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Pediatric Boards > Med Study 2 > Flashcards

Med Study 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is incontinentia pigmenti?

A

= an x-linked dominant disorder that causes skin lesions soon after birth

can mimic HSV
has 4 phases of skin lesions that take place over the first few years
also involves dental, hair and nail abnormalities
can be associated with mental disability

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2
Q

This congenital condition mimics HSV in the newborn

A

Incontinentia pigmenti

complicating this is both can cause seizures

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3
Q

Can males and females both present with incontinentia pigmenti?

A

No, only female infants will present with this x-linked dominant disorder, since it is lethal in hemizygous males

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4
Q

Describe the appearance of the first phase of skin lesions in incontinentia pigmenti

A

inflammatory vesicles and bullae all over the trunk and extremities

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5
Q

Supravalvular aortic stenosis, hypersensitivity to loud sounds, major interest and enthusiasm for music, difficulty with certain food textures/clothing textures, hypercalcemia, and mild to moderate intellectual disability =

A

Williams syndrome

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6
Q

Williams syndrome buzz words

A

outgoing social personality
mild intellectual disability
psych issues
aortic stenosis
liking music

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7
Q

“Cocktail party personality” think

A

Williams syndrome

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8
Q

Cause of Williams Syndrome

A

sporadic microdeletion on chromosome 7

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9
Q

Elfin like facies think

A

Williams Syndrome

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10
Q

Williams syndrome genetics

A

microdeletion on chromosome 7

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11
Q

A child has unusual facial features, short stature, pulmonic stenosis, bleeding problems and skeletal malformations but normal or only very mildly impaired intellectual ability. What syndrome does this child have?

A

Noonan Syndrome

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12
Q

Blank is a genetic disorder of connective tissue and is associated with aortic disection/weakness of the aorta, dislocation of the eye’s lens, being tall, and often have pectus deformities and scoliosis.

A

Marfan syndrome

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13
Q

Blank is a systemic vasculitis presenting with a purpuric rash and nephritis

A

IgA vasculitis

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14
Q

What are the PTT and PT in Hemophilia A?

A

PT/INR is normal
PTT is prolonged

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15
Q

In immune thrombocytopenia, what are the PT/INR and PTT?

A

Normal!

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16
Q

What are the PT/INR, PTT and platelets in DIC? (low/normal/high?)

A

PT/INR, PTT are prolonged
and plts are all low

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17
Q

In EBV mono, is it the anterior or posterior cervical lymph nodes that typically get swollen?

A

posterior

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18
Q

Conjunctivitis, exudative pharyngitis, and a morbilliform rash in the summer think

A

adenovirus

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19
Q

Who is most likely to get osteosarcomas?

A

adolescents during growth spurt

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20
Q

Most common presenting symptoms/findings for osteosarcoma

A

pain
swelling, that you can feel on exam

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21
Q

Does an osteoid osteoma usually cause persistent or intermittent pain?

A

Persistent

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22
Q

Stereotypical hand wringing is seen in this syndrome

A

Rett syndrome

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23
Q

Rett syndrome

A

= regression of motor and language milestones and acquired microcephaly starting around age 1, seen in girls

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24
Q

How to treat a digitalis/digoxin overdose:

A

Digoxin-specific Fab antibodies

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25
Q

What is a scotoma?

A

an aura or blindspot obstructing part of your vision

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26
Q

Electrolyte abnormality seen in digoxin toxicity

A

hyperkalemia

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27
Q

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity

A

nausea
vomiting
abdominal pain
scotomos/alterations in color vision
confusion, headache and weakness
ARRHYTHMIAS***
hyperkalemia

will occur about 6 hours post ingestion

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28
Q

Med used to treat acute dystonic reactions

A

benztropine

(acute dystonic reaction = involuntary contractions of the muscles of the face and extremities that occurs after taking an antipsychotic)

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29
Q

Drug you should give a child who presents with a beta blocker or calcium blocker ingestion

A

glucagon

will raise glucose and HR

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30
Q

What causes anovulatory cycles during the first two years following menarche?

