MED: Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the subtypes of alcoholic liver disease?

A

Alcoholic fatty liver disease
Alcoholic hepatitis
Alcoholic cirrhosis

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2
Q

What are the early clinical features of ALD?

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Fatigue
  • Malaise
  • Abdominal pain
  • Anorexia
  • Weakness
  • Nausea and/or vomiting
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3
Q

What are the clinical features of alcoholic hepatitis?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Right upper quadrant pain
  • Hepatomegaly - generally enlarged and smooth edge, rarely tender to palpation
  • Palmar erythema
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Clubbing
  • Dupuytren’s contracture
  • Pruritis
  • Xanthomas
  • Spider angiomas - multiple are characteristic of CLD, while solitary angiomas are seen in other systemic disease
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4
Q

What are oestrogenic effects of ALD?

A
  • Gynaecomastia and testicular atrophy (in males)
  • Loss of body hair
  • Amenorrhoea (in females)
  • Loss of libido
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5
Q

What are the clinical features of portal hypertension?

A
  • Ascites
  • Dilated veins (e.g. caput medusae)
  • Variceal bleeding and haemorrhage
  • Splenomegaly
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6
Q

What are the investigations for ALD?

A

Bloods:

  • Raised AST and ALT - ratio of AST : ALT > 2 - 3
  • GGT raised
  • ALP likely normal
  • Conjugated bilirubin may be raised
  • Low serum albumin
  • Raised PT / INR

USS:

  • Used to differentiate causes of abnormal liver function tests

Liver biopsy:

  • Not usually necessary for ALD due to invasiveness of procedure
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7
Q

What are general measures used in the management of alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • Alcohol abstinence
  • Weight loss
  • Vaccinations - in the absence of past / current infection, provide hep A and B immunisations
  • Nutrition - high protein diet, consider feeding tube for enteral feeding if anorexia or altered mental status
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8
Q

What is the management of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Acute alcohol withdrawal = benzodiazepines (e.g. chlordiazepoxide / diazepam)

Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure

Alcohol withdrawal seizures = quick-acting benzodiazepine (e.g. lorazepam)

Delirium tremens = oral lorazepam

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9
Q

What is the management of acute alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Glucocorticoids (e.g. prednisolone)

  • Pentoxifylline can be used as an alternative to glucocorticoids if they are contraindicated (e.g. hep B, TB, other serious infection)

Maddrey’s discriminant function (DF):
To identify patients with severe acute alcoholic hepatitis

  • DF >32 predicts a high mortality within 90 days, and means a liver biopsy should be considered, with corticosteroid treatment initiation
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10
Q

What is the management of end stage ALD?

A

Liver transplantation can be considered
Usually must be alcohol free for >6 months

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11
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

In severe cases of ALD, hepatic encephalopathy can occur as a result of significant toxin build-up (ammonia)

S/S:

  • Confusion
  • Drowsiness
  • Hyperventilation
  • Asterixis
  • Fetor hepaticus

Management:

  • Supportive care plus lactulose until laxative effect is achieved.
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12
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A
  • Occurs once liver cirrhosis is established.
  • Blood vessels in liver blocked due to severe fibrosis > high pressure develops in portal venous system > large varices within venous system in esophagus, stomach, rectum and umbilicus.
  • This results in secondary complications such as variceal haemorrhage, ascites and splenomegaly.
  • Ascites can be complicated by spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (suspect in patients with abdominal distention, pain +/- fever)
  • This can be managed with a transjugular intrahepatic portal-systemic shunt (TIPSS) if there is acute bleeding, particularly if gastric varices are present
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13
Q

What is hepato-renal syndrome?

A

As a result of portal hypertension, there is widespread splanchnic vasodilation
This leads to a reduction in the effective circulating volume, which can reduce the blood flow to the kidneys, compromising the renal system and potentially leading to a life-threatening acute kidney failure

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14
Q

What is a worrying complication of liver cirrhosis?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatic ultrasound should be undertaken serially approximately every 6 months to yearly to screen for liver cancer development

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15
Q

Describe the classification of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Type 1:

  • positive for ANA and/or SMA
  • may also be associated with perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA).
  • Accounts for the majority of cases.

