MED: Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What features indicate a moderate acute asthma exacerbation?

A

PEFR >50-75% of the patient’s best or predicted score

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2
Q

What features indicate a severe acute asthma exacerbation?

A
  • PEFR 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted score
  • RR ≥ 25
  • HR ≥ 110
  • Inability to complete sentences in one breath.
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3
Q

What features indicate a life-threatening acute asthma exacerbation?

A
  • PEFR <33% of the patient’s best or predicted score.
  • SpO₂ <92% - (PaCO₂ will be normal, if rises, then near-fatal)
  • PaO₂ <8kPa.
  • Absence of audible breath sounds over the chest (silent chest).
  • Cyanosis (usually of the lips).
  • Reduced respiratory effort.
  • New-onset arrhythmia.
  • Exhaustion.
  • Reduced GCS
  • Hypotension.
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4
Q

What features indicate a near fatal acute asthma exacerbation?

A

Raised PaCO₂ (>6kPa) and/or need for mechanical ventilation

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5
Q

What are the investigations for an acute exacerbation of asthma?

A

PEFR or FEV1:

  • Used to assess severity and aid in decision making about treatment strategies / admitting to hospital.
  • In an acute setting, PEFR is often easier.

SpO₂ measurement using a pulse oximeter:

  • Normal is >94%
  • SpO₂ <92% suggests exacerbation is life-threatening and requires urgent treatment
  • Also associated with an increased risk of hypercapnia

ABG:

  • Indicated if patient’s SpO₂ is <92% or PEFR is ≤30% of best or predicted
  • ABG measurement includes PaO₂ and PaCO₂.
  • Hypercapnia (PaCO₂ >6kPa) suggests that a patient’s attack is near-fatal
  • Majority of patients will have a respiratory alkalosis, but if the patient becomes hypercapnic they are likely to become acidotic. In very severe cases this can result in metabolic acidosis.
  • VBG may be used if ABG is not possible

Chest X-ray:

  • Generally required unless another diagnosis such as pneumonia is suspected.
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6
Q

Describe the management of an acute exacerbation of asthma

A

Admission to hospital?:

  • Near-fatal or life-threatening admitted
  • Severe admitted if fail to respond to initial treatment

Oxygen therapy:

  • If acutely unwell > 15L via a non-rebreathe mask
  • Can then be titrated down to a flow rate where they are able to maintain a SpO₂ 94-98%
  • Nasal cannulae and Venturi masks may also be used

High-dose inhaled short acting beta₂-agonist (SABA) e.g. salbutamol:

  • NO features of life-threatening or near-fatal asthma > standard pressurised metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) or oxygen-driven nebulizer
  • WITH features of a life-threatening exacerbation > nebulised
  • If patient doesn’t respond to initial dose of SABA via inhaler, nebulisation should be considered

40-50mg prednisolone orally (PO) daily:,

  • Continued for at least five days or until patient recovers from attack
  • Also continue normal medication routine including inhaled corticosteroids.

Nebulised ipratropium bromide:

  • In patients with severe or life-threatening asthma, or who have not responded to SABA and corticosteroid treatment
  • Can be given 0.5mg 4-6 hourly

Magnesium sulphate // Aminophylline:

  • IV or nebulised mag sulph is treatment option in severe or life-threatening exacerbation if haven’t responded to initial treatment
  • IV aminophylline considered in near-fatal or life-threatening exacerbation

Mechanical ventilation:

  • Severe fatigue, cardiovascular compromise and pneumothorax may be useful in decision making about mechanical ventilation

Follow up:

  • RV patient situation and treatment plan including:
  • Any possible triggers for the attack.
  • Inhaler use and technique.
  • Optimisation of treatment and a plan for preventing further exacerbations.
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7
Q

What are causes of an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A
  • Bacterial infection - Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella, Strep pneumoniae
  • Viral infection - Rhinovirus, influenzae, RSV
  • Eosinophilic inflammation
  • Environmental factors such as air pollution
  • Psychological factors such as anxiety and panic attacks
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8
Q

What is the modified Anthonisen criteria?

A

Diagnosis of exacerbation of COPD made if at least 2 major symptoms or at least one major and one minor symptom:

  • Major symptoms - dyspnoea, increased sputum volume, increased sputum purulence
  • Minor symptoms - cough, wheeze, nasal discharge, sore throat, pyrexia
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9
Q

What are the investigations for an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

Bloods:

  • FBC
  • Urea and electrolytes
  • Theophylline levels if the patient is on it
  • Serial ABGs to monitor for the development of Type 2 respiratory failure
  • A PaO2 of < 7 kPa and a pH level of < 7.35 are indications that the patient should continue to be managed in hospital

Chest X-ray:

  • Overt changes such as opacification and oedema should prompt a reconsideration of the diagnosis

ECG:

  • Helps to exclude acute ischaemia and/or comorbid cardiac dysfunction

Microbiological investigations:

  • Sputum sample for microscopy and culture if sputum purulent
  • Blood cultures if pyrexia present

In addition, the following tests should be done if the corresponding diagnosis is suspected:

  • D-dimer – pulmonary embolism
  • Cardiac troponins - myocardial infarction
  • BNP - heart failure
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10
Q

Describe the management of an acute exacerbation of COPD

A

1. Provision of respiratory support

Prior to availability of ABG results, all patients provided with supplemental oxygen titrated to achieve target sats of 88-92%. Supplemental oxygen can be provided via either:

  • A 24% Venturi mask at 2-3 L/min
  • A 28% Venturi mask at 4 L/min
  • Nasal cannulae at 1-2 L/min

ABG measurements should be taken upon arrival in hospital and repeated after 30-60 minutes. If the pCO2 and pH values are normal, target oxygen saturation can be adjusted to 94-98%. However, a target of 88-92% should be maintained if the patient has:

  • History of previous Type 2 respiratory failure requiring NIV or intermittent positive pressure ventilation
  • Oxygen saturation below 94% when clinically stable
  • Long-standing hypercapnia – raised pCO2 but with a pH of ≥ 7.35 and/or a bicarbonate level of > 28 mmol/mol

Patients with persistent hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis despite optimal medical management need to be started on NIV. NIV is indicated if the following features are present 60 minutes after optimal supplemental oxygen and bronchodilation have been given:

  • Acidosis - pH < 7.35
  • Hypercapnia - pCO2 > 6.5
  • Respiratory rate > 23

Improvement in pH and reduction of RR within the first 4 hours are key indicators of NIV success, otherwise, escalation to invasive mechanical ventilation (IMV) should be considered, especially if the following features are present:

  • Imminent respiratory arrest
  • Severe respiratory distress
  • Failure of NIV - persistent acidosis (pH < 7.25) and tachypnoea (RR > 35)
  • Persistent or worsening acidosis (pH < 7.15)
  • Depressed consciousness (GCS < 8)

Escalation to IMV may be deemed inappropriate after considering the patient’s clinical status and wishes. In such cases, if NIV is adding to the patient’s discomfort it should be discontinued and palliative care measures started.

