MED: Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of AKI?

A

Prerenal:

  • Volume Depletion - haemorrhage, GIlosses (V/D), excessive diuresis
  • Reduced CO - heart failure, shock (septic, hypovolaemic, cardiogenic), large vessel occlusion
  • Systemic Vasodilation - septic shock, anaphylaxis
  • Drugs -NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors can interfere with renal autoregulation

Intrinsic Renal Causes:

  • Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN): Caused by ischaemia (sustained prerenal factors) or toxins (drugs, contrast, rhabdomyolysis).
  • Acute Interstitial Nephritis (AIN): Typically drug-induced, but can also be caused by infections or autoimmune diseases.
  • Vascular: Includes conditions like renal artery or vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension, and vasculitides.
  • Glomerular: Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis or other glomerulopathies.

Postrenal Causes:

  • Obstruction: Obstruction can occur at any level from the renal pelvis to the urethra due to stones, tumours, strictures, or prostatic hypertrophy.
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2
Q

What are the investigations for an AKI?

A

Urine analysis:

  • Urine dip - UTI (leucocytes +/- nitrites), glomerulonephritis (haematuria + leucocytes), AIN (leucocytes)
  • MC&S - if evidence of UTI on dip
  • Protein:creatinine ratio - if glomerulonephritis suspected

Bloods:

  • U&Es - detect hyperkalaemia
  • FBC, CRP and bone profile as minimum
  • If cause not known further tests should be considered including: CK, ANA, ANCA, anti-GBM, complement levels, immunoglobulin levels, antistreptolysin O titre, HIV

Ultrasound:

  • Performed in new cases of AKI
  • If obstructive uropathy or pyelonephritis is suspected should be performed urgently (<24hrs)
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3
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for an AKI?

A
  • Rise in serum creatinine of 26 or greater within 48 hours
  • 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days
  • Fall in UO to less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours in adults
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4
Q

How is an AKI staged?

A

AKI can be staged using the KDIGO classification

Stage 1:

  • Creatinine 1.5-1.9x baseline or >26umol/L within 24 hours
  • UO <0.5 mL/kg/hour for 6 hours

Stage 2:

  • Creatinine 2-2.9x baseline
  • UO <0.5 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours

Stage 3:

  • Creatinine >3x baseline or >353.6 umol/L or initiation of renal replacement therapy or decrease of eGFR to <35 mL/min
  • UO <0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours
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5
Q

What medications should be stopped in AKI as may worsen renal function?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Aminoglycosides
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
  • Diuretics
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6
Q

What medications may have to be stopped in AKI as increased risk of toxicity (but doesn’t usually worsen AKI itself)?

A
  • Metformin
  • Lithium
  • Digoxin
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7
Q

What is the management of an AKI?

A

Supportive:

  • Careful fluid balance - ensure kidneys are properly perfused but not fluid overloaded
  • RV medications
  • Role for loop diuretics in patients who experience significant fluid overload

Specialist input:

  • Nephrologist input required when cause not known or severe AKI
  • All patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist.

Renal replacement therapy:

  • e.g. haemodialysis
  • Used when patient not responding to medical treatment of complications, for example hyperkalaemia, acidosis or uraemia.
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8
Q

What is the cause of PKD?

A

Autosomal dominant mutation in PKD1 or PKD2 gene

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9
Q

What is the classification of PKD?

A

Type 1 ADPKD: 85% of cases

  • Caused by a mutation in PKD1 on chromosome 16
  • Symptoms tend to be more severe in this type

Type 2 ADPKD: 15% of cases

  • Caused by a mutation in PKD2 on chromosome 4
  • Symptoms tend to be less severe in this type
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10
Q

What are the clinical features of PKD?

A
  • Haematuria - both microscopic and macroscopic are common
  • Loin pain - chronic loin pain may be due to distension of the renal capsule, traction of the renal pedicle, and/or hepatic enlargement. Acute loin pain may be caused by kidney stones, cyst haemorrhage and/or infection.
  • Hypertension
  • Recurrent UTIs
  • Kidney stones
  • Headache - may be a sign of a ruptured berry aneurysm and subsequent SAH
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11
Q

What are the signs O/E of PKD?

A
  • Palpable kidneys/abdominal mass
  • Hepatomegaly due to hepatic cysts
  • Abdominal wall hernias
  • Cardiac murmur - increased incidence of mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation and dilated aortic root
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12
Q

What are the symptoms of renal failure?