Type 2:

  • associated with either anti-liver kidney microsomal-1 (LKM-1) or anti-liver cytosolic-1 (LC-1) antibodies.
  • generally more severe, patients are younger at diagnosis and the disease is usually more advanced at presentation

Type 3:

  • associated with autoantibodies against soluble liver antigens (anti-SLA) or liver-pancreas antigen (anti-LP)
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16
Q

What are the clinical features of AIH?

A
  • Can be asymptomatic
  • Jaundice
  • Non-specific symptoms e.g. fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, abdominal pain amenorrhoea.
  • Features of cirrhosis e.g. ascites, variceal bleeding
  • Pruritus
  • Arthralgias.
  • Maculopapular rash.
  • Pyrexia of unknown origin.
  • Raised transaminase levels and IgG

The classical picture of AIH is as a chronic disease with raised transaminase levels for at least three months. However, in about 40% of patients AIH may present acutely, sometimes preceded by a flu like illness

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17
Q

What other autoimmune diseases is AIH associated with?

A
  • Most common - autoimmune thyroid disease
  • Type 1 diabetes
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Vitiligo
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Coeliac
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18
Q

What are the investigations for AIH?

A

Lab tests:

  • Raised ALT and AST
  • Raised serum immunoglobulins, particularly IgG.
  • Negative serum tests for viral hepatitis
  • High titers of circulating autoantibodies - ANA and anti-SMA
  • Serum ALP will be normal or only slightly raised

Liver biopsy required:

  • Interface hepatitis - Inflammation of the hepatocytes at the junction of the portal tract and the hepatic parenchyma
  • Periportal lymphocytic inflammation
  • Hepatocyte swelling
  • Necrosis
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19
Q

What is the management of autoimmune hepatitis?

A

**Patients with moderate to severe inflammation // symptomatic patients // younger patients more at risk of developing cirrhosis later in life should be offered treatment*

Moderate to severe inflammation suggested by:

  • AST >5 times the normal serum level
  • Immunoglobulins >2 times the normal serum level
  • Liver biopsy showing necrosis

Prednisolone, sometimes in combination with azathioprine:

  • In adjunct to this, patients should be vaccinated against hepatitis A and B infection, receive calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and have regular DEXA scans and screening for glaucoma and cataracts.

Liver transplantation:

  • Indicated by either severe acute AIH resulting in liver failure, decompensated liver disease or hepatocellular carcinoma.
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20
Q

What are the complications of liver cirrhosis?

A
  • Ascites
  • Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
  • Haemorrhages (e.g. due to variceal bleeding)
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
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21
Q

What are the extraintenstinal manifestations of coeliac disease?

A
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis - intensely pruritic, vesicular rash, typically affecting the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
  • Fatigue - due to malabsorption of essential nutrients or anaemia.
  • Iron deficiency anaemia - common, may be the initial presenting feature in some
  • Weight loss - result of malabsorption.
  • Bone pain and fractures - due to osteoporosis or osteopenia, secondary to malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D
  • Peripheral neuropathy - numbness, tingling, or burning sensations in the extremities
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22
Q

What are the investigations for coeliac disease?

A

Serological Testing:

  • Anti-tTG antibodies
  • Anti-EMA antibodies - used in cases with equivocal anti-tTG results or when confirmation of the diagnosis is needed.
  • Total serum IgA levels - important to exclude selective IgA deficiency, which may lead to false-negative results in serological testing.

Duodenal Biopsy:

  • gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease
  • Villous atrophy
  • Crypt hyperplasia
  • Increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
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23
Q

What is the management of coeliac disease?

A
  • Strict gluten-free diet
  • Supplementation with iron, folic acid, vitamin B12, calcium, and vitamin D may be necessary
  • All patients offered pneumococcal vaccine
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24
Q

What are examples of foods containing gluten?

A

Wheat: bread, pasta, pastry
Barley: beer
Rye
Oats: some patients with coeliac disease appear able to tolerate oats

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25
Q

What malignancies are associated with coeliac disease?

A

Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL):

  • A rare and aggressive type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma arising from intraepithelial lymphocytes in the small intestine
  • EATL has a poor prognosis and is often associated with refractory coeliac disease type II.