2. Pharmacological management

Bronchodilation

  • SABA and/or SAMA should be used initially
  • Can be delivered via inhaler or nebuliser driven by air
  • Patients’ LABA, LAMA and/or ICS inhalers should be continued
  • NICE recommends that IV theophylline may be used if the response is inadequate and levels should be checked 24 hours after commencing treatment

Corticosteroids

  • 5-day course of oral prednisolone

Antibiotics:

  • Given to patients who have all 3 of the major symptoms or have 2 major symptoms with increasing sputum purulence being one of them or require mechanical ventilation (invasive and non-invasive)
  • Choice of antibiotic – penicillin e.g. amoxicillin, macrolides e.g. clarithromycin and tetracyclines e.g. doxycycline

3. Optimising the patient for discharge

  • Measurement of spirometry
  • Optimisation of maintenance bronchodilator therapy
  • Satisfactory pulse oximetry and ABGs in patients who have had respiratory failure
  • Confirmation that the patient has returned to their functional baseline
  • Arrangement for follow-up and home care e.g. nurse visits

4. Prevention of exacerbations

  • Smoking cessation
  • Influenza and pneumococcal vaccination
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation - integrated programme consisting of supervised exercise training, smoking cessation, nutritional counselling and educating patients about self-management of their disease
  • Vitamin D supplementation
  • Augmentation of long-acting bronchodilation with anti-inflammatory therapy - ICS, Roflumilast (alternative to ICS or added to patients already on a combination of LABA, LAMA and ICS if they have been hospitalised for an exacerbation in the past year)
  • Long-term macrolide - Azithromycin has been shown to be effective especially among non-smokers but is associated with an increased risk of bacterial resistance
  • Mucoregulators - Can be used as regular therapy in patients not receiving ICS - N-acetylcysteine and carbocysteine are common examples
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11
Q

What is Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction that occurs in response to colonisation of the respiratory tract with Aspergillus fumigatus.

It predominantly affects patients with a pre-existing medical condition like atopy, asthma, or cystic fibrosis

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12
Q

What are RFs for ABPA?

A
  • Asthma
  • CF
  • Atopy
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13
Q

What are the clinical features of ABPA?

A

Presentation is variable and may range from mild respiratory symptoms to severe symptoms like a respiratory failure

Most commonly ABPA present as worsening of asthma or cystic fibrosis symptoms. Patients often present as:

  • New or worsening cough
  • Increased sputum production - brown-black mucus plugs
  • Wheezing
  • Haemoptysis
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Dyspnea
  • Weight loss
  • Fever
  • In chronic advanced disease, finger clubbing, cyanosis, or features of cor pulmonale may be present.
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14
Q

What are the investigations for ABPA?

A

Skin test:

  • Skin testing for hypersensitivity to Aspergillus fumigatus
  • A positive skin test with a wheal and flare reaction alone is not specific

Blood tests:

  • Serum-specific IgG and IgE against Aspergillus fumigatus
  • The combination of increased total serum and specific IgE allows classic ABPA to be diagnosed
  • Serum total IgE
  • FBC - Eosinophilia

Imaging tests:

  • Chest x-ray - Upper/middle lobe infiltrates. Mucus plugging and signs of bronchiectasis may also be noted.
  • CT chest - Central bronchiectasis, mucus plugging, mucus impaction, pulmonary infiltrates and peribronchial thickening may be seen. Finger-in-glove sign showing mucoid impaction in bronchioles.
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15
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosing ABPA

A

1. Predisposing asthma or cystic fibrosis

2. Obligatory criteria

  • Type I - positive Aspergillus skin test or elevated IgE levels against Aspergillus fumigatus and
  • Elevated total IgE levels (value >1000 IU/mL)

3. Supportive criteria (minimum of two out of three):

  • Presence of precipitating or IgG antibodies against Aspergillus fumigatus in serum
  • Radiographic pulmonary opacities consistent with ABPA.
  • Total eosinophil count over 500 cells/µl in glucocorticoid naïve patients
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16
Q

What is the management of acute ABPA?

A

Patients who are symptomatic with fever, cough, increased sputum production, haemoptysis, or chest pain and on investigation shows radiographic opacities and an elevated total serum IgE

Corticosteroids:

  • Cornerstone therapy.
  • Resolution of pulmonary inflammation, pulmonary infiltrates, and it prevents irreversible lung damage.

Anti-fungal drug: itraconazole/ voriconazole:

  • Adjunctive but not primary therapy.
  • Used in adults with severe, poorly controlled asthma and ABPA who are unable to taper oral corticosteroids.
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17
Q

What is the management of ABPA in remission?

A

Patients who have been treated with oral prednisolone for acute ABPA or exacerbation and are asymptomatic/stable asthma for greater than 6 months after stopping therapy. And also no infiltrates are seen on chest x-ray with normal or mildly elevated total IgE

  • Maintenance therapy with inhaled glucocorticoids
  • Management of underlying asthma or CF
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18
Q

What is the management of end-stage fibrosis?

A

Patients have impaired respiratory function and chronic scarring on imaging studies

  • Treatment is daily oral corticosteroids given indefinitely
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19
Q

What are the complications of ABPA?

A

Acute complications:

  • Acute invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
  • Recurrent exacerbation of underlying disease namely asthma and CF

Long term complications:

  • Bronchiectasis
  • Mostly central bronchiectasis resulting in recurrent bacterial infections, haemoptysis, and chronic respiratory insufficiency.
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Chronic pulmonary aspergillosis
  • Respiratory failure
  • Pulmonary hypertension

Treatment-related complications:

  • Side effects of long-term corticosteroid therapy
  • Includes diabetes, osteopenia, and hyperlipidaemia, immune suppression, cataracts, and growth retardation
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20
Q

What are the RFs for asthma?

A
  • Personal or family history of atopy
  • antenatal factors: maternal smoking, viral infection during pregnancy (especially RSV)
  • low birth weight
  • not being breastfed
  • maternal smoking around child
  • exposure to high concentrations of allergens (e.g. house dust mite)
  • air pollution
  • ‘hygiene hypothesis’: studies show an increased risk of asthma and other allergic conditions in developed countries. Reduced exposure to infectious agents in childhood prevents normal development of the immune system resulting in a Th2 predominant response
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21
Q

What are the investigations for asthma?