A

Peripheral oedema
Shortness of breath
Poor appetite and weight loss
Polyuria
Pruritus
Nausea

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13
Q

What are the investigations for PKD?

A

Renal ultrasound scan:

  • First investigation when ADPKD is suspected

MRI/CT:

  • If renal ultrasound is equivocal, MRI or CT scan may be considered
  • > 10 renal cysts is diagnostic.
  • An MRI scan of the head may be performed to identify intracranial berry aneurysms which occur in up to 40% of cases of ADPKD.

Genetic testing:

  • Not routinely performed for diagnosis
  • May be used to assess potential living related kidney donors with equivocal or negative scan results.
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14
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose PKD?

A

Ravine’s criteria: With positive family history

  • 15-29 years: presence of 3 or more renal cysts (unilateral or bilateral)
  • 30-39 years: presence of 2 or more renal cysts (unilateral or bilateral)
  • 40-59 years: presence of 2 or more cysts in each kidney

In patients with no family history, ultrasound criteria for diagnosis is >10 cysts in each kidney

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15
Q

What is the management of PKD?

A
  • All patients newly diagnosed with ADPKD should be referred to a nephrologist
  • Blood pressure control - antihypertensive medications and lifestyle modifications
  • Management of renal pain - underlying causes excluded before starting analgesia
  • Treatment of UTIs - 7-14 day course of antibiotics is recommended
  • Treatment of kidney stones
  • Tolvaptan to slow progression of cyst formation and renal insufficiency if they don’t have CKD stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment and there is evidence of rapidly progressive disease
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16
Q

What is the management of ESRD?

A

Renal transplantation is the management of choice for ESRD caused by ADPKD; a living donor is preferable to a cadaveric donor

Dialysis is the second-line management of ESRD caused by ADPKD; haemodialysis is preferred to peritoneal dialysis in this group

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17
Q

What are the complications of PKD?

A

Hepatic cysts:

  • Majority are asymptomatic and do not require treatment
  • Some patients may experience heartburn, nausea, early satiety and an increased abdominal circumference due to hepatomegaly caused by hepatic cysts

Cardiovascular disease:

  • Hypertension > increases risk of coronary heart disease, stroke and MI
  • Mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation and dilated aortic root are also associated with ADPKD

Intracranial aneurysms and subarachnoid haemorrhage:

  • Patients with ADPKD and a FHx of SAH are offered an MRA scan at intervals of 1 to 5 years to screen for intracranial aneurysms
  • If aneurysms are detected they may be treated surgically using a clip or coil to prevent rupture
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18
Q

What are the causes of CKD?

A
  • diabetic nephropathy
  • chronic glomerulonephritis
  • chronic pyelonephritis
  • hypertension
  • adult polycystic kidney disease
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19
Q

What are the clinical features of CKD?

A

Early:

  • Fatigue
  • Polyuria / nocturia
  • Hypertension
  • Puffiness / swelling

Late:

  • Decreased UO - oliguria / anuria
  • Fluid overload - SOB, peripheral oedema, hypertension.
  • Uraemic Symptoms - nausea, vomiting, anorexia, metallic taste in the mouth, hiccups, and pruritus
  • Neurological Symptoms - difficulty concentrating / fatigue, seizures /coma (uraemic encephalopathy)
  • Cardiovascular Symptoms - chest pain or SOB due to CKD-related cardiovascular disease, including coronary artery disease and pericarditis.
  • Anaemia Symptoms
  • Bone and Mineral Disease - CKD can disrupt calcium and phosphate balance, leading to bone pain, fractures, and other symptoms of renal osteodystrophy.
  • Metabolic Acidosis Symptoms - rapid breathing, confusion, and lethargy.
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20
Q

Describe the stages of CKD

A

Stage 1:

  • GFR >90 ml/min
  • Some sign of kidney damage on other tests (i.e. abnormal U&Es / proteinuria)

Stage 2:

  • GFR 60-90 ml/min
  • Some sign of kidney damage on other tests

Stage 3a:

  • GFR 45-59 ml/min
  • Moderate reduction in kidney function

Stage 3b:

  • GFR 30-44 ml/min
  • Moderate reduction in kidney function

Stage 4:

  • GFR 15-29 ml/min
  • Severe reduction in kidney function

Stage 5:

  • GFR < 15 ml/min
  • Established kidney failure - dialysis or a kidney transplant may be needed
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21
Q

What are the complications of CKD?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Hypertension
  • Mineral bone disease
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22
Q

What are the causes of DI?