Small bowel adenocarcinoma:

  • The risk of small bowel adenocarcinoma is also increased in coeliac disease, although the overall incidence remains low.
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26
Q

What are some extra intestinal manifestations of CD?

A
  • Peripheral arthritis - large joints e.g. knees, ankles, and wrists, non-destructive, non-deforming
  • Axial arthritis - ankylosing spondylitis and sacroiliitis, can cause low back pain and morning stiffness.
  • Erythema nodosum - painful, raised, erythematous nodules on the lower extremities.
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum - rapidly progressing, painful ulcers with undermined, violaceous borders, often involving the lower extremities or peristomal skin.
  • Uveitis - eye pain, photophobia, and blurred vision.
  • Episcleritis - eye redness and mild pain
  • Scleritis - more painful and can lead to vision loss if untreated.
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
  • Cholelithiasis and fatty liver disease
  • Anaemia, vitamin B12 and folate malabsorption.
  • Increased risk for venous and arterial thromboembolic events, including DVT, PE, and stroke
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27
Q

What are the investigations for CD?

A

Blood tests:

  • FBC, CRP, ESR, LFTs, serum albumin, and iron studies, vitamin B12 and folate levels
  • Info about inflammation, anaemia, and nutritional status

Stool tests:

  • Stool cultures, ova and parasite examination, and faecal calprotectin
  • Can help differentiate between IBD and infectious or non-inflammatory causes of diarrhoea.

Colonoscopy and biopsy:

  • Findings include aphthous ulcers, cobblestoning, non-caseating epithelioid cell granulomata, discontinuous/patchy inflammation with skip lesions

Capsule endoscopy:

  • In cases where traditional endoscopy is inconclusive, video capsule endoscopy can be utilized to visualize the small bowel and detect areas of inflammation not reachable by colonoscopy or upper endoscopy.

CT/MRI:

  • MRI preferred in CD due to its lack of ionizing radiation and superior soft tissue contrast.

Ultrasound:

  • May be used as a non-invasive imaging modality, particularly for assessing disease activity, complications, or response to therapy.

Histology:

  • Non-caseating granulomas, transmural inflammation, lymphoid aggregates, crypt architectural abnormalities, and cryptitis or crypt abscesses
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28
Q

What is the management of CD?

A

Conservative:

  • Education on features and flare ups
  • Support - www.crohnsandcolitis.org.uk
  • Stop smoking
  • Careful with NSAIDs and COCP (increased risk of relapse)

Inducing remission:

  • First line = glucocorticoids e.g. pred (PO, topical or IV)
  • Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may be used in addition / instead of other measures, particularly if concern regarding steroid SEs (e.g. young children)
  • Second line = 5-ASA drugs (e.g. mesalazine)
  • Azathioprine or mercaptopurine may be used as an add-on medication but not as monotherapy
  • Methotrexate is an alternative to azathioprine
  • Infliximab is useful in refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s. Patients typically continue on azathioprine or methotrexate
  • Metronidazole often used for isolated peri-anal disease

Maintaining remission:

  • First line = azathioprine or mercaptopurine (cannot be given with TPMT mutation, cannot have live vaccines, must have pneumococcal and influenza vaccines)
  • Second line = methotrexate

Surgery:

  • For complications (obstruction, fistula, abscess, severe localised disease unresponsive to treatment)
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29
Q

What are the complications of CD?

A
  • Strictures - managed with endoscopic balloon dilation, stricturoplasty, or bowel resection
  • Fistulas - can cause abscess formation, recurrent infections, and malabsorption. Management includes medical therapy, endoscopic or surgical interventions
  • Abscesses - managed with antibiotics and percutaneous or surgical drainage.
  • Perianal disease - fissures, abscesses, and fistulas. Treatment may involve medical therapy, surgical intervention
  • Malabsorption and nutritional deficiencies - iron, vitamin B12, and fat-soluble vitamins, resulting in anemia, osteoporosis, and other nutritional deficiencies.
  • Colorectal cancer - regular surveillance colonoscopy with biopsies is recommended for early detection and management.
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30
Q

What are the investigations for GORD?