A

FeNO:

  • In adults level of >= 40 parts per billion (ppb) is considered positive
  • In children a level of >= 35 parts per billion (ppb) is considered positive

Spirometry:

  • FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% (or below the lower limit of normal if this value is available) is considered obstructive

Reversibility testing:

  • In adults, a positive test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and increase in volume of 200 ml or more
  • In children, a positive test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more
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22
Q

Describe the management of asthma

A

Step 1: Newly diagnosed asthma

  • SABA

Step 2: *Not controlled on step 1 or newly-diagnosed with symptoms >= 3 / week or night-time waking

  • SABA + low dose ICS

Step 3:

  • SABA + low dose ICS + LRTA

Step 4:

  • SABA + low-dose ICS + LABA

Step 5:

  • SABA +/- LTRA
  • Switch ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART), that includes a low-dose ICS

Step 6:

  • SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART
  • OR consider changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA

Step 7:

  • SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options:
  • Increase ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART)
  • Trial additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline)
  • Seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma
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23
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

A chronic lung disease, characterised by irreversibly dilated bronchi alongside chronic bronchial inflammation and infection

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24
Q

What are the causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • Idiopathic (45%)
  • Post-infection (30%)
  • Immunodeficiency (5%)
  • COPD (4%)
  • Connective tissue diseases (4%)
  • Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillus (2.5%)
  • Ciliary dysfunction (2.5%)
  • Asthma (1.5%)
  • Inflammatory bowel disease (1%)
  • Obstruction (1%)
  • Aspiration/oesophageal reflux (1%)
  • Congenital malformation (<1%)
  • Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (<1%)
  • Diffuse panbronchiolotis (<1%)
  • Pink’s disease (<1%)
  • Yellow nail syndrome (<1%)
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25
Q

What are the clinical features of bronchiectasis?

A

Typical presentation = chronic productive cough on background of recurrent chest infections. Often lifelong non-smokers and more likely to be female

Key features:

  • Persistent productive cough (90-96%)
  • Daily sputum production (75%)
  • Sputum may be mucopurulent or purulent
  • Haemoptysis (25-50%)
  • Recurrent chest infections

Other associated features:

  • Rhinosinusitis symptoms (65-75% patients)
  • Dyspnoea (60% patients)
  • Chest pain (20-50% patients)
  • GORD (20-40% patients) - common co-morbidity in patients with bronchiectasis

O/E:

  • Crackles (70-75%)
  • Wheeze (20-35%)
  • Clubbing (2-3%)

Co-morbid conditions associated with the development of bronchiectasis:

  • Joints: rheumatoid arthritis
  • GI manifestations: inflammatory bowel disease, cystic fibrosis (malabsorption, pancreatitis), GORD
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26
Q

What are the initial investigations for suspected bronchiectasis?

A

Sputum culture:

  • May show colonising pathogens, most commonly Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Chest X-ray:

  • Majority of X-rays will be abnormal but findings are non-specific and further imaging is required
  • Also useful for ruling out other possible causes such as TB or malignancy.

Post-bronchodilator spirometry:

  • Most commonly an obstructive pattern is seen, although mixed, restrictive, and normal results are also possible.
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27
Q

What is the gold standard to diagnose bronchiectasis?

A

High-resolution CT scan or a thin section CT scan: Shows bronchial dilation:

  • Bronchoarterial ratio > 1: the internal airway lumen is larger than the adjacent pulmonary artery
  • This is often referred to as the ‘signet ring sign’
  • Lack of tapering: bronchi should taper in diameter as they travel distally from the lung hila to the periphery
  • Bronchus visible within 1cm of pleural surface: normal, non-dilated airways cannot usually be seen within 2cm of the pleura

Once bronchiectasis is confirmed:

  • FBC, serum total IgE and assessment of sensitisation to Aspergillus fumigatus - to investigate for ABPA
  • Serum IgG, IgA and IgM - to investigate for immunodeficiency

Dependant on the clinical features, further tests to help elucidate the underlying cause may be conducted including:

  • Investigations for reflux and aspiration
  • Cystic fibrosis test
  • Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia test
  • Specific antibody levels against capsular polysaccharides of Streptococcus pneumoniae
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28
Q

What is the initial management of bronchiectasis?

A
  • Identifying and treating underlying cause
  • Airway clearance techniques +/- pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Annual influenza vaccine
  • Antibiotics for exacerbations
  • Self-management plan
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29
Q

What is the management of infective exacerbations of bronchiectasis?

A
  • Collect a sputum sample - Send for microscopy, culture and sensitivity prior to commencing antibiotics.
  • Prescribe a 7-14 day course of antibiotics - follow local prescribing guidelines or prescribe amoxicillin 500mg tds or clarithromycin 500mg bd
  • Prescribe a short acting inhaled beta-2 agonist if the patient has wheeze or breathlessness in the acute phase
  • Check airway clearance technique
  • Review the patients response to antibiotics
  • If the patient is not responding to treatment, change to a different antibiotic using the sputum culture and sensitivity results as a guide

≥ 3 exacerbations in one year despite following the initial management = treatment should be escalated in a stepwise manner. The second step in management is a physiotherapy reassessment and consideration of mucoactive treatment. Beyond this, specialists may consider prescribing long-term antibiotic therapy

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30
Q

Describe the surgical management of bronchiectasis

A

When medical therapies fail to control symptoms despite being optimised by specialists, surgical management may be considered.

  • For those with localised disease, lung resection may be considered.
  • For diffuse bilateral disease, a lung transplant may be considered.

BTS specify the following criteria for lung transplantation:

  • Aged 65 years or less and
  • FEV is <30% predicted with significant clinical instability or
  • Rapid progressive deterioration despite optimal medical management
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31
Q

How is COPD diagnosed?

A
  • Post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction: FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%
  • Chest x-ray: hyperinflation, bullae, flat hemidiaphragm. Also important to exclude lung cancer
  • Full blood count: exclude secondary polycythaemia
  • Body mass index (BMI) calculation
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32
Q

How is the severity of COPD graded?

A

The severity of COPD is categorised using the FEV1

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33
Q

Describe the management of COPD

A

General management:

  • Smoking cessation advice: including offering nicotine replacement therapy, varenicline or bupropion
  • Annual influenza vaccination
  • One-off pneumococcal vaccination
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation to all people who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD

Bronchodilator therapy:

  • SABA or SAMA is first-line treatment
  • For patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators the next step is determined by whether the patient has ‘asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness’

No asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness:

  • Add LABA + LAMA

Asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness:

  • LABA + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
  • If patients remain breathless or have exacerbations offer triple therapy i.e. LAMA + LABA + ICS

Oral theophylline:

  • NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot used inhaled therapy

Oral prophylactic antibiotic therapy:

  • Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients
  • Patients should not smoke, have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations

Mucolytics:

  • ‘considered’ in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve

PDE-4 inhibitors:

  • Oral PDE-4 inhibitors such as roflumilast reduce the risk of COPD exacerbations in patients with severe COPD and a history of frequent COPD exacerbations
  • NICE recommend if: the disease is severe, defined as a FEV1 after a bronchodilator of less than 50% of predicted normal, and the person has had 2 or more exacerbations in the previous 12 months despite triple inhaled therapy with a long-acting muscarinic antagonist, a long-acting beta-2 agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid
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34
Q

What criteria determines whether a COPD patient has asthmatic/steroid responsive features?