A

Central DI:

Acquired - idiopathic, tumours (germ cell tumours, Langerhans cell histiocytosis, pituitary tumours, craniopharyngioma), trauma (most commonly following pituitary surgery), infections (encephalitis, cryptococcal meningitis, TB meningitis), vascular damage
- Congenital - mutation in Arginine vasopressin-neurophysin II gene (AVP-NPII) (AD), Wolfram syndrome (AR)

Nephrogenic DI:

  • Congenital (85%) - mutation in vasopressin-2-receptor (X-linked mutation - 90% cases), mutation in aquaporin 2 gene (AR)
  • Acquired - drug induced (most commonly lithium), hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia, kidney disease

Gestational DI:

  • Increased production of vasopressinase from the placenta decreases the amount of ADH
  • Increased prostaglandins may reduce the sensitivity of the kidney to ADH.

Dipsogenic DI:

  • Due to an impairment of the thirst mechanism
  • Causes may include chronic meningitis, multiple sclerosis
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23
Q

What are the clinical features of DI?

A
  • Excessive thirst
  • Copious dilute urine
  • Nocturia
  • Symptoms associated with dehydration - fatigue, dizziness, weakness
  • Symptoms associated with a SOL causing central DI - headache, visual changes, seizures

In children, features may also include:

  • Nocturnal enuresis after continence has been gained
  • Failure to thrive
  • Irritability

O/E:

  • Signs of dehydration
  • Palpable distended bladder
  • A neurological exam may show focal neurology such as altered visual fields if DI has been caused by a space-occupying lesion.
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24
Q

What are the investigations for DI?

A

24-hour urine collection:

  • If <3L/24hr - DI unlikely

Urine and serum osmolality to calculate the urine to plasma (U:P) osmolality ratio:

  • If U:P ratio > 2:1 (urine twice as concentrated as plasma), DI unlikely
  • If U:P is <2:1 it confirms dilute urine.

Bloods:

  • Glucose - to rule out diabetes mellitus.
  • Calcium - to rule out hypercalcaemia.
  • U&Es - sodium may be raised if inadequate water is consumed and other electrolyte abnormalities may be present.

Water deprivation test:

Serum copeptin:

  • can suggest the levels of ADH present in the blood
  • Nephrogenic DI = Random serum copeptin >21.4pmol/L
  • Central DI = Stimulated serum copeptin <4.9pmol/L
  • Dipsogenic DI = Stimulated serum copeptin >4.9pmol/L

If a diagnosis of central DI is made, the patient will undergo an MRI to identify any lesions or pathology that may be causing the condition.

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25
Q

What is the management of DI?

A

Conservative:

  • Treat underlying cause
  • Easy access to water and adequate fluid intake.
  • Patient education including what to do if they become unwell.
  • Low solute diet to reduce osmotic load.

Medical:

  • Central DI = desmopressin (sublingual, intranasal, SC, IV or IM)
  • Nephrogenic DI = focused on treating underlying cause and conservative measure however some medications can be considered to help with symptoms. These include: Thiazide diuretics, Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors

Managing an inpatient with DI:

  • Fluid status assessment.
  • Monitor serum Na+ and urine output.
  • Appropriate fluid replacement.
  • Strict adherence to patient’s desmopressin requirement.
  • Avoidance of rapid overcorrection of hypernatraemia.
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26
Q

What is Fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

An idiopathic non-atherosclerotic, non-inflammatory disorder of arteries encompassing two subtypes, focal and non-focal FMD

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27
Q

What arteries are most commonly affected by FMD?

A

Renal artery FMD
Cerebrovascular (carotid/vertebral artery) FMD

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28
Q

What are the key features of renal artery FMD?

A
  • Hypertension (74%), resistant to medical management.
  • Abdominal bruit in the absence of atherosclerotic risk factors
  • Unilateral small kidney on imaging, with no urological cause
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29
Q

What are the key features of symptomatic cervical artery FMD?

A
  • Severe or chronic migraines (70%)
  • Pulsatile tinnitus (22%)
  • Cervical bruit
  • Unilateral head/neck pain
  • Focal neurology suggesting cervical artery dissection (ipsilateral ptosis, miosis)
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30
Q

What are the investigations for FMD?

