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Pediatric Boards > Med Study 3 > Flashcards

Med Study 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define FUO

A

True fever every day for over a week with no clear etiology

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2
Q

PFAPA syndrome

A

= a benign periodic fever syndrome that usually starts before age 5

periodic fever, apthous ulcers, pharyngitis and cervical adenitits

relatively common, no known genetic cause

it’s a clinical diagnosis

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3
Q

Tx for PFAPA

A

single dose of prednisone will resolve the fever episode

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4
Q

The problem with giving prednisone to treat a PFAPA fever episode is….

A

while it will resolve that fever episode, it will shorten the duration of time until the next fever episode

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5
Q

Familial periodic fever syndrome

A

= an autosomal recessive disorder more common in mediterranean populations

has to do with the pyron gene on chromosome 16

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6
Q

Tx for familial mediterranean fever syndrome

A

Colchicine

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7
Q

What is the risk of not treating familial mediterranean fever syndrome?

A

Amyloidosis

(the protein amyloid builds up in organs over time and makes them not work)

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8
Q

Hyper IgD Syndrome

A

= an autosomal recessvie periodic fever disorder

most common in the French and Dutch

the problem is there is excess production of interleukin 1

presents young, before 1 year of age

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9
Q

Lab findings for hyper IgD syndrome

A

high IgD sometimes
but almost always have high IgA

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10
Q

respiratory depression + miosis =

A

opioid toxidrome

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11
Q

Oxycodone time to onset of action

A

20 min

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12
Q

Definition of VLBW infant

A

< 1500 g

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13
Q

Heroin withdrawal occurs how many hours after the last exposure

A

8 hours

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14
Q

1st sign of heroin withdrawal is usually

A

yawning

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15
Q

long part of a long bone is called the

A

diaphysis

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16
Q

end of long bone in a child is called the

A

epiphysis

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17
Q

blank is between the diaphysis and the epiphysis

A

metaphysis

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18
Q

growth plate is called the…..

A

physis

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19
Q

The growth plate or physis lies between which parts of a long bone?

A

The metaphysis and the epiphysis

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20
Q

Blank is a common benign bone tumor in children

A

osteochondroma

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21
Q

Tx for osteochondroma

A

leave it alone unless it causes symptoms, in which case, excise it

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22
Q

Hemihypertrophy + hamartomata =

A

Proteus syndrome

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23
Q

Blank syndrome is a rare condition characterized by overgrowth of the bones, skin, and other tissues

A

Proteus syndrome

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24
Q

Genetics of Proteus Syndrome

A

due to a sporadic mutation in the AKT1 gene that occurs during fetal development, leading to some cells having the mutation and some not

this gene is responsible for regulating cell growth and division

so as a result, you get gigantism of the extremities, lipomas, angiomas, and hamartomas

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25
Q

Hamartoma

A

A hamartoma is an abnormal growth that’s made up of the same tissue from which it grows

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26
Q

Main side effect of zidovudine

A

bone marrow suppression

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27
Q

Trichotillomania is associated with this deficiency

A

= hair pulling, usually associated with OCD
but also can be associated with iron deficiency

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28
Q

The AAP recommends that kids not have access to online social networks until they are …..

A

teenagers.

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29
Q

The AAP recommends initial autism screening at what age?

A

18 months

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30
Q

The MCHAT, screening for autism, should be performed at these ages

A

18 months
24 months
and whenever there are concerns

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31
Q

staghorn renal calculi think

A

proteus infection

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32
Q

If an infant regurgitates the rotavirus vaccine, should it be re-administered?

A

Nope

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33
Q

At what age can preterm infants get the rotavirus vaccine?

A

same as term infants
must be at least 6 weeks old
and must be clinically stable and not in the nicu, to not spread the live virus ….