A
  • any previous, secure diagnosis of asthma or of atopy
  • a higher blood eosinophil count
  • substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)
  • substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)
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35
Q

Describe cor pulmonale in COPD

A

Features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, loud P2

Use a loop diuretic for oedema, consider long-term oxygen therapy

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36
Q

Describe the use of LTOT in COPD

A

Patients who receive LTOT should breathe supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day.

Assess patients if any of the following:

  • Very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 < 30% predicted). Assessment should be ‘considered’ for patients with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30-49% predicted)
  • Cyanosis
  • Polycythaemia
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Raised jugular venous pressure
  • Oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air

Assessment is done by measuring ABGs on 2 occasions at least 3 weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management

Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:

  • Secondary polycythaemia
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Pulmonary hypertension

In terms of smoking, NICE advise the following:

  • Do not offer LTOT to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

NICE suggest that a structured risk assessment is carried out before offering LTOT, including:

  • The risks of falls from tripping over the equipment
  • The risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e‑cigarettes)
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37
Q

What are the complications of COPD?

A

Respiratory:

  • Acute Exacerbations
  • Pneumothorax: due to abnormal lung parenchyma and formation of bulla
  • Respiratory Failure

Cardiovascular:

  • Pulmonary Hypertension: Chronic hypoxia and vascular remodeling can lead to the development of pulmonary hypertension in individuals with COPD, increasing the risk of right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale).

Haematological:

  • Secondary polycythaemia: overproduction of red blood cells as a result of hypoxia

Other:

  • Anxiety and Depression
  • Muscle Wasting and Weakness
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38
Q

What is Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) ?

A

Now the preferred term for Churg-Strauss syndrome.

It is an ANCA associated small-medium vessel vasculitis.

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39
Q

What are the features of EGPA?

A
  • Asthma
  • Blood eosinophilia (e.g. > 10%)
  • Paranasal sinusitis
  • Mononeuritis multiplex
  • pANCA positive in 60%
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40
Q

What is extrinsic allergic alvelolitis?

A

// Also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A condition caused by hypersensitivity induced lung damage due to a variety of inhaled organic particles.

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41
Q

Describe the classification of EAA

A
  • Bird fanciers’ lung: avian proteins
  • Farmers lung: spores of Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula (formerly Micropolyspora faeni)
  • Malt workers’ lung: Aspergillus clavatus
  • Mushroom workers’ lung: thermophilic actinomycetes
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42
Q

What occupations are associated with EAA?

A
  • Farmers - particularly mushroom and potato workers, compost workers
  • Animal cleaning/breeding - particularly avian species
  • Chemical industry - working with paints, powders
  • Smelters and hard metal workers
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43
Q

What are the clinical features of EAA?

A

Acute EEA:
Typically presents, alongside a suggestive occupational/exposure history, with:

  • Cough (productive or non-productive)
  • Dyspnoea
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Chest tightness
  • Acute type 1 respiratory failure may develop in severe cases

Chronic EEA:
Presents more insidiously, alongside a suggestive occupational/exposure history, with:

  • Insidious cough/dyspnoea symptoms
  • Weight loss
  • Clubbing (50% of cases)
  • More widespread fibrotic changes mimicking idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

O/E:

  • Bilateral midzone inspiratory crepitations
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44
Q

What are the investigations for EAA?

A

Blood Tests:

  • FBC- mildly increased WCC and normocytic anaemia
  • ABG - acute hypoxia secondary to EEA may cause type 1 respiratory failure
  • Serum precipitant antibodies - if there is a known, probable precipitant (e.g. suggestive symptoms in a pigeon farmer), then measuring serum IgG antibody of the precipitant can confirm humoral response to it, and diagnosis of EEA. It can also be used to track response to treatment

Imaging:

  • CXR - may show non-specific ground-glass changes, airspace consolidation, or interstitial opacities
  • High-resolution CT chest - may be normal / common features include patchy, diffuse, symmetrical ground glass opacities, small (<5mm) centrilobular nodules, patchy air trapping on expiratory imaging, airspace consolidation
  • Changes are typically bilaterally in the mid-zones

Lung function tests:

  • In acute EEA demonstrate a restrictive picture
  • A reduction in both FEV1 and FVC, but with FEV1/FVC>80% expected
  • Chronic EEA may show features of obstructive lung disease

Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL):

  • Fluid from BAL can be analysed for causative agents and antigens to that agent
  • A negative BAL does not rule out EEA in the presence of positive lung function testing, HRCT and clinical history
  • There is also generalised lymphocytosis on BAL culture
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45
Q

Describe the management of EAA

A

Identification and avoidance of precipitating agent:

  • Symptoms should resolve following this
  • Liaison with the employer and occupational health if the agent is work-related, and with the provision of respiratory masks and other protective equipment may be necessary

Corticosteroids:

  • A trial of corticosteroids e.g. oral prednisolone can help with symptoms, mostly in patients with equivocal clinical presentation, as EEA tends to be steroid-responsive, whereas idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis does not
  • This should then be tapered over a period of several weeks
  • Patients with chronic EEA may benefit from long-term low dose prednisolone
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46
Q

What is granulomatosis with polyangiitis?

A

// Formerly known as Wegener’s granulomatosis

An ANCA-associated systemic vasculitis, typically affecting small and medium sized blood vessels.

GPA can affect any organ, but classically involves a triad of upper- and lower- respiratory tract symptoms and glomerulonephritis.

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47
Q

What are the clinical features of GPA

A

The classic triad of organ involvement includes:

1) Upper respiratory tract

  • Sinusitis
  • Nasal crusting, nasal discharge, epistaxis, nasal septal perforation, saddle nose deformity
  • Subglottic stenosis
  • May present as hoarseness or stridor.
  • Otitis media, hearing loss, ear pain.

2) Lower respiratory tract

  • Dyspnoea
  • Cough
  • Pleuritis
  • Haemoptysis
  • Pulmonary infiltrates or nodules may be seen on imaging

3) Glomerulonephritis

  • Microscopic haematuria
  • Urinary sediment
  • Typically causes a pauci-immune rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) leading to chronic kidney disease

Patients commonly experience a prodrome of non-specific systemic inflammatory symptoms such as fever, malaise, arthralgias and weight loss. This often precedes the development of more organ-specific symptoms such as rhinosinusitis, cough, dyspnoea, hearing loss, purpura, urinary sediment or neurological dysfunction

Other common organ manifestations:

1) Ocular (60%)

  • Scleritis/episcleritis
  • May present as eye pain, redness and tearing.
  • Orbital mass (often as an extension of sinus disease)
  • May present as proptosis, diplopia or visual loss.

