvic cavity is formed by the hip bones and contains the organs of the reproductive and excretory systems.
What is the abdominopelvic cavity?
The abdominopelvic cavity refers to the abdominal and pelvic cavities as a single unit.
What does the term inguinal refer to?
The term inguinal refers to the entire lower area of the abdomen, including the groin.
What are the regions of the thorax and abdomen?
The regions comprise a descriptive system that divides the abdomen and lower thorax into nine parts.
What are the hypochondriac regions?
The right and left hypochondriac regions are covered by the lower ribs.
Where is the epigastric region located?
The epigastric region is located above the stomach.
What are the lumbar regions?
The right and left lumbar regions are located near the inward curve of the spine.
What does ‘inferior’ mean?
Inferior means lowermost, below, or toward the feet.
For example, the stomach is located inferior to (below) the diaphragm.
What does ‘cephalic’ mean?
Cephalic means toward the head.
Cephalic is the opposite of caudal.
What does ‘caudal’ mean?
Caudal means toward the lower part of the body.
Caudal is the opposite of cephalic.
What does ‘proximal’ mean?
Proximal means situated nearest the midline or beginning of a body structure.
For example, the proximal end of the humerus forms part of the shoulder.
What does ‘distal’ mean?
Distal means situated farthest from the midline or beginning of a body structure.
For example, the distal end of the humerus forms part of the elbow.
What does ‘medial’ mean?
Medial means the direction toward, or nearer, the midline.
For example, the medial ligament of the knee is near the inner surface of the leg.
What does ‘lateral’ mean?
Lateral means the direction toward, or nearer, the side of the body, away from the midline.
For example, the lateral ligament of the knee is near the side of the leg.
What does ‘anterior’ mean?
Anterior means situated in the front.
For example, the stomach is located anterior to (in front of) the pancreas.
What does ‘posterior’ mean?
Posterior means situated in the back.
For example, the pancreas is located posterior to (behind) the stomach.
What does ‘superior’ mean?
Superior means uppermost, above, or toward the head.
For example, the lungs are located superior to (above) the diaphragm.
What are the two major body cavities?
The two major body cavities are the dorsal (back) and the ventral (front) cavities.
What does the dorsal cavity contain?
The dorsal cavity contains organs of the nervous system and is divided into the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity.
What is the cranial cavity?
The cranial cavity is located within the skull and surrounds and protects the brain.
What is the spinal cavity?
The spinal cavity is located within the spinal column and surrounds and protects the spinal cord.
What is a vertical plane?
A vertical plane is an up-and-down plane that is at a right angle to the horizon.
What is a sagittal plane?
A sagittal plane divides the body into unequal left and right portions.
What is the midsagittal plane?
The midsagittal plane, also known as the midline, divides the body into equal left and right halves.
What is a frontal plane?
A frontal plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions.
What is another name for the frontal plane?
The frontal plane is also known as the coronal plane.
What is a horizontal plane?
A horizontal plane is a flat, crosswise plane, such as the horizon.
What is a transverse plane?
A transverse plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions.
What does ventral mean?
Ventral refers to the front, or belly side, of the organ or body.
What does dorsal mean?
Dorsal refers to the back of the organ or body.
What does anterior mean?
Anterior means situated in the front or on the forward part of an organ.
What does posterior mean?
Posterior means toward the back of the body.
What does cephalic mean?
Cephalic means toward the head.
What does caudal mean?
Caudal means toward the feet.
What is anatomy?
Anatomy (ah-NAT-oh-mee) is the study of the structures of the body. The adjective anatomical (ah-nah-TOM-ih-kal) means referring to anatomy.
What is physiology?
Physiology (fiz-ee-OL-oh-jee) is the study of the functions of the structures of the body.
What are anatomical reference systems used for?
Anatomical reference systems are used to describe the locations of the structural units of the body.
What are the main components of anatomical reference systems?
The main components include body planes, body directions, body cavities, and structural units.
What is a body system?
When body parts work together to perform a related function, they are grouped together and are known as a body system.
What does the midsagittal plane do?
The midsagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right halves.
What does the transverse plane do?
The transverse plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions.
What does the frontal plane do?
The frontal plane divides the body into anterior or ventral (front) and posterior or dorsal (back) portions.
What is the anatomical position?
The anatomical position describes the body standing in the standard position, facing forward, with arms at the sides and palms facing front.
What should you be able to do after completing the chapter?
You should be able to define anatomy and physiology, recognize primary terms related to cells, tissues, organs, and diseases, and identify major organs and functions of body systems.
What does ‘aden/o’ refer to?
gland
What does ‘adip/o’ refer to?
fat
What does ‘anter/o’ mean?
before, front
What does ‘caud/o’ refer to?
lower part of body, tail
What does ‘cephal/o’ refer to?
head
What does ‘cyt/o, -cyte’ mean?
cell
What does ‘end-, endo-‘ mean?
in, within, inside
What does ‘exo-‘ mean?
out of, outside, away from
What does ‘hist/o’ refer to?
tissue
What does ‘-ologist’ mean?
specialist
What does ‘-ology’ refer to?
the science or study of
What does ‘path/o, -pathy’ mean?
disease, suffering, feeling, emotion
What does ‘plas/i, plas/o, -plasia’ refer to?
development, growth, formation
What does ‘poster/o’ mean?
behind, toward the back
What does ‘-stasis, -static’ refer to?
control, maintenance of a constant level
What is the abdominal cavity?
ab-DOM-ih-nal
What is adenocarcinoma?
ad-eh-noh-kar-sih-NOH-mah
What is adenoma?
ad-eh-NOH-mah
What is anaplasia?
an-ah-PLAY-zhee-ah
What is anatomy?
ah-NAT-oh-mee
What is an anomaly?
ah-NOM-ah-lee
What does anterior mean?
an-TEER-ee-or
What is aplasia?
ah-PLAY-zhee-ah
What is atresia?
ah-TREE-zee-ah
What is an autopsy?
AW-top-see
What does bloodborne transmission refer to?
What does caudal mean?