A

Bloods:

  • Lipid profile - hyperlipidaemia modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis, not typically present in FMD
  • ESR and auto-antibody screen - arteriopathies such as GCA, Takayasu’s arteritis have elevated ESR and/or presence of serum auto-antibodies

Imaging:

  • First line imaging = CT-angiography (CTA) local to the suspected site e.g. renal artery
  • MR-angiography second line if CT is contraindicated.
  • Intra-cranial CT- or MR-angiography is recommended at least once (regardless of disease site) to screen for intracranial aneurysm.

Gold standard:

  • If CTA is negative and significant clinical suspicion remains, catheter-based angiography is the gold standard diagnostic technique
  • Also used in CTA -confirmed FMD where it can offer further clinically valuable information
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31
Q

What is the management of FMD?

A
  • Oral Anti-platelet therapy
  • Management of hypertension - ACE-Is or ARBs first line renovascular hypertension (BBs may be protective following coronary artery dissection if it occurs)
  • Surgical management of critical stenosis
  • Smoking cessation
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32
Q

What are the complications of FMD?

A
  • Spontaneous coronary artery dissection (SCAD)
  • Renal infarction
  • Cervical artery dissection (CeAD)
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33
Q

What is Goodpasture’s disease?

A

Autoimmune disease where antibodies attack the alpha-3 subunit of type IV collagen found in the basement membrane of the lungs and kidneys.

This anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) disease leads to small vessel vasculitis in the kidneys and lungs causing bleeding in the lungs and renal failure.

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34
Q

What are the clinical features of Goodpasture’s?

A
  • Haemoptysis
  • Cough
  • Shortness of breath
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Chest pain
  • Decreased urine output
  • Fatigue and malaise
  • Haematuria
  • Lung crackles
  • Fever
  • Lower extremity oedema
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35
Q

What are the investigations for Goodpasture’s?

A

Renal biopsy - should be performed for definitive diagnosis:

  • Crescentic glomerulonephritis
  • Linear IgG staining on immunofluorescence

Bloods:

  • Anti-GBM antibody titre - useful confirmatory diagnostic test in addition to the renal biopsy.
  • Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)
  • Urea & electrolytes - high urea and creatinine

Urinalysis:

  • proteinuria, hematuria and casts

Chest imaging:

  • X-ray may show diffuse opacities
  • CT characteristically shows ground glass or consolidative opacities in a diffuse and bilateral distribution
36
Q

What is the acute management of Goodpastures?

A
  • Intensive plasmapheresis - removes pathogenic antibody and inflammatory mediators
  • Prednisone - dose tapered over 3 months
  • Cyclophosphamide
37
Q

What is the long-term management of Goodpasture’s?

A
  • At least 6 to 9 months.
  • Maintenance therapy = azathioprine and low dose prednisolone (less toxic)
  • Smoking cessation
38
Q

What is membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

Rare form of glomerular injury characterized by:

  • Mesangial cell proliferation
  • Thickening of the glomerular basement membrane
  • Immune complex deposition
39
Q

What are the clinical features of MPGN?

A
  • Haematuria - microscopic or gross hematuria is common, often accompanied by red blood cell casts in the urine.
  • Proteinuria
  • Hypertension
  • Progressive decline in renal function
  • Nephrotic and/or nephritic syndrome
40
Q

What are the investigations for MPGN?

A

Laboratory tests:

  • Urinalysis
  • Renal function tests
  • Complement levels (C3, C4)
  • Serological tests for autoimmune and infectious diseases
  • Serum/urine electrophoresis for monoclonal proteins.

Kidney biopsy: Gold standard for diagnosis

  • Primary = immune complex deposition with mesangial interposition, leading to a ‘tram-track’ appearance on electron microscopy
  • Complement-mediated = deposits of complement proteins, particularly C3

Genetic testing:

  • May be considered in cases of suspected complement-mediated MPGN to identify mutations in complement regulatory genes.
41
Q

What is the management of MPGN?

A
  • Immunosuppressive therapy - corticosteroids, with or without cytotoxic agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide), may be considered for primary MPGN or secondary MPGN related to autoimmune diseases.
  • Treatment of underlying disease
  • Supportive care - Management of hypertension, proteinuria, and oedema with ACEIs or ARBs, diuretics, and dietary modifications.
  • C3 glomerulopathy - targeted complement inhibition with eculizumab
  • End-stage renal disease (ESRD) = dialysis or kidney transplantation
42
Q

What are the causes of membranous glomerulonephritis?