2) Cutaneous (50%)

  • Skin lesions including leukocytoclastic angiitis (lower extremity purpura and ulceration), petechiae, nodules and vesicles

3) Neurological (15%)

  • Mononeuritis multiplex
  • Peripheral sensorimotor polyneuropathy
  • Cranial neuropathy
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48
Q

What are the investigations for GPA?

A
  • cANCA positive in > 90%, pANCA positive in 25%
  • chest x-ray: wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions
  • renal biopsy: epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule
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49
Q

Describe the management of GPA

A

Induction of remission:

  • Initial immunosuppression with a corticosteroid and a second immunosuppressive agent.
  • The choice of therapy is determined by the severity of the disease and the threat to organs and life.

For life/organ-threatening disease:

First-line therapy:

  • Methylprednisolone IV for 3-5 days (followed by oral prednisolone) and cyclophosphamide.
  • This therapy is typically given for 3-6 months to induce remission.
  • Therapy adjunct: plasmapheresis (in selected patients with severe organ involvement and non-responsive to initial induction therapy).

Second-line therapy:

  • Methylprednisolone IV for 3-5 days (followed by oral prednisolone) and rituximab IV.

For non-life/organ- threatening disease:

First-line therapy:

  • Methylprednisolone IV for 3-5 days (followed by oral prednisolone) and methotrexate (with folic acid).

Second-line therapy:

  • Oral prednisolone and cyclophosphamide.
  • Oral prednisolone and rituximab.

Maintenance of remission:
First-line therapy:

  • Prednisolone and methotrexate (with folic acid).
  • Prednisolone and azathioprine.

All therapy options should be complemented with osteoporosis prophylaxis and pneumocystis jiroveci prophylaxis.

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50
Q

What are the complications of GPA?

A

Complications as a result of active GPA:

  • Chronic kidney disease - Dialysis or renal transplant may be indicated
  • Saddle nose deformity
  • Conductive or sensorineural deafness
  • Venous thromboembolism

Treatment-related complications:

  • Infection
  • Osteoporosis
  • Bone marrow toxicity
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Malignancy - Cyclophosphamide increases the risk of bladder cancer, skin cancer, leukaemia and lymphoma.
  • Gonadal failure - Related to cyclophosphamide use.
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
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51
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

A chronic lung condition characterised by progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs.

The term IPF is reserved when no underlying cause exists.

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52
Q

What are the clinical features of IPF?

A
  • progressive exertional dyspnoea
  • bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation
  • dry cough
  • clubbing
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53
Q

How is IPF diagnosed?

A
  • spirometry: classically a restrictive picture (FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC increased)
  • impaired gas exchange: reduced transfer factor (TLCO)
  • imaging: bilateral interstitial shadowing (typically small, irregular, peripheral opacities - ‘ground-glass’ - later progressing to ‘honeycombing’) may be seen on a chest x-ray but high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice and required to make a diagnosis of IPF
  • ANA positive in 30%, rheumatoid factor positive in 10% but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease
54
Q

What is the management of IPF?

A
  • pulmonary rehabilitation
  • very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. There is some evidence that pirfenidone (an antifibrotic agent) may be useful in selected patients (see NICE guidelines)
  • many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant
55
Q

What are the RFs for lung cancer?

A

Smoking

  • Increases risk of lung ca by a factor of 10

Other factors:

  • asbestos - increases risk of lung ca by a factor of 5
  • arsenic
  • radon
  • nickel
  • chromate
  • aromatic hydrocarbon
  • cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
56
Q

Describe the classification of lung cancer

A

Non-Small Cell: (80%)

  • Squamous cell carcinoma (25%)
  • Adenocarcinoma (40%) - most common in non-smokers
  • Large cell carcinoma (10%)

Small Cell:

  • Strongly associated with smoking
  • Typically arise in the larger airways
57
Q

What features are seen O/E in lung cancer?

A
  • fixed, monophonic wheeze may be noted
  • supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy
  • clubbing
58
Q

What paraneoplastic features are seen in small cell lung cancer?

A
  • ADH
  • ACTH - not typical, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis and muscle weakness are more common than buffalo hump etc
  • Lambert-Eaton syndrome
59
Q

What paraneoplastic features are seen in squamous cell lung cancer?

A
  • parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp) secretion causing hypercalcaemia
  • clubbing
  • hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
  • hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH
60
Q

What paraneoplastic features are seen in adenocarcinoma of the lung?

A
  • gynaecomastia
  • hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
61
Q

When should a patient be referred to be assessed for lung cancer?

A

Refer to 2ww for lung cancer if they:

  • Have chest X‑ray findings that suggest lung cancer or
    -Are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis

Urgent chest X‑ray (<2 weeks) to assess for lung cancer:
People aged >40 if they have 2 or more of the following unexplained symptoms, or if they have never smoked and have 1 or more of the following unexplained symptoms:

  • cough
  • fatigue
  • shortness of breath
  • chest pain
  • weight loss
  • appetite loss

Consider anurgent chest X‑ray (< 2 weeks) to assess for lung cancer:
People aged >40 with any of the following:

  • persistent or recurrent chest infection
  • finger clubbing
  • supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy
  • chest signs consistent with lung cancer
  • thrombocytosis.
62
Q

What are the investigations for lung cancer?

A

Chest x-ray:

  • Often the first investigation done in patients with suspected lung cancer
  • 10% of patients chest x-ray was reported as normal

CT:

  • investigation of choice to investigate suspected lung cancer

Bronchoscopy:

  • this allows a biopsy to be taken to obtain a histological diagnosis sometimes aided by endobronchial ultrasound

PET scanning:

  • typically done in non-small cell lung cancer to establish eligibility for curative treatment
63
Q

Describe the management of NSCLC

A

Surgical resection:

  • Lobectomy (with hilar and mediastinal lymph node resection/sampling) is first-line for stage I or II who are medically fit for surgery
  • This surgery is done with curative intent.

Radiotherapy:

  • First-line for stage I-III disease who are not suitable for surgery.
  • This treatment is given with curative intent.