KAW-dal
What does cephalic refer to?
seh-FAL-ick
What is a chromosome?
KROH-moh-sohme
What is a communicable disease?
kuh-MEW-nih-kuh-bul
What is a congenital disorder?
kon-JEN-ih-tahl
What is cytoplasm?
SIGH-toh-plazm
What does distal mean?
DIS-tal
What does dorsal refer to?
DOR-sal
What is dysplasia?
dis-PLAY-zhee-ah
What does endemic mean?
en-DEM-ick
What are endocrine glands?
EN-doh-krin
What does epidemic mean?
ep-ih-DEM-ick
What is the epigastric region?
ep-ih-GAS-trick
What is etiology?
ee-tee-OL-oh-jee
What are exocrine glands?
ECK-soh-krin
What is a functional disorder?
What is a genetic disorder?
What is a geriatrician?
jer-ee-ah-TRISH-un
What is hemophilia?
hee-moh-FILL-ee-ah
What is histology?
hiss-TOL-oh-jee
What is homeostasis?
hoh-mee-oh-STAY-sis
What is hyperplasia?
high-per-PLAY-zhee-ah
What is hypertrophy?
high-PER-troh-fee
What is the hypogastric region?
high-poh-GAS-trick
What is hypoplasia?
high-poh-PLAY-zhee-ah
What is iatrogenic illness?
eye-at-roh-JEN-ick
What is idiopathic disease?
id-ee-oh-PATH-ick
What is infectious disease?
in-FECK-shus
What does inguinal mean?
ING-gwih-nal
What does medial refer to?
MEE-dee-al
What is mesentery?
MESS-en-terr-ee
What is the midsagittal plane?
mid-SADJ-ih-tal
What is a nosocomial infection?
nahs-oh-KOH-mee-al
What does pandemic mean?
pan-DEM-ick
What is pathology?
pah-THOL-oh-jee
What is the pelvic cavity?
PEL-vick
What is the peritoneum?
pehr-ih-toh-NEE-um
What is peritonitis?
pehr-ih-toh-NIGH-tis
What is physiology?
fiz-ee-OL-oh-jee
What does posterior mean?
pos-TEER-ee-or
What does proximal mean?
PROCK-sih-mal
What does retroperitoneal refer to?
ret-roh-pehr-ih-toh-NEE-al
What are stem cells?
What is a syndrome?
SIN-drohm
What is the thoracic cavity?
thoh-RAS-ick
What is the transverse plane?
trans-VERSE
What is an umbilicus?
um-BILL-ih-kus
What does vector-borne transmission refer to?
What does ventral mean?
VEN-tral
What is the overview of the human body in health and disease?
The human body consists of anatomical reference systems, structures, genetics, tissues, glands, body systems, and pathology.
What are anatomical reference systems?
Terms used to describe the location of body planes, directions, and cavities.
What are the components that enable the body to function properly?
Cells, tissues, and glands that form body systems.
What is genetics?
The genetic components that transfer characteristics from parents to their child.
What are tissues?
A group of similarly specialized cells that work together to perform specific functions.
What are glands?
A group of specialized cells that is capable of producing secretions.
What are organs?
Somewhat independent parts of the body that perform specific functions.
What are body systems?
Organs with related functions organized to work together.
What is pathology?
The study of the nature and cause of disease involving changes in structure and function.
What does ‘pyel’ mean?
Renal pelvis
‘Pyel’ refers to the renal pelvis, and ‘-itis’ means inflammation.
What does ‘py/o’ signify?
Pus
Pyoderma is an acute, inflammatory, pus-forming bacterial skin infection.
What does ‘pyr/o’ mean?
Fever or fire
Pyrosis, also known as heartburn, is discomfort due to stomach acid regurgitation.
What is supination?
The act of rotating the arm so that the palm is forward or upward.
What does suppuration refer to?
The formation of pus.
What is triage?
The medical screening of patients to determine their relative priority of need.
What does trauma mean?
Wound or injury.
What does ‘viral’ pertain to?
Pertaining to a virus.
What does ‘virile’ mean?
Having the nature, properties, or qualities of an adult male.
Why are abbreviations used in medicine?
As a shorthand way to record long and complex medical terms.
What is a potential issue with using abbreviations?
They can lead to confusion and errors.
What should you do when in doubt about an abbreviation?
Always spell it out.
What organization publishes a list of ‘Do Not Use’ abbreviations?
The Joint Commission.
What does ‘MS’ potentially mean?
Can mean either morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
What do ‘QD’ and ‘QOD’ mean?
Mean daily and every other day, respectively; sometimes mistaken for each other.
What does ‘U’ mean in medical terms?
Means unit, sometimes mistaken for 0 or 4.
What is the ilium?
A part of the hip bone.
What is the ileum?
A portion of the small intestine.
What is inflammation?
A localized response to an injury or destruction of tissues, indicated by erythema, hyperthermia, edema, and pain.
What is a laceration?
A torn or jagged wound or an accidental cut.
What is a lesion?
A pathologic change of the tissues due to disease or injury.
What does the term mucous describe?
The specialized membranes that line the body cavities.
What is mucus?
The fluid secreted by mucous membranes.
What does myc/o mean?
Fungus. Mycosis describes any abnormal condition or disease caused by a fungus.
What does myel/o mean?
Bone marrow or spinal cord. Myelopathy describes any injury, degeneration, or disease in the spinal cord.
What does my/o mean?
Muscle. Myopathy describes any pathologic change or disease of muscle tissue.
What does -ologist mean?
Specialist. A dermatologist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin.
What does -ology mean?
The study of. Neonatology is the study of disorders of the newborn.
What is palpation?
An examination technique in which the examiner’s hands are used to feel the texture, size, consistency, and location of certain body parts.
What is palpitation?
A pounding or racing heart.
What does pyel/o mean?
Renal pelvis, which is part of the kidney. Pyelitis is an inflammation of the renal pelvis.
What does ‘pyel’ mean?
Renal pelvis
‘pyel’ means renal pelvis, and ‘-itis’ means inflammation.
What does ‘py/o’ signify?