A
  • idiopathic: due to anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies
  • infections: hepatitis B, malaria, syphilis
  • malignancy: lung cancer, lymphoma, leukaemia
  • drugs: gold, penicillamine, NSAIDs
  • autoimmune diseases: SLE (class V disease), thyroiditis, rheumatoid
43
Q

What are the clinical features of MGN?

A

S/S of nephrotic syndrome:

  • Proteinuria - patients may report frothy urine or urinary foam as an initial manifestation.
  • Oedema - peripheral, facial and periorbital
  • Hyperlipidemia - elevated serum cholesterol and triglyceride
  • Hypoalbuminemia - secondary to excessive urinary protein loss
  • Increased risk of thromboembolic events
  • Infection susceptibility (cellulitis / pneumonia) - immunosuppression from urinary immunoglobulin loss and corticosteroid
  • Hypertension
  • Progressive decline in renal function - resulting in CKD / ESRD
  • Haematuria - microscopic hematuria observed in some cases, gross hematuria relatively uncommon
44
Q

MGN on renal biopsy?

A

Electron microscopy = basement membrane is thickened with subepithelial electron dense deposits. This creates a ‘spike and dome’ appearance

45
Q

Management of MGN?

A
  • Some patients undergo spontaneous remission
  • All patients should receive ACE inhibitor or ARB (reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis)
  • Severe or progressive disease = immunosuppression (combination of corticosteroid + another agent such as cyclophosphamide)
  • Consider anticoagulation for high-risk patients
46
Q

What is microscopic polyangiitis (MPA)?

A

A small-vessel ANCA vasculitis.

47
Q

What are the clinical features of MPA?

A
  • Constitutional symptoms - fever, weight loss, asthenia, night sweats
  • MSK symptoms - myalgia, arthralgia
  • Neuro symptoms - peripheral neuropathy, convulsions, cerebral haemorrhage or infarction, headache and/or temporal arteritis
  • Cutaneous involvement - palpable purpura, splinter haemorrhages, nodules, livedo reticularis, ulcers
  • Cardiac symptoms - arrhythmia, heart failure, pericarditis, MI
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
  • GI symptoms - abdominal pain, diarrhoea, GI bleeding
  • Renal - proteinuria, microscopic haematuria, rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
48
Q

What are the investigations for MPA?

A

First-line investigations performed in primary care include:

  • Urinalysis and urine protein:creatinine ratio - if findings suggest renal involvement, urgent referral to nephrology
  • Bloods - FBC, LFTs, U+E’s, CRP and ESR
  • Chest x-ray

If MPA is suspected, an urgent referral is required to secondary care due to the potentially rapidly progressive nature of the condition

  • ANA, rheumatoid factor
  • Cryoglobulins
  • P-ANCA: MPO or PR3 specific
  • Biopsy: usually renal, pulmonary or skin depending on organ involvement
49
Q

What is the management of MPA

A

Induction:
Severe

  • 1st line = cyclophosphamide + high dose steroids
  • Continued for 3-6 months then switched to less toxic maintenance once remission achieved
  • Adjunct plasma exchange in patients with severe renal failure (creatinine >500 μmol/l) or life-threatening manifestations

Non-severe

  • High dose steroids + either methotrexate or mycophenolate mofetil

Refractory

  • All patients should be referred to a vasculitis centre
  • 1st line = rituximab (in patients who have already received CYC)
  • If rituximab is unavailable = IV immunoglobulin or switch from IV to oral CYC

Maintenance:

  • 1st line = low dose steroids with azathioprine or MTX
  • Second line / contraindicated = MMF or leflunomide
  • At least 24 months of therapy recommended
  • Remission for 1 year = taper steroid dose
  • 6 months after steroid withdrawal = taper immunosuppression

Treatment of relapse:

Severe

  • 1st line = high dose steroids + RTX or CYC
  • Addition of IV methylprednisolone or plasma exchange
  • Increase steroid dose if patients have received 2nd dose of CYC

Non-severe

  • 1st line = increase steroid dose and increase or change maintenance immunosuppressive therapy
50
Q

Clinical features of MCD?