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34
Q

Contraindications to rotavirus vaccine

A

SCID
hx of intussusception

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35
Q

Endocarditis in children with normal valves is usually caused by

A

staph aureus

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36
Q

malar means

A

of or relating to the cheek

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37
Q

Keratitic precipitates associated with a “flare” during slit lamp examination =

A

findings of iritis and uveitis

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38
Q

exudative hemorrhagic lesions of the retina in a clinically ill child =

A

Roth spots in SBE

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39
Q

glossitis (swollen, inflamed tongue) + spooning of the nails (nails that look scooped out) =

A

iron deficiency anemia

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40
Q

Is IV iron more effective than oral iron when treating iron deficiency anemia?

A

No, it is equally effective but not more

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41
Q

adverse effects of MMR vaccine (name 2)

A

febrile seizures
immune thrombocytopenia

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42
Q

Is maternal gestational diabetes a risk factor for developing type 1 DM?

A

NOPE

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43
Q

What nerve palsy is frequently seen in children with increased ICP?

A

6th nerve palsy

presents as diplopia and eye turning in towards nose since lateral rectus isn’t working

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44
Q

Blank represents a group of disorders caused by proliferation/accumulation of cells derived from monocyte-macrophage lineage.

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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45
Q

Most patients with LCH will have this feature

A

lytic bone lesions

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46
Q

Punched out, circular, lytic bone lesion think

A

LCH

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47
Q

Most common sites of LCH bone lesions

A

skull
femur
ribs
vertebra
humerus

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48
Q

Birbeck granules on electron microcsopy =

A

LCH

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49
Q

Immunohistochemical staining for CD1a/CD207 that is positive =

A

LCH

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50
Q

Lab results most specific for a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus:

A

anti-dsDNA
anti-Smith

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51
Q

Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for this disease

A

Lupus

(specifically, SYSTEMIC Lupus)

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52
Q

Antihistone antibodies think

A

DRUG INDUCED Lupus

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53
Q

Name 3 drugs known to cause drug-induced Lupus

A

Procainamide
Quinidine
Hydralazine

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54
Q

Anti-Ro antibody (aka anti-SSA) think

A

NEONATAL lupus or sjogren syndrome

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55
Q

This antibody is much more specific for neonatal lupus than it is for just plain regular systemic lupus:

A

anti-SSA (anti-Ro)

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56
Q

This antibody is highly specific for SLE

A

anti-double-stranded DNA antibody

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57
Q

Name TWO antibodies that are HIGHLY specific for SLE:

A

anti-DS DNA
anti-Smith

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58
Q

The CDC defines a measles outbreak as

A

one confirmed case

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59
Q

What are estrogen and progesterone levels like in PCOS?

A

normal

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60
Q

What are free testosterone levels like in PCOS?

A

high

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61
Q

What are levels of LH and FSH like in PCOS?

A

LH is high.
FSH is low.

You get an elevated LH to FSH ratio.

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62
Q

The most common long term complication in girls/women with galactosemia is

A

primary ovarian failure

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63
Q

Why does galactosemia, even when well controlled, cause ovarian failure?

A

because galactose and it’s metabolites are toxic to the ovaries

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64
Q

A teen male athlete has gynecomastia, small testicles, hypertension, aggression, acne, and muscle mass increase. You should suspect

A

androgenic steroid use

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65
Q

The main type of antibody secreted in breast milk is

A

IgA

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66
Q

15 you has abrupt onset fever, cough with wheezing, join pains and a rash. It’s due to a this bacteria

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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67
Q

Rashes that can be seen in mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

erythema multiforme, and SJS

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68
Q

Heme problem that can be seen in mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

hemolytic anemia

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69
Q

What is glutaric acidemia type 1?

A

= an autosomal recessive enzyme defect where you can’t break down lysine, hydroylysine, and tryptophan

so it’s a metabolic disorder

it can look like NAT, because can cause subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages

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70
Q

Which metabolic diseases can cause subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages?

A

Menkes disease
Glutaric acidemia Type 1

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71
Q

Why does Glutaric Acidemia Type 1 cause subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages?