Pus
Pyoderma (pye-oh-DER-ma) is an acute, inflammatory, pus-forming bacterial skin infection.
What does ‘pyr/o’ indicate?
Fever or fire
Pyrosis (pye-ROH-sis), also known as heartburn, is discomfort due to stomach acid regurgitation.
What is supination?
The act of rotating the arm so that the palm is forward or upward.
What does suppuration mean?
The formation of pus.
What is triage?
The medical screening of patients to determine their relative priority of need and the proper place of treatment.
What does trauma refer to?
Wound or injury.
What does ‘viral’ mean?
Pertaining to a virus.
What does ‘virile’ mean?
Having the nature, properties, or qualities of an adult male.
Why are abbreviations used in medicine?
As a shorthand way to record long and complex medical terms.
What is a potential problem with using abbreviations?
They can lead to confusion and errors.
What should you do when in doubt about an abbreviation?
Spell it out.
What organization publishes a list of ‘Do Not Use’ abbreviations?
The Joint Commission.
What does the abbreviation ‘MS’ potentially mean?
Can mean either morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
What do ‘QD’ and ‘QOD’ mean?
Mean daily and every other day, respectively; sometimes mistaken for each other.
What does the abbreviation ‘U’ mean?
Means unit, sometimes mistaken for 0 or 4.
What is a sign in medical terms?
A sign is objective evidence of disease, such as a fever. Objective means the sign can be evaluated or measured by the patient or others.
What is a diagnosis?
A diagnosis (DX) is the identification of a disease. To diagnose is the process of reaching a diagnosis.
What characterizes an acute condition?
An acute condition has a rapid onset, a severe course, and a relatively short duration.
What is a disease?
A disease is a condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally.
What is a symptom?
A symptom is subjective evidence of a disease, such as pain or a headache. Subjective means it can be evaluated or measured only by the patient.
What is a syndrome?
A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.
What is a differential diagnosis?
A differential diagnosis (D/DX), also known as a rule out (R/O), is an attempt to determine which one of several possible diseases is causing the signs and symptoms that are present.
What is a prognosis?
A prognosis is a prediction of the probable course and outcome of a disease.
What is a chronic condition?
A chronic condition is of long duration. Although such diseases can be controlled, they are rarely cured.
What is an eponym?
An eponym is a disease, structure, operation, or procedure named for the person who discovered or described it first.
What is a remission?
A remission is the temporary, partial, or complete disappearance of the symptoms of a disease without having achieved a cure.
What is an acronym?
An acronym is a word formed from the initial letter of the major parts of a compound term.
What is a fissure?
A fissure is a groove or crack-like sore of the skin. This term also describes normal folds in the contours of the brain.
What is a fistula?
A fistula is an abnormal passage, usually between two internal organs or leading from an organ to the surface of the body.
What is the ileum?
The ileum is the last and longest portion of the small intestine.
What is the ilium?
The ilium is part of the hip bone.
What does the suffix -itis indicate?
The suffix -itis means inflammation and is commonly used to indicate infection.
What is an infection?
An infection is the invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism. It can remain localized or can be systemic.
What is malaise?
Malaise is a feeling of general discomfort or uneasiness that is often the first indication of an infection or other disease.
What is exudate?
Exudate is any fluid, such as pus, that leaks out of an infected wound.
What is a sign in medical terms?
A sign is objective evidence of disease, such as a fever. Objective means the sign can be evaluated or measured by the patient or others.
What is a diagnosis?
A diagnosis (DX) is the identification of a disease. To diagnose is the process of reaching a diagnosis.
What characterizes an acute condition?
An acute condition has a rapid onset, a severe course, and a relatively short duration.
What is a disease?
A disease is a condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally.
What is a symptom?
A symptom is subjective evidence of a disease, such as pain or a headache. Subjective means it can be evaluated or measured only by the patient.
What is a syndrome?
A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.
What is a differential diagnosis?
A differential diagnosis (D/DX), also known as a rule out (R/O), is an attempt to determine which one of several possible diseases is causing the signs and symptoms that are present.
What is a prognosis?
A prognosis is a prediction of the probable course and outcome of a disease.
What is a chronic condition?
A chronic condition is of long duration. Although such diseases can be controlled, they are rarely cured.
What is an eponym?
An eponym is a disease, structure, operation, or procedure named for the person who discovered or described it first.
What is a remission?
A remission is the temporary, partial, or complete disappearance of the symptoms of a disease without having achieved a cure.
What is an acronym?
An acronym is a word formed from the initial letter of the major parts of a compound term.
What is a fissure?
A fissure is a groove or crack-like sore of the skin. This term also describes normal folds in the contours of the brain.
What is a fistula?
A fistula is an abnormal passage, usually between two internal organs or leading from an organ to the surface of the body.
What is the ileum?
The ileum is the last and longest portion of the small intestine.
What is the ilium?
The ilium is part of the hip bone.
What does the suffix -itis indicate?
The suffix -itis means inflammation and is commonly used to indicate infection.
What is an infection?
An infection is the invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism. It can remain localized or can be systemic.
What is malaise?
Malaise is a feeling of general discomfort or uneasiness that is often the first indication of an infection or other disease.
What is exudate?
Exudate is any fluid, such as pus, that leaks out of an infected wound.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -a?
The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -ae.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -ex or -ix?
The plural is usually formed by changing these endings to -ices.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -is?
The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -es.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -itis?
The plural is usually formed by changing the -is ending to -ides.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -nx?
The plural is usually formed by changing the -x ending to -ges.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -on?
The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -a.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -um?
The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -a.
How is the plural formed if the singular term ends in -us?
The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -i.