A

An immature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis
There is an absence of a mid cycle surge of LH, and so ovulation does not occur

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31
Q

The normal mid-cycle surge of LH leads to ovulation and the development of

A

the corpus luteum

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32
Q

What is the job of the corpus luteum?

A

it’s job is to make the uterus a healthy place for a fetus to grow

so it releases progesterone after ovulation to support a new pregnancy if that occurs

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33
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

it is a temporary gland structure that forms from the empty follicle left behind after ovulation

it produces progesterone

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34
Q

Low levels of DHEAS (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) indicate

A

adrenal insufficiency

(measuring DHEAS levels is a way of measuring steroid levels in the body)

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35
Q

Low levels of IGF-1 and IGF-binding protein 3 are associated with this deficiency

A

growth hormone deficiency

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36
Q

In the menstrual cycle, there is a mid-cycle surge of

A

LH

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37
Q

Threshold for when to start phototherapy for a high risk infant at 48 hours of life:

A

11

so anything over 11 start photo

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38
Q

At 24 hours of life, what is the threshold at which to start phototherapy for a low risk infant?

A

12

so bili > 12 at 24 hours of life, start photo

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39
Q

Threshold for starting phototherapy in a low risk infant at 48 hours of life

A

> 15

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40
Q

Threshold for starting phototherapy in a low risk infant at 72 hours of life:

A

bili > 18, start photo

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41
Q

Which infants are in the low risk category when using bili tool?

A

Infants born at 38 weeks, 0 days or greater, and without risk factors

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42
Q

Which infants are in the medium risk category when using bilitool?

A

Infants who are well, without risk factors born at 35 weeks zero days to 37 weeks 6 days gestation

or

Infants born at 38 weeks, zero days or greater but who do have risk factors

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43
Q

Which infants are in the high risk group when using bilitool?

A

Infants born at 35 weeks, zero days to 37 weeks, 6 days WITH risk factors

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44
Q

Average max bilirubin level reached by full term ifnants

A

5-9 mg/dL (lower than I thought), usually peaking at 72-96 hours (3-4 days) of life

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45
Q

To get secreted, bilirubin must be

A

conjugated (so that it is water soluble and is able to be excreted in the bile)

(of note, bilirubin is NOT normally excreted in urine)

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46
Q

Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is always

A

pathologic

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47
Q

Acholic (pale, putty colored) stools means there is an absence of blank in the stool

A

absence of bile in the stool

(this is due to biliary obstruction)

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48
Q

Two ways to define direct (conjugated) hyperbilirubinemia

A

20% or more of the total bili
or direct bili > 2

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49
Q

What is “bronze baby” syndrome?

A

= refers to when neonates with a high DIRECT bili who are put under phototherapy get a dark, brownish-gray discoloration of the skin

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50
Q

A double volume exchange transfusion should be considered when a neonate has a hemolytic process and the cord bilirubin is greater than

A

5 mg/dL

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51
Q

Name some complications of exchange transfusions:

A

thrombocytopenia
coagulopathy (bleeding)
portal vein thrombosis
NEC
hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
graft vs host reactions
infection
arrhythmias (not sure why for this one)

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52
Q

Healthy low risk infant exchange transfusion level at 24 hours of life

A

19

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53
Q

Exchange transfusion level for low risk infant at 48 hours of age

A

22

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54
Q

Exchange transfusion level for low risk infant at 72 hours of age

A

24

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55
Q

Exchange transfusion level for low risk infant at GREATER than 72 hours of age

A

25

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56
Q

For high risk infants, what is the exchange transfusion level at 24 hours of life?

A

15

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57
Q

For high risk infants, what is the exchange transfusion level at 48 hours of life?

A

17

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58
Q

For high risk infants, what is the exchange transfusion level at 72 hours of life?

A

18.5

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59
Q

For high risk infants, what is the phototherapy threshold at 24 hours of life?

A

8

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60
Q

For high risk infants, what is the phototherapy threshold at 48 hours of life?

A

11

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61
Q

For high risk infants, what is the phototherapy threshold at 72 hours of life?