A

Whilst isolated symptoms do not require investigation, patients fitting any of the following criteria should be referred for oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD):

  • Age >55 years
  • Symptoms >4 weeks
  • Dysphagia
  • Persistent symptoms despite treatment
  • Relapsing symptoms
  • Weight loss
  • Excessive vomiting
  • GI bleeding

Other tests include:

  • A barium swallow test should be performed to rule out hiatus hernia.
  • A 24 hour oesophageal PH monitoring may be needed to distinguish GORD from other causes.
  • Patients showing systemic symptoms, or who have lesions shown on OGD, should have a FBC to rule out anaemia.
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31
Q

What is the management of GORD?

A

Lifestyle changes:

  • Reduce weight
  • Stop smoking
  • Decrease alcohol intake
  • Raise head at night (sleep propped up)
  • Avoid hot drinks, alcohol and eating within 3hrs of going to sleep
  • Avoid nitrates, anticholinergics, tricyclic antidepressants, NSAIDs, K+ salts, alendronate

Drugs:

  • Patient without any red flag symptoms should be given a 4 week full-does PPI therapy course.
  • If symptoms return, the dosage of PPI should be stepped down to the lowest level that still relieves symptoms.
  • Offer H2RA therapy if there is inadequate response to a PPI

Consider referring anyone to a specialist who:

  • Has unexplained GORD symptoms not responding to treatment.
  • Is considering surgery.

Surgery:

  • Laparoscopic fundoplication, also known as a Nissen fundoplication, is the surgical procedure of choice.
  • It is indicated for patients who have a confirmed GORD diagnosis via endoscopy, respond to PPI therapy, but do not wish to continue it long term / cannot tolerate acid suppression therapy.
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32
Q

What are the complications of GORD?

A
  • Oesophagitis
  • Strictures
  • Barrett’s oesophagus
  • Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
  • Respiratory complications - chronic cough, asthma exacerbations, laryngitis, and recurrent pneumonia.
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33
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

An iron storage disorder in which iron depositions in multiple organs (such as the liver, skin, pituitary, heart and pancreas) leading to oxidative damage

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34
Q

What is the cause of haemochromatosis?

A

Primary (hereditary):

  • Autosomal recessive mutations to the haemochromatosis (HFE) gene on chromosome 6.

Secondary (acquired):

  • Frequent blood transfusions - each new transfusion introduces new iron which is recycled and stored
  • Iron supplementation - over-supplementing, particularly with concurrent vitamin C.
  • Diseases of erythropoiesis - ineffective erythropoiesis leads to iron accumulation
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35
Q

What are the clinical features of haemochromatosis?

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Non-specific signs of iron overload (fatigue, arthralgias, impotence)
  • Signs of organ damage, such as diabetes
  • Joint symptoms are usually a non-inflammatory osteoarthritis presentation in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, but may be present in larger joints such as the hip and shoulder.
  • ‘classic triad’ of cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus and bronze pigmentation is rarely the initial presentation.
  • Pigmentation will initially present as skin bronzing but if it has progressed then may be grey or brown.
  • Pigmentation most commonly occurs on the face and neck, extensor surfaces of the forearms, dorsum of the hands, lower legs, genitals, and in old scars.
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36
Q

What are the investigations for haemochromatosis?

A

Bloods:

  • Serum ferritin - raised
  • Transferrin saturation - raised
  • LFTs - AST and ALT raised
  • FBC - normal

Molecular Testing:

  • HFE gene mutation

Liver biopsy:

  • If clinical evidence of liver involvement and/or serum ferritin >2247pmol/L
  • To estimate hepatocyte iron content and assess extent of fibrosis or cirrhosis.
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37
Q

What is the management of haemochromatosis?

A

Patient advice:

  • Avoid iron and iron-containing supplements
  • Avoid vitamin C supplements (increases the bioavailability of iron for enteric absorption)
  • Limit or avoid alcohol
  • Consider hepatitis A and B vaccinations if no previous encounter.