What is the plural of ‘bursa’?
bursae
What is the plural of ‘vertebra’?
vertebrae
What is the plural of ‘appendix’?
appendices
What is the plural of ‘index’?
indices
What is the plural of ‘diagnosis’?
diagnoses
What is the plural of ‘metastasis’?
metastases
What is the plural of ‘arthritis’?
arthritides
What is the plural of ‘meningitis’?
meningitides
What is the plural of ‘phalanx’?
phalanges
What is the plural of ‘meninx’?
meninges
What is the plural of ‘criterion’?
criteria
What is the plural of ‘ganglion’?
ganglia
What is the plural of ‘diverticulum’?
diverticula
What is the plural of ‘ovum’?
ova
What is the plural of ‘alveolus’?
alveoli
What is the plural of ‘malleolus’?
malleoli
What does -ectomy mean?
-ectomy means surgical removal.
What is an example of -ectomy?
An appendectomy is the surgical removal of the appendix.
(append means appendix, and -ectomy means surgical removal).
What does -ostomy mean?
-ostomy means the surgical creation of an artificial opening to the body surface.
What is an example of -ostomy?
A colostomy is the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the colon and the body surface.
(col means colon, and -ostomy means the surgical creation of an artificial opening).
What does -otomy mean?
-otomy means cutting or a surgical incision.
What is an example of -otomy?
Pyelotomy is a surgical incision into the renal pelvis to remove obstructions such as a kidney stone.
(pyel means the renal pelvis, and -otomy means surgical incision).
What is the sounds-like pronunciation system used in this textbook?
The word is respelled using normal English letters to create sounds that are familiar.
How is the primary emphasis indicated in a word’s pronunciation?
The part of the word that receives the primary emphasis is shown in uppercase boldface letters.
Example: edema (eh-DEE-mah) is swelling caused by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues, or cavities of the body.
How is secondary emphasis indicated in a word’s pronunciation?
The part of the word that receives secondary emphasis is shown in boldface lowercase letters.
Example: appendicitis (ah-pen-dih-SIGH-tis) means an inflammation of the appendix.
What is the significance of singular and plural endings in medical terms?
Many medical terms have Greek or Latin origins, leading to unusual rules for changing singular words into plural forms.
What should you do when a term with an unusual singular or plural form is introduced?
Both forms are included in the text.
Example: the phalanges (fah-LAN-jeez) are the bones of the fingers and toes (singular, phalanx).
What is a word of caution regarding the pronunciation of medical terms?
There is often more than one correct way to pronounce a medical term.
What is the trend in the pronunciation of medical terms?
There is a trend toward pronouncing terms as they would sound in English.
What should you do if your instructor prefers an alternative pronunciation?
Follow the instructions you are given.
Why is spelling important in medical terms?
Accuracy in spelling is extremely important, as changing just one or two letters can completely change the meaning of a word.
What section will help you become aware of confusing terms and word parts?
The section ‘Look-Alike, Sound-Alike Terms and Word Parts’ will help you.
What does arteri/o mean?
Arteri/o means artery.
Example: Endarterial (end-ar-TEE-ree-al) means pertaining to the interior or lining of an artery.
What does ather/o mean?
Ather/o means plaque or fatty substance.
Example: An atheroma (ath-er-OH-mah) is a fatty deposit within the wall of an artery.
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘flatus’?
It may begin with ‘F’ or ‘PH’.
Example: flatus (FLAY-tus), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘phlegm’?
It may begin with ‘F’ or ‘PH’.
Example: phlegm (FLEM), see Chapter 7
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘gingivitis’?
It may begin with ‘G’.
Example: gingivitis (jin-jih-VYE-tis), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘jaundice’?
It may begin with ‘J’.
Example: jaundice (JAWN-dis), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘crepitus’?
It may begin with ‘C’.
Example: crepitus (KREP-ih-tus), see Chapter 3
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘cheilitis’?
It may begin with ‘C’ or ‘CH’.
Example: cheilitis (kye-LITE-is), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘kyphosis’?
It may begin with ‘K’.
Example: kyphosis (kye-FOH-sis), see Chapter 3
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘quadriplegia’?
It may begin with ‘Q’.
Example: quadriplegia (kwad-rih-PLEE-jee-ah), see Chapter 4
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘cytology’?
It may begin with ‘C’.
Example: cytology (sigh-TOL-oh-jee), see Chapter 2
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘psychologist’?
It may begin with ‘P’.
Example: psychologist (sigh-KOL-oh-jist), see Chapter 10
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘serum’?
It may begin with ‘S’.
Example: serum (SEER-um), see Chapter 5
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘xeroderma’?
It may begin with ‘Z’.
Example: xeroderma (zee-roh-DER-mah), see Chapter 12
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘zygote’?
It may begin with ‘Z’.
Example: zygote (ZYE-goht), see Chapter 14
How should you look up multi-word medical terms?
Begin your search with the last term.
What is a recommended practice when searching for definitions online?
Visit at least two reputable sites.
What should you be cautious about when using search engines?
Beware of suggested search terms and double-check spelling.
What is important when using medical dictionary applications?
Ensure the application comes from a reputable source.
Why is pronunciation important in medical terminology?
A medical term is easier to understand and remember when pronounced properly.
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘flatus’?
It may begin with ‘F’ or ‘PH’.
Example: flatus (FLAY-tus), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘phlegm’?
It may begin with ‘F’ or ‘PH’.
Example: phlegm (FLEM), see Chapter 7
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘gingivitis’?
It may begin with ‘G’.
Example: gingivitis (jin-jih-VYE-tis), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘jaundice’?
It may begin with ‘J’.
Example: jaundice (JAWN-dis), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘crepitus’?
It may begin with ‘C’.
Example: crepitus (KREP-ih-tus), see Chapter 3
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘cheilitis’?
It may begin with ‘C’ or ‘CH’.
Example: cheilitis (kye-LITE-is), see Chapter 8
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘kyphosis’?
It may begin with ‘K’.
Example: kyphosis (kye-FOH-sis), see Chapter 3
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘quadriplegia’?
It may begin with ‘Q’.
Example: quadriplegia (kwad-rih-PLEE-jee-ah), see Chapter 4
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘cytology’?
It may begin with ‘C’.
Example: cytology (sigh-TOL-oh-jee), see Chapter 2
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘psychologist’?
It may begin with ‘P’.
Example: psychologist (sigh-KOL-oh-jist), see Chapter 10
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘serum’?
It may begin with ‘S’.
Example: serum (SEER-um), see Chapter 5
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘xeroderma’?
It may begin with ‘Z’.
Example: xeroderma (zee-roh-DER-mah), see Chapter 12
What should you look for if a term sounds like ‘zygote’?
It may begin with ‘Z’.
Example: zygote (ZYE-goht), see Chapter 14
How should you look up multi-word medical terms?
Begin your search with the last term.
What is a recommended practice when searching for definitions online?
Visit at least two reputable sites.
What should you be cautious about when using search engines?
Beware of suggested search terms and double-check spelling.
What is important when using medical dictionary applications?
Ensure the application comes from a reputable source.
Why is pronunciation important in medical terminology?
A medical term is easier to understand and remember when pronounced properly.
What is otorhinolaryngology?
Otorhinolaryngology is the study of the ears, nose, and throat.
ot/o means ear, rhin/o means nose, laryng means throat, and -ology means study of.
What is the shortened term for otorhinolaryngology?
The shortened term for otorhinolaryngology is ENT (ears, nose, and throat).
Another shortened version is otolaryngology.
What does lithotomy mean based on its word parts?
Based on its word parts, lithotomy means a surgical incision for the removal of a stone.
lith means stone, and -otomy means a surgical incision.
What is another meaning of lithotomy?
Lithotomy is also the name of an examination position for a female patient lying on her back with her feet and legs raised in stirrups.
Why is a medical dictionary important?
A medical dictionary is important because some medical terms have more than one meaning, and it helps ensure accuracy.
What should you do if you know how to spell a medical term?
If you know how to spell the word, start in the appropriate section of the dictionary based on the first letter of the word.
What should you do if you do not know how to spell a medical term?
If you do not know how to spell the word, listen carefully to the term, write it down, and look for alternative spellings based on the beginning sound.
What is otorhinolaryngology?
Otorhinolaryngology is the study of the ears, nose, and throat.
ot/o means ear, rhin/o means nose, laryng means throat, and -ology means study of.
What is the shortened term for otorhinolaryngology?
The shortened term for otorhinolaryngology is ENT (ears, nose, and throat).
Another shortened version is otolaryngology.
What does lithotomy mean based on its word parts?
Based on its word parts, lithotomy means a surgical incision for the removal of a stone.
lith means stone, and -otomy means a surgical incision.
What is another meaning of lithotomy?
Lithotomy is also the name of an examination position for a female patient lying on her back with her feet and legs raised in stirrups.
Why is a medical dictionary important?
A medical dictionary is important because some medical terms have more than one meaning, and it helps ensure accuracy.
What should you do if you know how to spell a medical term?
If you know how to spell the word, start in the appropriate section of the dictionary based on the first letter of the word.
What should you do if you do not know how to spell a medical term?
If you do not know how to spell the word, listen carefully to the term, write it down, and look for alternative spellings based on the beginning sound.
What does postnatal mean?
Postnatal refers to the time and events after birth.
Post- means after, nat means birth, and -al means pertaining to.
What is a memory aid for understanding prefixes?
You may know some prefixes already by using your prior knowledge and experiences.
For example, a postgame press conference happens after a game.
How can you determine the meaning of a medical term?
Knowing the meaning of the word parts often makes it possible to figure out the definition of an unfamiliar medical term.
What is the first step in taking a medical term apart?
Always start at the end of the word, with the suffix, and work toward the beginning.
What does the suffix -ology mean?
The suffix -ology means the study of.
What does the word root laryng mean?
The word root laryng means larynx or throat.
What does the combining form rhin/o mean?
The combining form rhin/o means nose.
What does ab- mean?
Ab- means away from.
Abnormal means not normal or away from normal.
What does dys- mean?
Dys- means bad, difficult, or painful.
Dysfunctional means an organ or body part that is not working properly.
What does hyper- mean?
Hyper- means excessive or increased.
Hypertension is higher-than-normal blood pressure.
What does inter- mean?
Inter- means between or among.
Interstitial means between, but not within, the parts of a tissue.
What does sub- mean?
Sub- means under, less, or below.
Subcostal means below a rib or ribs.
What does ad- mean?
Ad- means toward or in the direction of.
Addiction means being drawn toward or having a strong dependence on a drug or substance.
What does eu- mean?
Eu- means good, normal, well, or easy.
Eupnea means easy or normal breathing.
What does hypo- mean?
Hypo- means deficient or decreased.
Hypotension is lower-than-normal blood pressure.
What does intra- mean?
Intra- means within or inside.
Intramuscular means within the muscle.
What do super- and supra- mean?
Super- and supra- mean above or excessive.
Supracostal means above or outside the ribs.
What does the term ‘prenatal’ mean?
Prenatal means the time and events before birth.
‘pre-‘ means before, ‘nat’ means birth, and ‘-al’ means pertaining to.
What does the term ‘perinatal’ refer to?
Perinatal refers to the time and events surrounding birth.
‘peri-‘ means surrounding, ‘nat’ means birth, and ‘-al’ means pertaining to.
What is the meaning of the prefix ‘pre-‘?
‘Pre-‘ means before.
What is the meaning of the prefix ‘peri-‘?
‘Peri-‘ means surrounding.
What does the term ‘natal’ mean?
Natal means pertaining to birth.
‘nat’ means birth, and ‘-al’ means pertaining to.
What does the prefix ‘ab-‘ indicate?
‘Ab-‘ indicates away from, negative, or absent.
What does the prefix ‘ad-‘ indicate?
‘Ad-‘ indicates toward, to, or in the direction of.
What does the prefix ‘dextro-‘ mean?
‘Dextro-‘ means right side.
What does the prefix ‘sinistro-‘ mean?
‘Sinistro-‘ means left side.
What does the prefix ‘macro-‘ mean?
‘Macro-‘ means large, abnormal size, or long.
What does the prefix ‘micro-‘ mean?
‘Micro-‘ means small.
What does the prefix ‘oligo-‘ indicate?
‘Oligo-‘ indicates scanty or few.
What does the prefix ‘post-‘ mean?