A

Beucase in this metabolic disorder there is cortical atrophy, so the bridging veins are more likely to stretch and bleed

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72
Q

How does Glutaric Acidemia Type 1 present?

A

Infants will have macrocephaly but otherwise will have normal development actually

but then with any febrile illness or metabolic stressor, the baby will develop sudden hypotonia and dystonia and will be in a metabolic crisis and damaged will occur to the brain if not fixed very quickly

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73
Q

Are weight loss and growth failure more common with Crohn’s disease or UC?

A

Crohn’s

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74
Q

granulomas seen in IBD means this diagnosis

A

Crohn’s

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75
Q

Dilated scrotal veins =

A

varicocele

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76
Q

What is WAGR syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor
Aniridia
Genitourinary malformation
Reduced intellectual abilities

it’s due to an 11p deletion, where there is loss of the PAX6 gene and the Wilms tumor 1 gene (WT1)

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77
Q

When children with ADHD are started on a stimulant medication, what disorder may be unmasked?

A

Tic disorder

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78
Q

What mental health disorder is characterized by excessive, unrealistic fears that interfere with daily activities?

A

generalized anxiety disorder

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79
Q

Definition of generalized anxiety disorder in children:

A

when a child has excessive anxiety and worry occurring most days for at least 6 months

and has worries about multiple settings, like both home and school for ex

causes distress/impairment to daily life

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80
Q

herald patch 1-2 weeks before itchy rash on trunk in christmas-tree pattern =

A

Piryriasis rosea

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81
Q

Ddx for pityriasis rosea in adolescents also includes….

A

secondary syphilis
guttate psoriasis

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82
Q

Blank is the most severe of the spinal muscular atrophies

A

SMA1

(also called Werdnig-Hoffmann disease or severe infantile SMA)

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83
Q

Prognosis for SMA 1 (spinal muscular atrophy type 1)

A

most patients die by age 2 from respiratory failure :(:(:(

84
Q

Proximal muscle weakness + tongue fasciculations in an infant =

A

SMA type 1

85
Q

A 3 month old baby presents with hypotonia and weakness that is symmetric but more severe proximally. She is having tongue fasciculations and difficulty feeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Spinal muscular atrophy type 1 :(

86
Q

Are there any sensory deficits in SMA?

A

No.

87
Q

Define good asthma control

A

It’s really strict.

Good control means:
-2 or less episodes of day time symptoms per week
-1 or ZERO episodes of nighttime symptoms per month

88
Q

If a child has nighttime asthma symptoms two times per month, is their asthma well controlled?

A

No

89
Q

The most common cause of intoeing in a child learning to walk is

A

tibial torsion

it results from medial rotation of the tibia
usually self resolves in a few years …

90
Q

The most severe tic disorder is

A

Tourette syndrome

91
Q

Is Tourette syndrome genetic?

A

apparently it is
autosomal dominant
and more prominent in males

92
Q

Do stimulants cause tics?

A

NOPE
they can unmask them, but they do not cause them

93
Q

Is having a tic disorder a contraindication for starting medication for ADHD?

A

Nope
Because stimulant effects on tics is unpredictable

94
Q

You have to have MULTIPLE tics for OVER a year to be diagnosed with

A

Tourette syndrome

95
Q

Vitamin A deficient kids do worse if they get

A

measles

96
Q

What does xerophthalmia mean?

A

dry eyes

97
Q

What are bitot spots?

A

= build ups of keratin on the superficial conjunctiva of the eye

seen in vitamin A deficiency

98
Q

Night blindness, dry eyes, bitot spots, growth failure, and increased susceptibility of infection =

A

vitamin A deficiency

99
Q

Outpatient therapy for PID

A

doxy and flagyl

100
Q

When can athletes return to play after a concussion

A

“after completion of a 6 step graduated return-to-play protocol”

101
Q

18 yo w/genital ulcer. Wright stain shows rod-shaped, oval organisms within the cytoplasm of phagocytes. The diagnosis is….