Chemotherapy:

  • Offered to stage III or IV disease to improve survival and quality of life
  • First line regimes use a combination of: Third-generation chemotherapy agent: e.g. docetaxel, paclitaxel or gemcitabine + Platinum agent: e.g. carboplatin or cisplatin

Combination therapy:

  • Adjuvant chemotherapy should be offered to patients who have undergone a complete resection
  • Adjuvant radiotherapy is offered to patients who have had a incomplete resection of their tumour
  • All patients with stage I-III disease who are not suitable for surgery should be considered for chemoradiotherapy
64
Q

Describe the management of SCLC

A

Surgery:

  • Only considered in very early stage I and II disease due to its limited success

*Limited-stage SCLC:**
// SCLC without distant metastasis (T1-4, N0-3, M0).

  • First line treatment involves:
  • 4-6 cycles of Cisplatin-based combination chemotherapy
  • Concurrent or adjunct thoracic radiotherapy is only considered if there has been a good response to chemotherapy

Extensive-stage SCLC:
// SCLC with distant metastasis (T1-4, N0-3, M1).

  • First line treatment involves:
  • Platinum-based combination therapy where the patient is reassessed for a response after each cycle (up to a maximum of 6 cycles)
  • Concurrent or adjunct thoracic radiotherapy can be considered if there has been a good response to chemotherapy at both the primary and metastatic sites.

Relapse after initial treatment:

  • For all stages of SCLC second-line therapy can be considered in those who have relapsed. This includes:
  • Further chemotherapy (maximum 6 cycles)
  • Palliative radiotherapy to control local symptoms
65
Q

Describe the complications of lung cancer

A

Local disease spread: nerve palsy; superior vena cava obstruction and pericarditis

Metastatic spread: Brain, spinal cord, bone, liver and adrenal glands are common sites

66
Q

Describe palliative care used in lung cancer

A
  • Palliative radiotherapy for symptom control
  • Endobronchial stenting or debulking for bronchial obstruction
  • Pleural drainage or aspiration for pleural effusion
  • Dexamethasone therapy for those with symptomatic brain metastasis
  • Opioid therapy to relieve cough and breathlessness
67
Q

What is mesothelioma?

A

Mesothelioma is a rare and aggressive cancer that affects the lining of the lungs, abdomen, or heart.

It is primarily caused by exposure to asbestos fibres, which can be inhaled or ingested.

68
Q

What are the clinical features of mesothelioma?

A
  • Dyspnoea, weight loss, chest wall pain
  • Clubbing
  • 30% present as painless pleural effusion
  • Only 20% have pre-existing asbestosis
  • History of asbestos exposure in 85-90%, latent period of 30-40 years
69
Q

Describe the referral pathways for mesothelioma

A

Refer to 2ww for mesothelioma:

  • Chest X‑ray findings that suggest mesothelioma.

Urgent chest X‑ray (<2 weeks) to assess for mesothelioma:
People aged 40 and over, if:
they have 2 or more of the following unexplained symptoms, or
they have 1 or more of the following unexplained symptoms and have ever smoked, or
they have 1 or more of the following unexplained symptoms and have been exposed to asbestos:

  • cough
  • fatigue
  • shortness of breath
  • chest pain
  • weight loss
  • appetite loss.

Consider an urgent chest X‑ray (<2 weeks) to assess for mesothelioma:
People aged 40 and over with either:

  • finger clubbing or
  • chest signs compatible with pleural disease.
70
Q

Describe the investigations for mesothelioma

A
  • suspicion is normally raised by a chest x-ray showing either a pleural effusion or pleural thickening
  • the next step is normally a pleural CT
  • If a pleural effusion is present fluid should be sent for MC&S, biochemistry and cytology
  • local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield (around 95%)
  • If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT then an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used
71
Q

What is the management for mesothelioma?

A
  • Symptomatic
  • Industrial compensation
  • Chemotherapy, Surgery if operable
  • Prognosis poor, median survival 12 months
72
Q

What is obesity hypoventilation syndrome?

A

A complex respiratory disorder characterized by chronic hypoventilation, obesity, and sleep-disordered breathing, particularly obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)

73
Q

What are the clinical features of OHS?

A
  • Obesity: BMI ≥30 kg/m2, often with central adiposity.
  • Daytime hypoventilation: Manifests as dyspnea, exercise intolerance, and fatigue.
  • Sleep-disordered breathing: Symptoms may include loud snoring, witnessed apneas, nocturnal choking or gasping, and excessive daytime sleepiness.
  • Morning headaches and cognitive dysfunction: These symptoms may result from chronic hypercapnia and hypoxemia.
  • Signs of RHF: Including peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and hepatomegaly, due to chronic hypoxemia and pulmonary hypertension.
74
Q

How is OHS diagnosed?

A
  • Obesity: BMI ≥30 kg/m2.
  • Hypoventilation: Daytime ABG analysis demonstrating hypercapnia and hypoxemia in the absence of other causes.
  • Sleep-disordered breathing: Polysomnography demonstrating the presence of OSA or other sleep-related breathing disorders.

Additional diagnostic tests may include pulmonary function tests, CXR, ECG, and echo to evaluate lung function, rule out alternative diagnoses, and assess the severity of the condition

75
Q

What is the management of OHS?

A
  • Weight loss: Encouraging lifestyle modifications, such as a balanced diet and regular physical activity, is crucial. Bariatric surgery may be considered in refractory cases or for patients with severe obesity.
  • Positive airway pressure therapy: CPAP or BiPAP can be used to treat OSA and nocturnal hypoventilation.
  • Oxygen therapy: Supplemental oxygen may be required for patients with persistent hypoxemia despite positive airway pressure therapy.
76
Q

What are predisposing factors for OSA?

A
  • obesity
  • macroglossia: acromegaly, hypothyroidism, amyloidosis
  • large tonsils
  • Marfan’s syndrome
77
Q

What are the clinical features of OSA?

A

The partner often complains of excessive snoring and may report periods of apnoea

Consequence:

  • daytime somnolence
  • compensated respiratory acidosis
  • hypertension
78
Q

How is sleepiness formally assessed?

A

Epworth Sleepiness Scale - questionnaire completed by patient +/- partner

Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) - measures the time to fall asleep in a dark room (using EEG criteria)

79
Q

How is OSA diagnosed?

A

Sleep studies (polysomnography) - ranging from monitoring of pulse oximetry at night to full polysomnography where a wide variety of physiological factors are measured including EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring and pulse oximetry

80
Q

What is the management of OSA?

A
  • weight loss
  • CPAP is first line for moderate or severe OSAHS
  • intra-oral devices (e.g. mandibular advancement) may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS where there is no daytime sleepiness
  • the DVLA should be informed if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness
81
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

The accumulation of air in the pleural space, resulting in the partial or complete collapse of the affected lung

82
Q

What are RFs for a pneumothorax?