‘Post-‘ means after or behind.
What do gastralgia and gastrodynia mean?
Both terms mean stomach pain.
What is abdominocentesis?
It is the surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove fluid.
(abdomin/o means abdomen, and -centesis means a surgical puncture to remove fluid)
What does -graphy mean?
-graphy means the process of producing a picture or record.
What is angiography?
It is the process of producing an x-ray of blood vessels after the injection of a contrast medium.
(angi/o means blood vessel, and -graphy means the process of recording)
What does -gram mean?
-gram means a picture or record.
What is an angiogram?
It is the resulting film produced by angiography.
(angi/o means blood vessel, and -gram means a picture or record)
What does -plasty mean?
-plasty means surgical repair.
What is myoplasty?
It is the surgical repair of a muscle.
(my/o means muscle, and -plasty means surgical repair)
What does -scopy mean?
-scopy means visual examination.
What is arthroscopy?
It is the visual examination of the internal structure of a joint.
(arthr/o means joint, and -scopy means visual examination)
What does hepatomegaly mean?
It refers to the enlargement of the liver.
(hepat/o means liver, and -megaly means enlargement)
What does -malacia mean?
-malacia means abnormal softening.
What is arteriomalacia?
It is the abnormal softening of the walls of an artery or arteries.
(arteri/o means artery, and -malacia means abnormal softening)
What does -necrosis mean?
-necrosis means tissue death.
What is arterionecrosis?
It is the tissue death of an artery or arteries.
(arteri/o means artery, and -necrosis means tissue death)
What does -sclerosis mean?
-sclerosis means abnormal hardening.
What is arteriosclerosis?
It is the abnormal hardening of the walls of an artery or arteries.
(arteri/o means artery, and -sclerosis means abnormal hardening)
What does -stenosis mean?
-stenosis means abnormal narrowing.
What is arteriostenosis?
It is the abnormal narrowing of an artery or arteries.
(arteri/o means artery, and -stenosis means abnormal narrowing)
What does -centesis refer to?
-centesis is a surgical puncture to remove fluid for diagnostic purposes or to remove excess fluid.
What do -rrhage and -rrhagia mean?
They mean bleeding, often used to describe sudden, severe bleeding.
What is a hemorrhage?
It is the loss of a large amount of blood in a short time.
(hem/o means blood, and -rrhage means bleeding or abnormal excessive fluid discharge)
What does -rrhaphy mean?
-rrhaphy means surgical suturing to close a wound.
What is tenorrhaphy?
It is the surgical suturing of a tendon.
(ten/o means tendon, and -rrhaphy means surgical suturing)
What does -rrhea mean?
-rrhea means flow or discharge.
What is diarrhea?
It is the frequent flow of loose or watery stools.
(dia- means through, and -rrhea means flow or discharge)
What is anatomy and physiology?
The study of the structures of the body and the ways they work together to support the functions of life.
What does the study of physiology center on?
The body’s tendency toward homeostasis.
What is homeostasis?
The state of steady internal conditions maintained by living things.
What methods are used in the study of physiology?
Observation with the naked eye and microscopes, manipulations, and measurements.
What do current advances in physiology depend on?
Carefully designed laboratory experiments.
What is neurophysiology?
The study of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves and how they work together to perform functions.
What levels do physiologists work from?
From the organ level to the molecular level.
How is form related to function in living things?
Form is closely related to function, as seen in the quick action of the eyelid.
What allows the eyelid to snap down and slide back up?
The arrangement and function of the nerves and muscles that serve the eyelid.
What do the functions of nerves and muscles rely on?
The interactions of specific molecules and ions.
Why is the three-dimensional structure of molecules essential?
It is essential to their function.
What is gross anatomy?
Gross anatomy considers large structures such as the brain.
What is microscopic anatomy?
Microscopic anatomy deals with the same structures as gross anatomy, but at a different scale.
What are the two general approaches to studying anatomy?
The two approaches are regional anatomy and systemic anatomy.
What is regional anatomy?
Regional anatomy is the study of the interrelationships of all structures in a specific body region, such as the abdomen.
What is the benefit of studying regional anatomy?
Studying regional anatomy helps us appreciate how muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and other structures work together in a body region.
What is systemic anatomy?
Systemic anatomy is the study of structures that make up a discrete body system, which work together to perform a unique body function.
Can you give an example of systemic anatomy?
A systemic anatomical study of the muscular system would consider all of the skeletal muscles of the body.
What is the difference between anatomy and physiology?
Anatomy is about structure, while physiology is about function.
What is human physiology?
Human physiology is the scientific study of the chemistry and functions of the human body.
What is the origin of the word ‘anatomy’?
The word ‘anatomy’ comes from a Greek root that means ‘to cut apart.’
How was human anatomy first studied?
Human anatomy was first studied by observing the exterior of the body and the wounds of soldiers and other injuries.
What is dissection?
Dissection is the process of cutting apart a body to observe its structures and their relationships.
Where is dissection still used?
Dissection is still used in medical schools, anatomy courses, and pathology labs.
What techniques have been developed to observe structures in living people?
A number of imaging techniques have been developed to visualize structures inside the living body.
What is gross anatomy?
Gross anatomy is the study of larger structures of the body that are visible without magnification.
What does ‘macro-‘ mean in anatomy?
‘Macro-‘ means ‘large,’ thus gross anatomy is also referred to as macroscopic anatomy.
What is microscopic anatomy?
Microscopic anatomy is the study of structures that can only be observed with a microscope or magnification devices.
What are the two main branches of microscopic anatomy?
Microscopic anatomy includes cytology, the study of cells, and histology, the study of tissues.
How has microscope technology impacted anatomy?
As microscope technology has advanced, anatomists have been able to observe smaller structures of the body.
What is the importance of anatomy and physiology?
Understanding anatomy and physiology helps make healthful choices and take appropriate action when signs of illness arise.
How does knowledge of anatomy and physiology benefit individuals?
It aids in understanding nutrition, medications, medical devices, procedures, and diseases.
What does this chapter cover regarding anatomy and physiology?