A

13.5

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62
Q

For an infant born at 37 weeks, 2 days gestation with a positive DAT and ABO incompatibility, what should you do when their 48 hour bilirubin comes back at 12.5?

A

The key is this infant is in the HIGH risk group of infants

so photo needs to be started at any bili level > 11 at 48 hours

so start phototherapy.

oh, and ALWAYS check a direct bili “in any case of pathologic jaundice.”

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63
Q

According to MEDSTUDY, the most common cause of bacterial diarrhea is

A

campylobacter jejuni

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64
Q

Long term complications of a campylobacter jejuni diarrheal illness include

A

reactive arthritis
GBS (guillain-barre syndrome)

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65
Q

The most common cause of bacterial diarrhea in the United States is

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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66
Q

What shape is salmonella

A

rod shaped bacillus

bacillus i think basically just means rod shaped……

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67
Q

Is salmonella gram pos or gram neg?

A

gram neg

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68
Q

Tx for campylobacter jejuni diarrhea

A

macrolides (like azithromycin)

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69
Q

A 7 year has bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, as do his siblings, after consuming chicken at a barbecue. Stool culture shows spiral-shaped, gram negative bacilli. What bacteria is causing this illness?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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70
Q

Blank is a spiral or helical shaped gram negative bacilli that causes food borne diarrheal illness

A

Campylobacter jejuni

sounds kind of spirally

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71
Q

Sclerotic destruction in a sunburst pattern =

A

osteosarcoma

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72
Q

what does sclerosis mean

A

hardening

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73
Q

sunburst think

A

osteosarcoma

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74
Q

Blank is a benign bone lesion that usually presents with nocturnal pain

A

osteoid osteoma

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75
Q

An oval metaphyseal radiolucent lesion surrounding by sclerotic bone =

A

an osteoid osteoma

smooth borders

it’s benign

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76
Q

An osteochondroma is a benign tumor that typically occurs where? What does it look like on x-ray?

A

distal femur
proximal tibia (so the knee area)

or the proximal humerus

“multiple broad-based bony projections” on x-ray

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77
Q

Lytic, multilaminar periosteal elevation =

A

Ewing Sarcoma

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78
Q

Where does Ewing sarcoma usually occur?

A

long bones

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79
Q

What is Blount disease?

A

It’s when there is a slowly progressive genu varum deformity of one leg.

more common in black children.

it’s a disease that affects the growth plate around the knee, where one side (the medial side) of the growth plate just stops growing, but the outside continues to grow normally

can be seen in babies, kids or adolescents it seems like

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80
Q

Knee pain + leg that gradually “keeps getting more bowed” =

A

Blount disease

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81
Q

Exam in Blount disease

A

genu varum deformity on affected side/knee
tibial torsion below this deformity
leg length discrepancy

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82
Q

How to remember genu valgum

A

valGUM

gum makes your knees STICK TOGETHER

knock kneed

because of the gum that is sticking your knees together

83
Q

bowed legs means your knees are close together or far apart

A

far apart

84
Q

latin name for bow legs

A

genu varum

85
Q

latin name for knock knees

A

genu valgum

GUM makes your knees stick together

86
Q

X-ray in Blount disease will show

A

a prominent medial metaphyseal angulation (beaking) of the tibia on the side that has the bow leg

87
Q

Blount disease is also called

A

tibia vara

Tibia vara: A condition that is characterized by disturbance of normal growth in the inner part of the upper tibia. Tibia vara causes a bowlegged gait and can impair the knees significantly. It is most common in children of African descent.

88
Q

What is Tularemia?

A

“rabbit fever”

caused by francisella tularensis, a gram neg bacillus found in tics, rabbits and other animals in Arkansas, MIssouri and Oaklahoma

can cause a wide range of symptoms, including eschars

89
Q

Treatment for tularemia

A

gent x 10 days

or stretomycin but who the heck uses that

alternatives would be cipro or doxy. just think gram neg, need something with gram neg coverage

except FYI, carbopenams don’t work here

90
Q

Sudden onset fever/chills with an irregular ulcer in Arkansas, Missouri or Oklahoma in a boy who has a bunny think

A

Tularemia

91
Q

Should healthy/immunocompetent children get the varicella vaccine if there is an immunocompromised relative at home?