A

These are donavan bodies (deep purple intracellular inclusions), which are gram neg rods swallowed by macrophages

The diagnosis is granuloma inguinale, caused by klebsiella granulmatous

rare in the US

102
Q

Upper limit of normal mag level

A

2.3

anything over that is hypermag

103
Q

Side effects of guanficine and MOA

A

alpha AGONIST

sedation, hypotension, bradycardia

104
Q

Name an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

A

enalapril

105
Q

Name an ACE inhibitor

A

Enalapril

106
Q

Can ACE inhibitors be taken during pregnancy?

A

NO

because of the teratogenic effects on the heart, CNS and kidneys

107
Q

Why do ACE inhibitors cause severe harm to the fetus if taken during pregnancy?

A

ACE inhibitors cross the placenta. They then inhibit the renin-angiotensin system of the fetus, cause decreased glomerular filtration and decreased fetal urine production.

This then leads to LOTS of problems–including pulmonary hypoplasia from oligo, limb abnormalities, and facial deformities

108
Q

Infant is born with flattened hands, widely separated eyes, low set ears and flattened facial features to a mom with oligo. What drug caused these teratogenic effects?

A

ACE inhibitors (lisinopril, enalapril, the prils)

109
Q

Teratogenic effects of lithium:

A

Epstein’s anomaly (atrialization of the RV) and CNS defects

110
Q

Phenytoin use during pregnancy will cause

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome

(IUGR, microcephaly, hypoplastic nails, hypoplastic dital phalanges, and potential developmental delays)

+ increased risk of cleft lip and heart defects

111
Q

For unclear reasons, IgA is high and IgM is low in this syndrome.

A

Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

impaired immune function leads to high IgA and low IgM

112
Q

Do patients with TAR syndrome (thrombocytopenia absent radii) have immunodeficiency?

A

nope

113
Q

bloody diarrhea, thrombocytopenia and kidney failure =

A

HUS

114
Q

Disseminated Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection is also called

A

tenosynovitis dermatitis syndrome

pt will be ill with fever/malaise and then will ALSO get joint swelling/pain, and pustular/petechial skin lesions that can turn necrotic and are very painful

bc usually positive

115
Q

Prosthetic hear valve means….

A

EITHER mechanical or bioprosthetic heart valve

116
Q

Who needs prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis when having a dental procedure done, and what should this prophylaxis be?

A

Prophylaxis of choice is just plain amoxicillin, 50 mg/kg with max adult dose of 2 g, given once orally 30-60 minutes prior to the procedure. Can use cephalexin, azithro or clinda if penicillin allergic.

Who needs this:
-anyone with a prosthetic valve (mechanical or bioprosthetic)
-unrepaired or palliatively repaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
-non valvular congenital heart repair where prosthetic material was placed in the last 6 months
-or after 6 months these same repairs if a residual defect exists next to the prosthetic material

117
Q

Who does NOT need SBE prophylaxis before a dental procedure?

A

those with….
-bicuspid aortic valve
aortic or mitral valve disease where there is no prosthetic material/repair that has happened
-hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (duh…)

118
Q

Most common mechanism of injury that causes an ACL tear

A

sudden deceleration and pivoting of the knee

119
Q

A twisting motion of the planted leg describes the mechanism of injury for

A

a medial meniscus tear

120
Q

A direct blow to the lateral side of the knee will cause what type of injury?

A

A medial collateral ligament tear

121
Q

How does the PCL get injured?

A

A direct blow to the anterior knee when the knee is flexed

122
Q

Are random growth hormone levels helpful in making a diagnosis of growth hormone deficiency?

A

No, because growth hormone secretion is pulsatile

(would need to do growth hormone stimulation testing to make the diagnosis of growth hormone deficiency)

123
Q

Pes planus means

A

flat feet

124
Q

Why is Tdap (rather than Td) recommended at the 11-12 yo visit?