It provides an overview of body regions and functions, characteristics of life, and how the body maintains stable conditions.
What foundational terms are introduced in this chapter?
Standard terms for body structures, planes, and positions.
What is human anatomy?
The scientific study of the body’s structures.
What will you be able to do by the end of the overview section?
Compare and contrast anatomy and physiology, and discuss their fundamental relationship.
What is the difference between anatomy and physiology?
Anatomy is the study of the structure of the body, while physiology is the study of the functions of those structures.
What are the six levels of organization in the body?
The six levels of organization are: chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, and organism.
What are the functional characteristics of human life?
The functional characteristics of human life include organization, metabolism, responsiveness, movement, development, reproduction, and adaptation.
What are the four requirements for human survival?
The four requirements for human survival are: nutrients, oxygen, water, and appropriate temperature.
What is homeostasis?
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment despite changes in external conditions.
Why is homeostasis important?
Homeostasis is crucial for normal human functioning as it regulates vital parameters such as temperature, pH, and electrolyte balance.
What is anatomical terminology?
Anatomical terminology is a standardized language used to describe body structures, regions, and directions.
What are some medical imaging techniques?
Medical imaging techniques include X-rays, MRI, CT scans, and ultrasound, each with specific functions and uses in medicine.
What does cyan/o mean?
Cyan/o means blue.
What is cyanosis?
Cyanosis is blue discoloration of the skin caused by lack of adequate oxygen in the blood.
Cyan means blue, and -osis means abnormal condition or disease.
What does erythr/o mean?
Erythr/o means red.
What is an erythrocyte?
An erythrocyte is a mature red blood cell.
Erythr/o means red, and -cyte means cell.
What does leuk/o mean?
Leuk/o means white.
What is a leukocyte?
A leukocyte is a white blood cell.
Leuk/o means white, and -cyte means cell.
What does melan/o mean?
Melan/o means black.
What is melanoma?
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer.
Melan means black, and -oma means a tumor.
What does poli/o mean?
Poli/o means gray.
What is poliomyelitis?
Poliomyelitis is a viral infection of the gray nerve tissue of the spinal cord.
Poli/o means gray, myel means spinal cord, and -itis means inflammation.
What does the suffix ‘-algia’ mean?
Pain, suffering
What does the suffix ‘-dynia’ mean?
Pain
What does the suffix ‘-ectomy’ mean?
Surgical removal, cutting out
What does the suffix ‘-gram’ mean?
Picture or record
What does the prefix ‘hyper-‘ mean?
Excessive, increased
What does the prefix ‘hypo-‘ mean?
Deficient, decreased
What does the suffix ‘-itis’ mean?
Inflammation
What does the suffix ‘-osis’ mean?
Abnormal condition, disease
What does the suffix ‘-ostomy’ mean?
The surgical creation of an artificial opening to the body surface
What does the prefix ‘pre-‘ mean?
Before, in front of
What does the suffix ‘-plasty’ mean?
Surgical repair
What does the suffix ‘-rrhage’ mean?
Bleeding, abnormal excessive fluid discharge
What does the suffix ‘-rrhaphy’ mean?
Surgical suturing
What does the suffix ‘-rrhea’ mean?
Flow or discharge
What does the suffix ‘-sclerosis’ mean?
Abnormal hardening
What is the definition of ‘abdominocentesis’?
A procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen
What is an ‘acronym’?
A word formed from the initial letters of a series of words
What does ‘acute’ refer to?
A condition that comes on suddenly and is severe in nature
What is ‘angiography’?
A medical imaging technique used to visualize the inside of blood vessels
What is an ‘appendectomy’?
Surgical removal of the appendix
What is ‘arteriosclerosis’?
Hardening of the arteries
What does ‘arthralgia’ mean?
Joint pain
What is a ‘colostomy’?
A surgical procedure that creates an opening from the colon to the abdominal surface
What does ‘cyanosis’ indicate?
A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen
What is a ‘dermatologist’?
A doctor who specializes in skin conditions
What is ‘diagnosis’?
The identification of the nature of an illness
What does ‘diarrhea’ refer to?
Frequent, watery bowel movements
What is ‘edema’?
Swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body’s tissues
What does ‘endarterial’ refer to?
Pertaining to the inner lining of an artery
What is an ‘eponym’?
A disease or procedure named after a person
What is an ‘erythrocyte’?
A red blood cell
What is a ‘fissure’?
A small tear or crack in the skin or tissue
What is a ‘fistula’?
An abnormal connection between two body parts
What does ‘gastralgia’ mean?
Stomach pain
What is ‘gastritis’?
Inflammation of the stomach lining
What is ‘gastroenteritis’?
Inflammation of the stomach and intestines
What does ‘gastrosis’ refer to?
Any disease of the stomach
What is ‘hemorrhage’?
Excessive bleeding
What is ‘hepatomegaly’?
Enlargement of the liver
What does ‘hypertension’ mean?
High blood pressure
What does ‘hypotension’ mean?
Low blood pressure
What is an ‘infection’?
The invasion of the body by harmful organisms
What does ‘inflammation’ refer to?
The body’s response to injury or infection
What does ‘interstitial’ mean?
Pertaining to spaces within tissues
What does ‘intramuscular’ mean?
Within the muscle
What is a ‘laceration’?
A deep cut or tear in skin or flesh
What is a ‘lesion’?
An abnormal change in tissue
What does ‘malaise’ mean?
A general feeling of discomfort or unease
What is ‘mycosis’?
A fungal infection
What is ‘myelopathy’?
A disease of the spinal cord
What is ‘myopathy’?
A disease of muscle tissue
What does ‘natal’ refer to?
Relating to birth
What is ‘neonatology’?
The study of newborns
What is ‘neurorrhaphy’?
Surgical suturing of a nerve
What is ‘otorhinolaryngology’?
The study of the ear, nose, and throat
What is ‘palpation’?
The act of examining by touch
What is ‘palpitation’?
A noticeably rapid or irregular heartbeat
What is ‘pathology’?
The study of diseases
What are ‘phalanges’?