A
  • Oedema - periorbital puffiness, lower extremity swelling, and, in severe cases, ascites
  • Proteinuria - selective proteinuria, primarily comprises albumin, leading to hypoalbuminemia.
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Hyperlipidemia - elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels
  • Microscopic haematuria sometimes
  • Rarely AKI
  • CKD may develop in long-standing or frequently relapsing cases.
  • Infections - respiratory tract, cellulitis, and peritonitis.
  • Thromboembolic events - DVT, PE
51
Q

Investigations for MCD?

A
  • Urinalysis (urine dip, 24-hour urine collection) - proteinuria and hematuria
  • Blood tests - serum creatinine, electrolytes, albumin, and lipid profile to evaluate renal function, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia.
  • Renal ultrasound - assess kidney size, cortical echogenicity, and ruling out obstructive uropathy or other structural abnormalities.
  • Renal biopsy (definitive diagnosis) - light microscopy typically showing normal glomeruli, electron microscopy revealing diffuse podocyte foot process effacement
52
Q

What is the management of MCD?

A

First line = steroids
Second line = CYC

53
Q

What comprises nephrotic syndrome?

A

Triad of:
1. Proteinuria (> 3g/24hr) causing
2. Hypoalbuminaemia (< 30g/L) and
3. Oedema

54
Q

What are the causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Primary glomerulonephritis accounts for around 80% of cases

  • Minimal change glomerulonephritis
  • Membranous glomerulonephritis
  • Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

Systemic disease (about 20%)

  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Amyloidosis

Drugs

  • Gold (sodium aurothiomalate), penicillamine

Others

  • Congenital
  • Neoplasia: carcinoma, lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma
  • Infection: bacterial endocarditis, hepatitis B, malaria
55
Q

Aetiology of PSGN?

A

GAS following:

  • Skin infection
  • Pharyngitis
56
Q

What are the clinical features of PSGN?

A

»Acute nephritic syndrome:

  • Generalised oedema
  • Hypertension
  • Gross haematuria - urine looks tea or cola-coloured.
  • Oliguria - this varies significantly between affected individuals but also during the clinical course, as renal function initially declines and then improves.
57
Q

Investigations for PSGN?

A

Urinalysis:

  • Haematuria - with characteristic dysmorphic RBC with or without RBC casts.
  • Proteinuria - usually mild

Bloods:

  • Variable degree of decline of eGFR and elevated creatinine
  • Complement - low C3

Culture:

  • A throat or skin swab for culture should be taken to help confirm the presence of GAS.

Serology:

  • Testing for antibodies against GAS can be helpful to confirm a recent infection.
  • The Streptozyme test - Anti-streptolysin (ASO), Anti-hyaluronidase (AHase), Anti-streptokinase (ASKase), Anti-DNase B, Anti-nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotidase (anti-NAD)

Renal biopsy:

  • Rarely needed due to self-limiting clinical course
  • Usually only indicated when diagnostic uncertainty to confirm diagnosis and exclude differentials
  • Light microscope: diffuse glomerular cellular infiltration and endocapillary proliferation
  • Immunofluorescence: diffuse granular deposits of C3 and IgG
  • Electron microscope: immune complexes characteristically localised to subepithelial deposits, commonly called dome-shaped ‘humps’ and subendothelial deposits.
58
Q

What is the management of PSGN?

A

Supportive:

  • Loop diuretics - provide rapid diuresis, reducing BP
  • Severe hypertensive encephalopathy = anti-hypertensives (ACE-inhibitors used with caution due to risk of hyperkalemia)
  • Monitoring renal function - dialysis sometimes necessary
  • Antibiotics if any evidence of persistent streptococcal infection

Most cases wll respond to supportive measures and can be managed in secondary care but referral to a specialist centre for further investigation and/or dialysis may be appropriate if any of the following are present:

  • Refractory fluid overload
  • Refractory hypertension
  • Evidence of serious renal impairment
59
Q

Nephrotic syndrome and malignancy?

A

MGN?

60
Q

Drugs to stop in AKI?

A
  • ACE-Is
  • ARBs
  • Aminoglycosides
  • NSAIDs
  • Diuretics
  • Metformin
  • Lithium
61
Q

HSP?

A
  • Abdo pain
  • Arthritis
  • Haematuria
  • Purpuric rash over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs
62
Q

HUS?

A

Normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia and AKI following diarrhoeal illness

63
Q

Management of proteinuria (ie ACR > 30) in CKD?