A

because pertussis is common in adolescents

125
Q

Lateral epicondylitis is also known as

A

tennis elbow

126
Q

Blue nevus

A

= a normal lesion that does not need a biopsy or any workup at all. It’s well circumscribed, round or oval, papule, smooth, 2-10 mm in diameter with bluish black color, so often ppl get concerned it could be melanoma

127
Q

Darier sign

A

= localized erythema and urticaria after gentle rubbing or stroking of a lesion

128
Q

Erythema and wheal formation after stroking or rubbing the lesion is called

A

a positive Darier sign

129
Q

Darier sign think

A

cutaneous mastocytosis

130
Q

What is Mastocytosis?

A

= a group of disorders where there is accumulation of mast cells in the skin, and in some cases in other organs too

131
Q

What are the different types of mastocytosis?

A

can have one isolated lesion
or multiple
or diffuse, where the entire skin is filled with mast cells
or, systemic, where other organs are involved too

132
Q

What is the Nikolsky sign, and in what diseases do you see this?

A

= when you stroke the lesion gently and the upper layer of the epidermis comes right off

positive Nikolsky sign seen in TSS and SSSS

133
Q

Fine points of punctate bleeding underneath scale that has just been removed describes what sign? What disease is this seen in?

A

Auspitz sign
seen in Psoriasis

134
Q

The presence of isolated IgA deposits on kidney biopsy are indicative of either this disease or this disease

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
IgA vasculitis (aka HSP, but I guess we don’t use the name HSP anymore)

135
Q

Berger disease

A

= IgA nephropathy

presents with recurrent painless gross hematuria, usually following a URI

need ongoing monitoring because can lead to proteinuria and hypertension over time

136
Q

What is Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1?

A

= a group of disorders actually, autosomal recessive, where there are recurrent severe bacterial and fungal infections with NO pus formation

neutrophils cannot get out of circulation and to the extravascular site of inflammation (this process is impaired)

137
Q

How LAD1 (leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1) might present in a 6 week old baby:

A

umbilical cord still firmly attached
with associated omphalitis
and even necrotizing fasciitis
with SUPER high neutrophil count

138
Q

Babies and children with LAD1 (leukocyte adhesion deficiency) are at ESPECIALLY increased risk for infections caused by these two bacteria:

A

staph aureus
E. coli

139
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency prognosis

A

death from infection/poor wound healing usually before age 2-5, unless successful bone marrow transplant

140
Q

Lab finding in patient with leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

marked neutrophilia

super high neutrophils

141
Q

Treatment for PCP (pneumocystis jiroveci penumonia)

A

Bactrim and steroids

(don’t need steroids if it’s really mild)

142
Q

Up to 50% of babies with undiagnosed HIV/AIDs present how?

A

with PJP pneumonia between ages 3-6 months

143
Q

Name one of the most common AIDs defining illnesses in the first year of life

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP or PJP pnuemonia)

144
Q

The combination of amikacin and azithromycin is useful for the treatment of

A

nontuberculosis mycobacteria

145
Q

Hormonally/chemically speaking, puberty begins with…

A

the pulsatile release of GnRH
this causes LH and FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary
which go and eventually cause the ovaries to produce estrogen

146
Q

These antibodies indicate that there has been a recent strep infection

A

ASO
anti-DNase B

147
Q

The most common CHRONIC glomerulonephritis in kids is

A

IgA nephropathy

148
Q

In post-infectious glomerulonephritis, what are C3 and C4 levels like?

A

C3 will be low

149
Q

What are C3 and C4 levels like in Lupus nephritis?