A

yes

92
Q

If a child who just got a varicella vaccine develops a varicella like rash, and has an immunocompromised relative at home, how should you advise them?

A

the immunocompromised relative needs to avoid direct contact with the varicella rash child until all lesions have crusted over

93
Q

Most common side effect of the varicella vaccine

A

a varicella like rash

94
Q

The most common cause of bacterial arthritis (aka septic joint) is

A

staph aureus

95
Q

In a septic joint, the synovial fluid WBC count is usually over

A

50,000 WBCs

96
Q

The most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

97
Q

Elevation of blank will confirm a diagnosis of CAH

A

17-OHP (17-alpha-hydroxyprogesterone)

98
Q

Peak incidence of ALL is at these ages

A

age 2-5

99
Q

Almost all childhood ALL develops from what kind of cells

A

b-cell precursors

aka immature b cells

so it would be very rare for it to be from mature b cells (1%)

about 14% are t-cell lineage instead

100
Q

Ages that would be poor prognostic indicator in ALL

A

age less than 1
or age greater than 10

101
Q

Multinucleated giant cells on Wright stain indicates

A

HSV

102
Q

What illness does clostridium perfringens cause? What type of bacteria is it?

A

causes vomiting and diarrhea (food poisoning)

it’s a gram positive rod

103
Q

clue cells and malodorous vaginal discharge =

A

BV

104
Q

Tenosynovitis-dermatitis syndrome is caused by

A

Neisseria GONORRHOEAE

not meninigitidiis

Tenosynovitis-dermatitis syndrome is a form of disseminated gonococcal (GONOCOCCAL) disease

105
Q

Is EBV (Epstein Barr virus) DNA present in the tumor cells of most Burkitt’s NHL?

A

In Africa, YES (present in 95%)
But in the US, the answer is actually no. Only present in 15-20% of cases.

106
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is what type of lymphoma?

A

NHL (non-hodgkins lymphoma)

107
Q

Most cases of Burkitt’s lymphoma present in what part of the body?

A

in Peyer patches within the GI tract, most commonly at the ileocecal junction

108
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Peyer’s patches are groupings of lymphoid follicles in the mucus membrane that lines your small intestine.

109
Q

In pediatrics specifically, are most cases of NHL (non-hodgkin lymphoma) low or high grade?

A

high grade
with RAPID cell turnover

for ex–Burkitt’s lymphoma

110
Q

How does Burkitt lymphoma in children usually present ?

A

abodominal mass (most commonly at the location of the ileocecal valve), and N/V

111
Q

iron is mostly absorbed where

A

the duodenum
and a little bit in the proximal jejunum

112
Q

tx for giardia

A

metronidazole

113
Q

Sweat chloride levels blank or higher are considered abnormal

A

> 60

114
Q

B12 is absorbed where? what is its absorption dependent on?

A

ileum

needs intrinsic factor to be absorbed

115
Q

spiral fractures of the long bones think

A

NAT

116
Q

posterior rib fracture think

A

NAT

117
Q

Infantile Cortical Hyperostosis (aka Caffey disease)

A

= an AD disease with incomplete penetrance that causes changes to the bones between the ages of neonate and 24 months. causes fever, inflammation, pain and swelling of the bones, often involves the mandible, and inflammatory markers will be up.

will see cortical thickening and subperiosteal new bone formation on xray.

will resolve by age 2!

and will start before age 6 mo.

118
Q

How to differentiate between NAT and infantile cortical hyperostosis

A

infantile cortical hyperostosis (aka Caffey disease) will have mandible involvement almost always

119
Q

Symptoms of infantile cortical hyperostosis (Caffey disease)

A

extreme irritability, fever, soft tissue swelling over different areas of bone

usually involves the mandible

120
Q

Do infantile cortical hyperostosis pts get recurrent fractures?