A
  • pre-existing lung disease: COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, lung cancer, Pneumocystis pneumonia
    connective tissue disease: Marfan’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis
  • ventilation, including NIV
  • catamenial pneumothorax is the cause of 3-6% of spontaneous pneumothoraces occurring in menstruating women. It is thought to be caused by endometriosis within the thorax
83
Q

Describe the classification of a pneumothorax

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax:

  • Primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP): Occurs without underlying lung disease, often in tall, thin, young individuals. PSP is associated with the rupture of subpleural blebs or bullae.
  • Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (SSP): Occurs in patients with pre-existing lung disease, such as COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, or ILD

Traumatic pneumothorax:

  • Results from penetrating or blunt chest trauma, leading to lung injury and pleural air accumulation.

Iatrogenic pneumothorax:

  • Occurs as a complication of medical procedures, such as thoracentesis, central venous catheter placement, mechanical ventilation, or lung biopsy.
84
Q

What are the investigations for a pneumothorax?

A
  • Initial imaging modality is CXR in PA and lateral views - may reveal a visceral pleural line and the absence of lung markings peripheral to the line
  • If diagnosis uncertain or CXR is inconclusive > CT chest
  • Point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) can be a valuable tool for rapid bedside diagnosis, especially in cases of tension pneumothorax or in unstable patients.
85
Q

What is the management of a primary pneumothorax?

A
  • If the rim of air is <2cm and the patient is not SOB then discharge should be considered
  • Otherwise, aspiration should be attempted
  • If this fails (defined as >2 cm or still SOB) then a chest drain should be inserted
86
Q

What is the management of a secondary pneumothorax?

A
  • If patient >50yrs and rim of air is >2cm and/or patient SOB then a chest drain should be inserted.
  • Otherwise aspiration should be attempted if the rim of air is between 1-2cm. If aspiration fails (i.e. pneumothorax is still >1cm) a chest drain should be inserted.
  • All patients should be admitted for at least 24 hours
  • if the pneumothorax is <1cm guidelines suggest giving oxygen and admitting for 24 hours
87
Q

What is the management of an iatrogenic pneumothorax?

A

less likelihood of recurrence than spontaneous pneumothorax
majority will resolve with observation, if treatment is required then aspiration should be used
ventilated patients need chest drains, as may some patients with COPD

88
Q

What is the management of persistent / recurrent pneumothorax?

A

If a patient has a persistent air leak or insufficient lung reexpansion despite chest drain insertion, or the patient has recurrent pneumothoraces, then video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) should be considered to allow for mechanical/chemical pleurodesis +/- bullectomy.

89
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

A systemic granulomatous disease of unknown aetiology, characterized by the formation of non-caseating granulomas, which can affect any organ. However, the lungs and intrathoracic lymph nodes are the most commonly involved sites

90
Q

Describe the classification of sarcoidosis

A

Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of the disease characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia. It usually carries an excellent prognosis

Heerfordt’s syndrome (uveoparotid fever) there is parotid enlargement, fever and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis

91
Q

What are the clinical features of sarcoidosis?

A

Range from asymptomatic to life-threatening

Common symptoms:

  • cough
  • dyspnea
  • chest pain
  • constitutional symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and weight loss

Involvement of other organs can lead to various manifestations:

  • uveitis
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • cardiac arrhythmias
  • hepatic dysfunction
  • Skin manifestations, such as erythema nodosum and lupus pernio, are also common.
92
Q

What are the investigations for sarcoidosis?

A

CXR and CT:

  • Essential for evaluating lung involvement and can show typical findings such as bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and parenchymal infiltrates.

A chest x-ray may show the following changes:

  • stage 0 = normal
  • stage 1 = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL)
  • stage 2 = BHL + interstitial infiltrates
  • stage 3 = diffuse interstitial infiltrates only
  • stage 4 = diffuse fibrosis

Pulmonary function tests:

  • often reveal restrictive lung disease with reduced diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO).

Laboratory investigations:

  • elevated levels of serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
  • hypercalcemia, and hypercalciuria

Bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy, endobronchial ultrasound-guided transbronchial needle aspiration (EBUS-TBNA), or mediastinoscopy:

  • may be required to obtain tissue samples for histopathological examination.
93
Q

What is the management of sarcoidosis?

A

Asymptomatic // mild disease:

  • May not require treatment
  • Spontaneous remission is common

Symptomatic // progressive disease:

First line = systemic corticosteroids

  • Prednisone, starting at 20-40 mg daily, with a gradual tapering of the dose based on clinical response
  • Corticosteroids can effectively control symptoms and inflammation, but they do not cure the disease
  • Long-term use may be required for some patients, and potential side effects should be carefully monitored.

Second line:

  • Includes immunosuppressive drugs such as methotrexate, azathioprine, and mycophenolate mofetil.

Refractory cases // severe organ involvement:

  • Biologic therapies targeting TNF-α, such as infliximab or adalimumab, may be used
94
Q

What are RFs for TB?

A
  • Immunosuppression - HIV, Immunosuppressant drugs, TNFα inhibitors.
  • Diabetes mellitus, end-stage renal disease.
  • Previous lung disease (silicosis).
  • Smoking.
  • Drug abuse, alcoholism.
  • Malnutrition, poverty.
  • Certain living conditions (prisons, homeless shelters).
  • Occupational (hospitals).
95
Q

Indication for steroid treatment in sarcoidosis ?

A
  • CXR stage 2 or 3 disease + symptomatic
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Eye, heart or neuro involvement
96
Q

What are the clinical features of TB?

A

Constitutional symptoms:

  • Fever: usually gradual onset and low-grade.
  • Night sweats: maybe drenching.
  • Weight loss, anorexia, and malaise are also common.

Pulmonary tuberculosis:

  • Dyspnoea, cough (+/- haemoptysis) , chest pain.
  • Cough: over 2 to 3 weeks; initially dry, later productive.
  • Chest examination: crackles, bronchial breath sounds, or maybe normal.

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis:

  • Pleura, bones, lymphatic system, liver, central nervous system, urogenital tract, gastrointestinal tract, and the skin.
  • Symptoms based on the organ-involvement (enlarged lymph node, pleuritic chest pain, skeletal pain, urinary symptoms, abdominal swelling, abdominal pain, headache).
97
Q

What are the investigations for active TB?

A

Chest x-ray:

  • Primary: hilar lymphadenopathy, effusion, pulmonary infiltrates, calcification.
  • Reactivation: upper lobe cavitary lesion.

Sputum analysis:

  • Sputum microscopy: typically, three samples are required. Acid-fast stain (Ziehl-Neelsen stain) identifies the bacilli.
  • Culture (gold standard): It can take up to six weeks with conventional solid media (eg. Löwenstein–Jensen agar).
  • NAAT: probe-based tests that amplifies a specific nucleic acid sequence that can be detected via a nucleic acid probe; some NAATs can detect genes encoding drug resistance.
  • Xpert MTB/RIF assay: detects M tuberculosis and rifampin-resistance mutations.
  • Amplified Mycobacterium tuberculosis direct test: detects TB but not drug resistance.