Stage 0: Normal transferrin saturation and ferritin with no clinical symptoms:

  • Monitoring iron labs and symptoms every 3 years

Stage 1: Transferrin saturation > 45%, normal ferritin, no clinical symptoms:

  • Monitoring iron labs and symptoms every 1 year

Stage 2, 3, 4: Transferrin saturation > 45%, raised ferritin and/or clinical symptoms:

  • Phlebotomy // venesection - blood removed to stimulate haematopoiesis, thereby utilising some of the excess iron for haem synthesis
  • Iron chelation therapy - if phlebotomy contraindicated (e.g. anaemia, cardiac disease or venous access issues). Both oral agents (Deferasirox) and parenteral agents (Desferrioxamine) are available

Liver transplant:

  • Patients with end-stage cirrhotic liver disease
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38
Q

What are the complications of haemochromatosis?

A
  • Liver fibrosis / cirrhosis
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Diabetes
  • Arrhythmia due to iron deposition in conduction pathway
  • Cardiomyopathy: either dilated or dilated-restrictive
  • Chronic congestive heart failure
  • Hypogonadism
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39
Q

Describe the classification of IBS

A
  • IBS with predominant constipation (IBS-C)
  • IBS with predominant diarrhoea (IBS-D)
  • IBS with mixed bowel habits (IBS-M)
  • IBS unclassified (IBS-U)
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40
Q

What are the investigations for IBS?

A

Suggested primary care investigations are:

  • full blood count
  • ESR/CRP
  • coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies)
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41
Q

How is IBS diagnosed?

A

Rome IV criteria:
A patient must have recurrent abdominal pain for at least 1 day per week during the previous 3 months, and this pain should be associated with at least 2 of 3 three criteria:

  • Pain related to defecation: The pain is either relieved or worsened by bowel movements.
  • Change in frequency of stool: The patient experiences an increase or decrease in the number of bowel movements per day.
  • Change in form (appearance) of stool: The stool becomes harder or softer, or there is a change in its consistency.

These symptoms must be present for the last 3 months, with symptom onset at least 6 months before diagnosis.

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42
Q

What is the management of IBS?

A

First-line pharmacological treatment:

  • pain: antispasmodic agents
  • constipation: laxatives but avoid lactulose
  • diarrhoea: loperamide

Second-line pharmacological treatment:

  • low-dose tricyclic antidepressants (e.g. amitriptyline 5-10 mg)

Psychological interventions:

  • If symptoms do not respond to pharmacological treatments after 12 months and who develop a continuing symptom profile (refractory IBS), consider referring for CBT, hypnotherapy or psychological therapy

General dietary advice:

  • have regular meals and take time to eat
  • avoid missing meals or leaving long gaps between eating
  • drink at least 8 cups of fluid per day, especially water or other non-caffeinated drinks such as herbal teas
  • restrict tea and coffee to 3 cups per day
  • reduce intake of alcohol and fizzy drinks
  • consider limiting intake of high-fibre food
  • reduce intake of ‘resistant starch’ often found in processed foods
  • limit fresh fruit to 3 portions per day
  • for diarrhoea, avoid sorbitol
  • for wind and bloating consider increasing intake of oats and linseeds
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43
Q

What is ischaemic hepatitis?

A

An important cause of acute liver failure and occurs as a result of impaired blood flow to the hepatic parenchyma

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44
Q

What are the causes of ischaemic hepatitis?

A

Mostly no cause identified

Any condition resulting in a shock state may precipitate ischaemic hepatitis:

  • Heart failure
  • Septic shock
  • Hypovolemic shock
  • Respiratory failure

Other causes include:

  • Portal vein thrombosis
  • Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • Sickle cell crisis
  • Hepatic artery thrombosis
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45
Q

What are the clinical features of ischaemic hepatitis?

A
  • Patients are generally older and often suffer from chronic cardiac, vascular, pulmonary, or hepatic comorbidities, which may be complicated by shock.
  • The patient will present acutely unwell
  • Symptoms are generally non specific and include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.
  • The clinical picture may be complicated by signs and symptoms of shock
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46
Q

What are the investigations for ischaemic hepatitis?