A

No.

121
Q

What is Shwachman-Diamond syndrome?

A

= an AR disorder that causes exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and subsequent FTT, neutropenia (can also have other cytopenias) and subsequent recurrent infections, and often skeletal deformities

122
Q

bifid thumbs, repeated bacterial and fungal infections, FTT and frequent foul-smelling, greasy stools with a normal sweat chloride level =

A

Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome

123
Q

Sweat chloride level in Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is

A

normal

124
Q

Normal sweat chloride level

A

<40 mmol/L

125
Q

neutropenia + pancreatic exocrine insufficiency think

A

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome

126
Q

The second most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (after CF) in children is

A

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome

(an AR disorder that causes neutropenia and bifid thumbs as well)

127
Q

Why do Shwachman-Diamond syndrome patients get repeated bacterial and fungal infections?

A

due to severe neutropenia

128
Q

Fat malabsorption, skeletal anomalies, and repeated infections due to neutropenia think

A

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome

129
Q

recurrent epistaxis + vascular malformations of the lung, CNS, liver and GI tract think

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

(also called Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)

130
Q

What is Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia? (aka Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)

A

= an AD disorder where you get bleeding problems and vascular malformations in the internal organs including the lungs, CNS, liver and GI tract.

you get lots of telangiectasias, but they may not show up until adolescence

131
Q

What are telangiectasias

A

= small, widended blood vessels on the skin

usually harmless but can be associated with various diseases

132
Q

The danger of hemorrhagic telangiectasia (aka Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome) is….

A

you can have an arteriovenous malformation that causes pulmonary hemorrhage, or in CNS or GI tract.

133
Q

Testicular exam in teenage male with fragile X syndrome will show

A

macroorchidism

134
Q

Fragile X syndrome is caused by what, genetically speaking

A

expansion of a trinucleotide repeat in the FMR1 gene on the X-chromosome

135
Q

Testicular exam in teenage male with Klinefelter syndrome will show

A

small testes

136
Q

Why do teenage boys with Klinefelter syndrome have gynecomastia and small testes?

A

Becuase of decreased testosterone production

137
Q

Is Klinefelter syndrome associated with cognitive delays?

A

No! intelligence and cognition are totally normal

138
Q

A port wine stain is seen in this syndrome

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome

139
Q

Almost all children with neurofibromatosis type 1 will have this skin finding

A

cafe au lait spots

140
Q

3 major features of Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

port-wine stain
leptomeningeal angiomas
glaucoma

all due to blood vessel abnormalities

141
Q

Hyperphagia think

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

142
Q

How do neonates with Prader-Willi syndrome initially present?

A

With significant neonatal hypotonia and difficulty feeding

143
Q

Chorioretinitis in the neonate suggests either of these two congenital infections

A

CMV
toxo

144
Q

MED study says to give benzos before phenorbarb for neonatal seizures

A

WTF

145
Q

Normal RDW =

A

12-15%

(RDW = red cell distribution width)

146
Q

RDW in iron deficiency anemia vs thalassemia

A

Elevated RDW in iron deficiency anemia

normal RDW in thalasemia

147
Q

Nontyphoidal salmonella mainly causes

A

gastroenteritis

148
Q

Typhoidal Salmonella mainly causes

A

systemic illness with little to no diarrhea

149
Q

Fever with relative bradycardia think

A

Salmonella typhi

150
Q

How to remember DTap before Tdap

A

D before T

DTaP up until age 7, then at age 7 or older switch to Tdap

151
Q

When to give tetanus immunoglobulin in addition to the tetanus vaccine

A

when the wound is dirty and a child has had LESS than 3 tetanus vaccines in their lifetime (or vaccine history is unknown)

152
Q

What is triple A syndrome?