The bones of the fingers and toes
What is ‘poliomyelitis’?
A viral disease that can affect nerves and can lead to partial or full paralysis
What does ‘prognosis’ mean?
The likely outcome of a disease
What is ‘pyoderma’?
A bacterial skin infection
What does ‘pyrosis’ refer to?
Heartburn
What does ‘remission’ mean?
A decrease in or disappearance of signs and symptoms of a disease
What is a ‘sign’ in medical terms?
An objective indication of a disease
What does ‘supination’ mean?
The act of turning the palm up
What does ‘suppuration’ mean?
The formation of pus
What does ‘supracostal’ mean?
Above the ribs
What is a ‘symptom’?
A subjective indication of a disease
What does ‘syndrome’ mean?
A group of symptoms that occur together
What is ‘tenorrhaphy’?
Surgical suturing of a tendon
What is ‘tonsillitis’?
Inflammation of the tonsils
What does ‘trauma’ refer to?
A physical injury or wound
What is ‘triage’?
The process of determining the priority of patients’ treatments
What does ‘viral’ mean?
Relating to or caused by a virus
What does the suffix ‘-algia’ mean?
Pain, suffering
What does the suffix ‘-dynia’ mean?
Pain
What does the suffix ‘-ectomy’ mean?
Surgical removal, cutting out
What does the suffix ‘-gram’ mean?
Picture or record
What does the prefix ‘hyper-‘ mean?
Excessive, increased
What does the prefix ‘hypo-‘ mean?
Deficient, decreased
What does the suffix ‘-itis’ mean?
Inflammation
What does the suffix ‘-osis’ mean?
Abnormal condition, disease
What does the suffix ‘-ostomy’ mean?
The surgical creation of an artificial opening to the body surface
What does the prefix ‘pre-‘ mean?
Before, in front of
What does the suffix ‘-plasty’ mean?
Surgical repair
What does the suffix ‘-rrhage’ mean?
Bleeding, abnormal excessive fluid discharge
What does the suffix ‘-rrhaphy’ mean?
Surgical suturing
What does the suffix ‘-rrhea’ mean?
Flow or discharge
What does the suffix ‘-sclerosis’ mean?
Abnormal hardening
What is the definition of ‘abdominocentesis’?
A procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen
What is an ‘acronym’?
A word formed from the initial letters of a series of words
What does ‘acute’ refer to?
A condition that comes on suddenly and is severe in nature
What is ‘angiography’?
A medical imaging technique used to visualize the inside of blood vessels
What is an ‘appendectomy’?
Surgical removal of the appendix
What is ‘arteriosclerosis’?
Hardening of the arteries
What does ‘arthralgia’ mean?
Joint pain
What is a ‘colostomy’?
A surgical procedure that creates an opening from the colon to the abdominal surface
What does ‘cyanosis’ indicate?
A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen
What is a ‘dermatologist’?
A doctor who specializes in skin conditions
What is ‘diagnosis’?
The identification of the nature of an illness
What does ‘diarrhea’ refer to?
Frequent, watery bowel movements
What is ‘edema’?
Swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body’s tissues
What does ‘endarterial’ refer to?
Pertaining to the inner lining of an artery
What is an ‘eponym’?
A disease or procedure named after a person
What is an ‘erythrocyte’?
A red blood cell
What is a ‘fissure’?
A small tear or crack in the skin or tissue
What is a ‘fistula’?
An abnormal connection between two body parts
What does ‘gastralgia’ mean?
Stomach pain
What is ‘gastritis’?
Inflammation of the stomach lining
What is ‘gastroenteritis’?
Inflammation of the stomach and intestines
What does ‘gastrosis’ refer to?
Any disease of the stomach
What is ‘hemorrhage’?
Excessive bleeding
What is ‘hepatomegaly’?
Enlargement of the liver
What does ‘hypertension’ mean?
High blood pressure
What does ‘hypotension’ mean?
Low blood pressure
What is an ‘infection’?
The invasion of the body by harmful organisms
What does ‘inflammation’ refer to?
The body’s response to injury or infection
What does ‘interstitial’ mean?
Pertaining to spaces within tissues
What does ‘intramuscular’ mean?
Within the muscle
What is a ‘laceration’?
A deep cut or tear in skin or flesh
What is a ‘lesion’?
An abnormal change in tissue
What does ‘malaise’ mean?
A general feeling of discomfort or unease
What is ‘mycosis’?
A fungal infection
What is ‘myelopathy’?
A disease of the spinal cord
What is ‘myopathy’?
A disease of muscle tissue
What does ‘natal’ refer to?
Relating to birth
What is ‘neonatology’?
The study of newborns
What is ‘neurorrhaphy’?
Surgical suturing of a nerve
What is ‘otorhinolaryngology’?
The study of the ear, nose, and throat
What is ‘palpation’?
The act of examining by touch
What is ‘palpitation’?
A noticeably rapid or irregular heartbeat
What is ‘pathology’?
The study of diseases
What are ‘phalanges’?
The bones of the fingers and toes
What is ‘poliomyelitis’?
A viral disease that can affect nerves and can lead to partial or full paralysis
What does ‘prognosis’ mean?
The likely outcome of a disease
What is ‘pyoderma’?
A bacterial skin infection
What does ‘pyrosis’ refer to?
Heartburn
What does ‘remission’ mean?
A decrease in or disappearance of signs and symptoms of a disease
What is a ‘sign’ in medical terms?
An objective indication of a disease
What does ‘supination’ mean?
The act of turning the palm up
What does ‘suppuration’ mean?
The formation of pus
What does ‘supracostal’ mean?
Above the ribs
What is a ‘symptom’?
A subjective indication of a disease
What does ‘syndrome’ mean?
A group of symptoms that occur together
What is ‘tenorrhaphy’?
Surgical suturing of a tendon
What is ‘tonsillitis’?
Inflammation of the tonsils
What does ‘trauma’ refer to?
A physical injury or wound
What is ‘triage’?
The process of determining the priority of patients’ treatments
What does ‘viral’ mean?
Relating to or caused by a virus