Bronchoalveolar lavage sample, pleural fluid, or gastric aspirate may be used in patients unable to provide an adequate sputum sample. Pleural biopsy or lung biopsy may be used if other testing is not diagnostic.

The diagnosis of extra-pulmonary TB can be established by identification of M tuberculosis from a bodily secretion or tissue biopsy depending on the organ involvement.

98
Q

What are the investigations for latent TB?

A

Tuberculin skin test (TST) or interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs).

An IGRA is preferred in individuals with a history of BCG vaccination.

These tests should not be used alone to exclude a diagnosis of active TB as false-negative results occur in around 25% of patients.

99
Q

What is the management of active TB?

A

Intensive phase: two months of isoniazid + rifampin + pyrazinamide + ethambutol.

Continuation phase: four months of isoniazid + rifampin.

Drug-related side effects are common

  • Hepatotoxicity is an important adverse effect of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide.
  • Pyridoxine is always given with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy.
100
Q

What is the management of latent TB?

A

isoniazid for nine months or rifampin for four months are commonly prescribed

101
Q

What are the 2 types of pleural effusion?

A

Transudate (< 30g/L protein)

Exudate (> 30g/L protein)

102
Q

What are causes of a transudate pleural effusion?

A
  • heart failure (most common transudate cause)
  • hypoalbuminaemia
  • liver disease
  • nephrotic syndrome
  • malabsorption
  • hypothyroidism
  • Meigs’ syndrome
103
Q

What are causes of an exudate pleural effusion?

A

infection:

  • pneumonia (most common exudate cause),
  • tuberculosis
  • subphrenic abscess

connective tissue disease

  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • systemic lupus erythematosus

neoplasia

  • lung cancer
  • mesothelioma
  • metastases

also

  • pancreatitis
  • pulmonary embolism
  • Dressler’s syndrome
  • yellow nail syndrome
104
Q

How would a pleural effusion be demonstrated on a CXR?

A

blunting of the costophrenic angle and cardiophrenic angle with fluid within the horizontal or oblique fissures

A more severe effusion would demonstrate a meniscus and mediastinal shift

105
Q

Differential diagnoses for early postoperative shortness of breath?

A

atelectasis, pneumonia and pulmonary embolism

106
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

a common post-operative complication in which basal alveolar collapse can lead to respiratory difficulty. It is caused when airways become obstructed by bronchial secretions.

107
Q

what is the management of atelectasis?

A

deep breathing exercises and chest physiotherapy. This ensures that the airways are opened maximally and coughing can be performed effectively.

108
Q

What are the clinical features of a pancoast tumour?

A

Pancoast tumours can compress the recurrent laryngeal nerve causing a hoarseness of voice

109
Q

Where is the triangle of safety for chest drain insertion?

A

The axilla, lateral edge pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space and the anterior border of latissimus dorsi

110
Q

What are The causes of upper lobe fibrosis?

A

Can be remembered with the mnemonic ‘CHARTS’

  • Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis
  • Histiocytosis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis/ABPA
  • Radiation
  • TB
  • Silicosis (progressive massive fibrosis), sarcoidosis
111
Q

What are the causes of lower lobe fibrosis?

A
  • Asbestosis
  • Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
  • Amiodarone induced fibrosis
  • Scleroderma
112
Q

Chest X-ray shows multiple large, round, well-circumscribed masses in both lungs?

A

‘cannonball metastases’

  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Also choriocarcinoma or endometrial cancer
113
Q

What is the management of a PE?

A

First line = DOAC

Using DOAC once diagnosis suspected, then continue if confirmed

With haemodynamic instability:
E.g. hypotension

  • Thrombolysis e.g. alteplase
114
Q

How does long QT syndrome present ?

A

commonly presents in young people, as cardiac syncope, tachyarrhythmias, palpitations or cardiac arrest.

115
Q

What are acquired causes of long QT syndrome?

A
  • Electrolyte imbalance: hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia
  • Medications: tramadol, metoclopramide and domperidone.
  • CNS lesions: SAH and ischaemic stroke
  • Malnutrition
  • Hypothermia
116
Q

What is a normal corrected QT interval ?

A

<430 ms in males
<450 ms in females

117
Q

Classic ECG finding in PE?

A

S1Q3T3

S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III and an inverted T wave in lead III

118
Q

How long should CPR be continued after administering alteplase?

A

CPR should be continued for an extended period of 60-90 minutes

119
Q

step-down treatment of asthma?

A

aim for a reduction of 25-50% in the dose of inhaled corticosteroids

120
Q

chest x-ray findings of upper lobe shadowing and egg-shell calcification of hilar nodes ?

A

Silicosis

121
Q

What scoring system can determine whether a patient with a PE can be managed as an outpatient?

A

The Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index (PESI) score

122
Q

TB drug causing peripheral neuropathy?

A

Isoniazid

Prophylaxis with pyridoxine hydrochloride

123
Q

Advice following pneumothorax?

A
  • Avoid deep-sea diving life-long
  • Avoid air travel until there has been confirmation of the resolution of the pneumothorax
  • Smoking cessation reduces the risk of a recurrent PSP
124
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Caused by the increased permeability of alveolar capillaries leading to fluid accumulation in the alveoli, i.e. non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

125
Q

What are the causes of ARDS?

A
  • infection: sepsis, pneumonia
  • massive blood transfusion
  • trauma
  • smoke inhalation
  • acute pancreatitis
  • Covid-19
  • cardio-pulmonary bypass
126
Q

Clinical features of ARDS?

A

dyspnoea
elevated respiratory rate
bilateral lung crackles
low oxygen saturations

127
Q

Investigations for ARDS?

A

CXR - bilateral infiltrates
ABG
Pulmonary wedge pressure - not raised

128
Q

Management of ARDS?

A
  • due to the severity of the condition patients are generally managed in ITU
  • oxygenation/ventilation to treat the hypoxaemia
  • general organ support e.g. vasopressors as needed
  • treatment of the underlying cause e.g. antibiotics for sepsis
  • certain strategies such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation have been shown to improve outcome in ARDS
129
Q

Management of choking ?

A

If mild airway obstruction:

  • encourage the patient to cough

If severe airway obstruction and is conscious:

  • give up to 5 back-blows
  • if unsuccessful give up to 5 abdominal thrusts
  • if unsuccessful continue the above cycle

If unconscious:

  • call for an ambulance
  • start CPR
130
Q

Clinical features of tension pneumothorax?

A
  • respiratory distress
  • hypotension
  • jugular venous distension
  • absent lung sounds
  • reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity in cardiac arrest
131
Q
A