A

Achalasia
Alacrima (reduced or absent tears when crying)
adrenal insufficiency

153
Q

Etox lesions usually occur when

A

2nd or 3rd day of life

154
Q

At 2-3 days of life a well appearing infant has a rash with diffuse, yellow papules and pustules surrounded by large, erythematous rings on the trunk, face and extremities. The rash is most likely

A

Etox

155
Q

Miliaria crystallina

A

= a superficial blockage of the eccrine (sweat) glands in a baby that resutls in diffuse very shallow “vesicles” that desquamate with light pressure

cooling the baby down helps

it will also self resolve

156
Q

Transient neonatal pustular melanosis

A

= a benign rash that is present at birth.

= pustules on a NON erythematous base that transform into scaly, hyperpigmented macules

157
Q

“Snuffles” + maculopapular rash (especially on palms and soles) in a neonate think

A

congenital syphilis

the snuffles are nasal secretions actually filled with the spirochete bacteria

158
Q

Late signs (show up after age 2) of congenital syphilis

A

frontal bossing (really big prominent forehad)
saddle nose
short maxilla

also can have Hutchinson teeth (triangular, peg like permanant teeth )
and saber shins (anterior bowing of the tibia)
and deafness

159
Q

Giant platelets and thrombocytopenia

A

= Bernard-Soulier syndrome

AR

the platelets don’t work properly–the cannot aggregate correctly because of a deficiency of glycoprotein 1b in their membrane

presents with severe mucocutaneous bleeding starting in infancy

160
Q

A 6 month old with B-thal has a fever and her blood culture is positive for a GNR. Which organism is most likely causing her illness?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

this is because it’s more common in babies and children with iron overload / those who are transfusion dependent

161
Q

Blank disease is caused by impaired uptake of copper

A

Menkes disease

also called kinky hair disease

162
Q

What is Menkes disease? Who gets it?

A

= a rare x-linked recessive disease caused by a mutation in the Menkes gene, leading to impaired uptake of copper

only boys get it

163
Q

Menkes disease prognosis

A

Unfortunately very poor

progressive neurologic decline and seizures by 2-3 months of age

most patients will die around age 2

can cause subdural and retinal hemorrhages as well

164
Q

Syndrome characterized by multiple hamartomas of the skin, mucous membraines, breast and thyroid

A

Cowden syndrome

mutation in the PTEN tumor suppressor gene

165
Q

severe congenital neutropenia think

A

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome

166
Q

What is Hyper-IgE, aka Job syndrome?

A

= a mutation in a transcription activator that leads to multisystem involvement

patients get:
-recurrent staph infections
-chronic dermatitis
-skeletal abnormalities
-pneumatoceles after any pulmonary infection
-retained primary teeth (as in like, two rows of teeth)
-IgE levels are also super elevated early in life

167
Q

Recurrent “cold abscesses” (abscesses without pus) caused by staph aureus and strep pneumo think

A

Job syndrome (aka hyper IgE syndrome)

168
Q

Recurrent abscesses without redness or pain think

A

Job syndrome (Hyper IgE syndrome)

these are “cold abscesses”

169
Q

A 10 yo has an asymmetric face, broad nose, prominent forehead, triangular jaw, two rows of teeth (because their adult teeth came in but their baby ones haven’t been lost yet), hyperextensible joints, scoliosis, and recurrent skin infections. The diagnosis is

A

Job syndrome (aka hyper IgE syndrome)

170
Q

The main organism responsible for the skin infections in Job syndrome is

A

Staph aureus

171
Q

Lab abnormalities in Job syndrome (aka hyper IgE syndrome)

A

IgE level elevated early in life (can be normal later on actually)

eosinophilia

172
Q

Is a high level of IgE needed to make the diagnosis of Hyper IgE syndrome (aka Job syndrome)?

A

No it’s actually not
since IgE levels can be normal especially as kids get towards adulthood

173
Q

Besides Job syndrome, what else could cause a high level of IgE?

A

parasitic infections
atopic dermatitis

174
Q

Persistent posterior fontanelle, umbilical hernia and prolonged jaundice think

A

hypothyroidism

175
Q

The posterior fontanelle normally closes by

A

4 mo of age

176
Q

Name 2 causes of a large posterior fontanelle

A

hypothyroidism
or increased ICP

177
Q

What is caput succendaneum?