A

both low

150
Q

In IgA nephropathy, C3 is

A

normal

so is C4

normal normal

151
Q

Name two causes of glomerulonephritis where C3 is low and will stay low

A

Lupus
MPGN (membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis)

In post-infectious glomerulonephritis, C3 will be low but will return to normal within 3 weeks

152
Q

A child presents with two days of cola colored urine and a puffy face, and is found to have too-numerous-to-count RBCs and 4+ protein in her urine. How do you distinguish between post-infectious glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and Lupus?

A

C3/C4 levels helps to distinguish

153
Q

How does idiopathic hypercalcuria present?

A

gross or microscopic hematuria
can have associated dsyuria, urgency, and increased urinary frequency
can even have neprholithiasis

will have elevated spot urine calcium/creatinine ratio

154
Q

Urine lab finding in idiopathic hypercalciuria

A

spot urine calcium/creatinine ratio that is elevated (>0.2)

and evidence of hematuria

155
Q

A patient presents with hematuria and normal complement levels. Can they have post-infectious glomerulonephritis?

A

No

In PIGN, C3 will be low

156
Q

Should patients with idiopathic hypercalciuria increase or decrease their calcium intake?

A

They should actually INCREASE their calcium intake.

This is because paradoxically, if you limit your Ca intake, your intestines will absorb more oxalate, and you get get increased stone formation from that increased oxalate. weird

157
Q

Common early clinical finding in mono caused by EBV

A

periorbital and eyelid edema

(usually occurs after the fever starts, but before the sore throat and lymphadenopathy)

158
Q

When someone gets periorbital and eyelid edema with the onset of mono, is there also associated conjunctivities or tenderness of the eyes/lids?

A

nope

just puffy and swollen

159
Q

Rash often seen in mono, regardless of whether amox was given

A

morbilliform like rash

160
Q

Describe the enanthum often seen in mono

A

petechial lesions at the junction of the soft and hard palates

161
Q

Why can mono pts get jaundiced

A

they get icteric hepatitis

162
Q

Large, basophilic-staining lymphocytes containing “foamy-lie” cytoplasm =

A

atypical lymphocytes seen in mono

163
Q

How to confirm a diagnosis of EBV mono

A

EBV specific antibody panels

(as opposed to the rapid mono spot test, which identifies heterophile antibodies produced in mono, has lots of false positives and cannot actually confirm a mono infection)

164
Q

The problems with the rapid mono spot test are ….

A

there are lots of false positives
AND false negatives when its early in the disease

165
Q

How long should patients avoid contact sports to avoid splenic rupture after having mono?

A

1-3 months

166
Q

Should you give steroids when treating mono?

A

Only if you are concerned about upper airway obstruction

167
Q

Fever + slapped cheek appearance + fleeting erythematous maculopapular rash =

A

Parvovirus B19

168
Q

Blank is the most common cause of hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Coxsackievirus A16

169
Q

Human herpesvirus 6 causes what disease

A

Roseola

170
Q

High fever for 2-5 days, fever breaks, and then an erythematous maculopapular rash develops

A

Roseola

171
Q

What age group gets Roseola?

A

under age 3

172
Q

Describe the ENANTHEM that can sometimes be seen in Roseola

A

erythematous papules of the soft palate and uvula (aka “Nagayama spots”)

173
Q

Berliner sign

A

eyelid edema seen in Roseola infection

174
Q

Symptoms of Cushing syndrome

A

Rapid weight gain, fatigue, exercise intolerance, muscle weakness, hyperandrogenism

175
Q

An 8 AM cortisol level is helpful if you are evaluating for this disease

A

Adrenal insufficiency

It is NOT helpful in evaluating for Cushing syndrome or any other hypercortisol state

only helpful diagnostically when trying to figure out if there is a cortisol deficiency

176
Q

8 am cortisol level is used to evaluate for

A

adrenal insufficiency

177
Q

The best initial test if you are concerned a patient has Cushing Syndrome is

A

a 24-hour urinary free cortisol level

178
Q

You suspect a patient has Cushing syndrome. Their 24 hours urine cortisol is neg. Could they possibly still have Cushing syndrome?