A

ACE inhibitors (or ARBs)

  • Prescribed if ACR > 30 mg/mmol + co-existent HTN or diabetes
  • If the ACR > 70 mg/mmol they are indicated regardless

SGLT-2 inhibitors:

  • eGFR 25-75 and ACR >22.6 while on an ACEi or ARB, dapagliflozin should be added to the regimen.
64
Q

Management of AKI with pulmonary oedema refractory to diuresis?

A

urgent haemodialysis

65
Q

Managment of anaemia in CKD?

A
  • First arrange serum iron studies
  • Then correct iron deficiency with oral ferrous sulphate
  • If not corrected in 3m - IV iron
  • Then consider erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA)
66
Q

Diuretic to use for ascites ?

A

Spironolactone
Amiloride
Chlortalidone

67
Q

What is the most important investigation to perform immediately to help you establish the cause of an AKI?

A

URINE DIP

  • Pre-renal AKI would have no distinguishing features on urine dip and would be managed by aggressive fluid resuscitation
  • Intrarenal AKI caused by damage to the glomerulus or tubules would show protein +++ (and possibly blood+), and would not be managed with aggressive fluids as this would simply lead to fluid overload in a patient unable to pass urine. If the urine dip were to suggest an intrarenal cause for the AKI, this would warrant an urgent conversation with the renal registrar, as the patient may require emergency dialysis
  • In post-renal AKI, obstructive causes (such as prostate or bladder cancer) may show blood+++ on the urine dip but there will not be any protein. If the urine were to show this pattern, the obstruction and AKI will likely be resolved by catheterisation - but the urine dip may have identified the first sign of a urological cancer that will need to be investigated.
68
Q

Which patients with CKD have bilaterally enlarged kidneys ?

A
  • autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
  • diabetic nephropathy (early stages)
  • amyloidosis
  • HIV-associated nephropathy
69
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome affect TFTs?

A

Lows the total (but not free) thyroxine

70
Q

Most likely cause of death of CKD on haemodialysis ?

A

IHD

71
Q

Clinical features of acute interstitial nephritis?

A
  • fever
  • rash
  • arthralgia
  • eosinophilia
  • mild renal impairment
  • hypertension
72
Q

Urine findings in acute interstitial nephritis ?

A

Eosinophilia and raised white cells

73
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis?

A
  • drugs: the most common cause, particularly antibiotics (penicillin, rifampicin, NSAIDs, allopurinol, furosemide)
  • systemic disease: SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjögren’s syndrome
  • infection: Hanta virus , staphylococci
74
Q

Cardio associations with ADPKD?

A
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Mitral or tricuspid incompetence
  • Aortic root dilation
  • Aortic dissection
75
Q

Hyperacute graft rejection ?

A
  • minutes to hours
  • due to pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens
  • no treatment is possible and the graft must be removed
76
Q

Acute graft rejection ?

A
  • <6 months
  • usually due to mismatched HLA. Cell-mediated (cytotoxic T cells)
  • other causes include cytomegalovirus infection
  • may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants
77
Q

Chronic graft rejection ?

A
  • > 6 months
  • both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms cause fibrosis to the transplanted kidney (chronic allograft nephropathy)
  • recurrence of original renal disease (MCGN > IgA > FSGS)
78
Q

Urine findings in acute tubular necrosis?

A

Kidneys can no longer concentrate urine or retain sodium - urine osmolality low, urine sodium high

79
Q

Contrast media nephrotoxicity ?

A

25% increase in creatinine occurring within 3 days of the IV administration of contrast media

80
Q

Contrast induced nephropathy ?

A

occurs 2 -5 days after administration

81
Q

RFs for contrast induced nephropathy ?

A
  • known renal impairment (especially diabetic nephropathy)
  • age > 70 years
  • dehydration
  • cardiac failure
  • the use of nephrotoxic drugs such as NSAIDs
82
Q

Prevention of contrast induced nephropathy ?

A

IV 0.9% sodium chloride 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post- procedure

83
Q

What step should be taken for the 48 hours post-procedure in high risk patients to prevent contrast induced nephropathy?

A

Metformin withheld for a minimum of 48 hours and until the renal function has been shown to be normal

84
Q

Most common malignancy following renal transplant?

A

skin cancer (particularly squamous cell)

85
Q
A