A

= edema/soft tissue swelling of the scalp

two words so can be in two areas
aka crosses suture lines

178
Q

Does a cephalohematoma cross suture lines?

A

NO
since blood is located beneath the periosteum (outer surface of the skull)

179
Q

When are cephalohematomas the biggest?

A

They usually enlarged over the first 2-3 days of life
and can take weeks (or even months) to resolve

180
Q

In Myasthenia Gravis, autoantibodies are attacking what exactly?

A

the acetylcholine receptor

181
Q

Antibodies attacking the acetylcholine receptor think

A

myasthenia gravis

182
Q

Name an oral anticholinesterase medication that is used to treat myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine

it increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the acetylcholine receptor, by blocking acetylcholinesterase

so it’s an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

183
Q

Medstudy does not want solid foods introduced before age

A

6 months

184
Q

A newborn girl presents with virilization, no salt wasting, and hypertension. What is the diagnosis?

A

CAH

Specifically, 11-B-hydroxylase deficiency

185
Q

CAH with virilization and hypertension =

A

11-B-hydroxylase deficiency

186
Q

You find a hydrocele in a 2 month old. When should the child undergo repair if it persists?

A

age 1 year

(if it’s a noncommunicating hydrocele, it would usually resolve before age 1)

187
Q

When should an inguinal hernia be repaired?

A

as soon as it’s diagnosed

188
Q

Do noncommunicating hydroceles in newborn male infants usually resolve on their own?

A

yup
any hydrocele that is still present at 1 year of age should be surgically repaired

189
Q

Clue cells think

A

BV

190
Q

Epithelial cells that appear granular and stippled with ragged borders on saline wet-prep microscopy =

A

= clue cells

… = BV

191
Q

Blank is a clinical syndrome where normal vaginal flora (Lactobacillus) gets replaced with anaerobes, Gardnerella vaginalis and mycoplasma hominis

A

=BV

192
Q

homogenous, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, and a fishy odor that is present with a drop of 10% KOH is added to a sample of the discharge =

A

BV

193
Q

A 1 month old infant presents with erythema of the scalp with a greasy scale. The most likely diagnosis is

A

Seborrhea

194
Q

What causes seborrheic dermatitis? What is the informal name for it?

A

Also called cradle cap

Usually happens in infants in the first two months of life. It’s caused by lingering effects of maternal hormones on sebaceous glands. Improves on its own.

195
Q

How to treat cradle cap (aka sebhorrhea):

A

usually asymptomatic and will resolve on its own, but, can treat with gentle shampooing with selenium sulfide or ketoconazole shampoo, or can use an emollient (moisterizer basically) to help remove the scales

can also show up on face and body, not just scalp

196
Q

Is seborrheic dermatitis in infants usually asymptomatic?

A

yup

197
Q

In the case of a fungal line infection, can you “treat through” and clear the line with antifungals or do you have to remove the line?

A

MUST remove the line

198
Q

What cardiac condition is associated with Williams syndrome?

A

supravalvular aortic stenosis

199
Q

How to treat chlamydia trachomatis urethritis

A

doxy 100 mg BID x 7 days
or, azithro 1 g single dose (but higher rate of tx failure with this, atleast in men)

200
Q

What is renal tubular acidosis?

A

= a metabolic acidosis caused by a defect (often genetic) in renal tubule function, where the kidney is not able to hang onto enough bicarb

there are multiple types of RTA, but all will involve a normal anion gap (as in, non gap metabolic acidosis) and all will involve hypercholoremia

201
Q

RTA is either due to a problem where the kidneys can’t hang on to enough bicarcb, or, where the kidneys hang on to too much

A

H+

202
Q

Name the 3 types of RTA

A

Type 1
Type 2
Type 4

Type 3 is NOT a thing and does NOT EXIST so never pick that as an answer

203
Q

Metabolic disorder that causes clots and strokes

A

homocystinuria

204
Q

Why does homocystinuria cause clots and stroke?

A

high levels of homocysteine cause damage to blood vessels

Pediatric Boards (9 decks)

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