A

nope

179
Q

Tests you can use to diagnose Cushing Syndrome:

A

-24 hour urine free cortisol level
-midnight or overnight serum or salivary cortisol level
-low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

180
Q

Cushing Disease vs Syndrome

A

Cushing disease occurs when Cushing syndrome is caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor, whereas Cushing syndrome is the set of symptoms that results when there is a surplus of cortisol in the body.

181
Q

Febrile UTI less than 2 years of age means you need to get

A

a renal ultrasound

182
Q

If a patient under age 2 presents with a febrile UTI for the first time, culture shows E.coli and it resolves appropriately with cephalexin or augmentin, what test you then order?

A

renal ultrasound

183
Q

For patients with febrile UTIs, when should you order a VCUG in addition to a renal US?

A

-if it’s any bug other than e.coli
-if they’ve had more than 1 febrile UTI
-if the renal US is abnormal
-if the fever is >39
-any other complications with the UTI that would be concerning, such as hypertension or FTT

in kids of ANY age

184
Q

What is erythema multiforme?

A

= a self-limited hypersensitivity reaction where you get pink patches and edematous plaques with dusky centers that look like targets

usually follows a viral infection– most commonly an HSV infection

185
Q

Erythema multiforme is most often precipitated by

A

HSV infection

but can be other viruses or other triggers as well

186
Q

Does erythema multiforme itch?

A

yes, mildly it can

187
Q

What is erythema multiforme major?

A

it’s when mucosal surfaces are also involved (oral mucosa, etc)

188
Q

Calculate NNT

A

= 1 / ARR

aka 1 / absolute risk reduction

where ARR is the percentage of the time the event happens in the placebo group - the percentage of the time the event happens in the treatment group

189
Q

An 18 yo with a history of substance abuse comes in with diaphoresis, shaking chills, agitation, confusion, and marked anxiety. What drug are they withdrawing from?

A

benzos

190
Q

Downers, blue footballs, tranks, xani-bars and totem poles are street names for

A

benzos

191
Q

Danger of benzo withdrawal

A

seizures

192
Q

Adverse effects of benzos

A

sedation
paradoxical aggression and anxiety

193
Q

The most common identifiable cause of intellectual disability is

A

FAS

194
Q

A harsh 3/6 regurgitant, pansystolic murmur heard best over the LLSB, accompanied by a thrill describes

A

A VSD

195
Q

Which type of cardiac anomalies are most common in babies/children with FAS?

A

septal defects
like for ex a VSD

196
Q

Bounding peripheral pulses think

A

PDA

197
Q

Murmur heard in mitral stenosis

A

apical diastolic murmur

198
Q

A 3 yo has a small head circumference, dysmorphic and facial features (short palpebral fissures, mild bilateral ptosis, midface hypoplasia, a long, smooth philtrum and thin upper lip). What is the diagnosis?

A

FAS

199
Q

long smooth philtrum, midface hypoplasia, and thin vermillion border think

A

FAS

200
Q

A systolic murmur heard at the APEX and preceded by a click describes

A

mitral valve prolapse

201
Q

Harsh pansystolic murmur heard best of the LLSB think

A

VSD

202
Q

In uncomplicated infant GER (NOT GERD, but just GER), should there be abnormal posturing?

A

nope

203
Q

A mid-cycle surge of blank leads to ovulation and the development of a functional corpus luteum

A

LH (luteinizing hormone)

204
Q

LH surge happens when and causes what to happen?

A

mid cycle. causes ovulation to occur

205
Q

Anovulatory menstrual cycles, common in the first two years after menarche, are characterized by the absence of the normal midcycle surge of this hormone

A

LH

this means there is no ovulation
and no formation of a functional corpus luteum

206
Q

What does the corpus luteum do?

A

Releases large amounts of progesterone

207
Q

During a normal menstrual cycle there is a mid-cycle surge of

A

LH

Pediatric Boards (9 decks)

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