A

Liver enzymes:

  • Transaminases in the thousands, rising to these levels within 24 hours, falling to half within 72 hours, and normalising within 2 weeks
  • ALP will not typically show such a great increase, but may go up to twice the upper limit of normal
  • LDH levels will also rise dramatically, often the ALT/LDH ratio will be less than 1
  • Bilirubin levels start to rise as aminotransferase levels decline, and may go up to 4 times normal

Viral serology:

  • To rule out acute viral hepatitis, typically hepatitis A, B or E

Toxicology:

  • Toxin mediated hepatic damage is another cause of transaminases in the thousands, especially paracetamol overdose

Serum creatinine:

  • Levels may be elevated as a result of hypotensive injury to the kidneys and may support a diagnosis of ischaemic hepatitis.

Other tests:

  • Anti-smooth muscle antibody for autoimmune hepatitis
  • Right upper quadrant USS with doppler to assess for portal vein thrombosis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, or congestive hepatomegaly
  • If the diagnosis remains unclear, a liver biopsy may be performed
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47
Q

What is the management of ischaemic hepatitis?

A

The mainstay of management is resolution of the precipitant of the hepatic ischaemia.

Prompt resolution of any haemodynamic instability by providing fluid resuscitation, restoring cardiac output, and treating sepsis where appropriate is essential as delays in management are lethal.

Admission into an intensive treatment unit with close ongoing monitoring is often necessary.

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48
Q

Which conditions predispose to a Mallory-Weiss Tear?

A
  • Alcoholism
  • Hiatal hernia
  • Bulimia nervosa
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum
  • GORD
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49
Q

What are precipitating factors for a MWT?

A
  • Severe vomiting
  • Coughing
  • Blunt abdominal trauma
  • Strained defecation
  • Oesophageal instrumentation
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50
Q

What are the investigations for a MWT?

A

Initial laboratory investigation:

  • FBC, including haematocrit to assess severity of initial bleeding episode
  • Coagulation studies and platelet counts to detect coagulopathies and thrombocytopenias (routine platelet count, PT, and APTT) - typically normal
  • LFTs to rule out liver disease
  • Renal function, urea, creatinine, and electrolyte levels (to guide intravenous fluid therapy) - urea may be high in a patient with ongoing bleeding
  • Cross-matching/ blood grouping and antibody screen (potential blood transfusion)

Other tests to consider:

  • ECG, troponin, creatinine kinase (should be considered in patients with a history of CAD, symptoms of cardiac ischaemia, massive bleeding, or multiple comorbidities)

Diagnosis of aetiology:

  • Upper endoscopy: It should be performed in all patients after stabilisation. It is the test of choice for diagnosis and treatment and should be done within 24 hours.
  • Findings include single and longitudinal tear that typically appears as a red longitudinal break in the mucosa.
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51
Q

Describe the immediate resuscitation of a patient with a MWT

A
  • Establishment of a good central or peripheral IV access (usually 2 lines) along with fluid replacement.
  • Packed RBCs infusion indicated if the Hb <8 gm/dl or if patient presents with signs of shock or severe bleeding.
  • Nasogastric decompression using NG tube could be performed, especially in patients with ongoing bleeding or those suspected of having concomitant upper GI bleeding sources.
  • Electrolyte imbalance correction
  • Coagulation factors need to be optimised before proceeding with endoscopy.
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52
Q

Describe the management of a MWT

A

Pharmacological treatment:

  • PPIs or H2 antagonists = first-line, given to all waiting for endoscopy / have clinically significant upper GI bleeding
  • Anti-emetics: considered if N/V, which may be a cause / aggravating factor
  • Somatostatin and its long-acting synthetic analogue octreotide: not routinely recommended for patients with non-variceal upper GI bleeding; however, they may be considered as an adjunct treatment to PPIs and endoscopy until more definitive diagnostic tests and therapeutic procedures are implemented

Endoscopic treatment:

  • Oesophagogastroscopy is investigation of choice in all cases of upper GI bleeding. It is indicated after medical treatment is given in case of actively bleeding (spurting or oozing haemorrhage) MWT.
  • Endoscopic band ligation (with or without epinephrine injection)
  • Haemoclip placement is an effective method to control actively bleeding lesions.
  • Thermocoagulation therapy

Surgery:

  • Surgery usually reserved for situations where endoscopic haemostasis of bleeding has failed or transmural oesophageal perforation has occurred
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53
Q

What risk assessment / scoring systems are used in MWTs?

A

Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score
Clinical Rockall score

> > Used to stratify patients as low or high risk. Patients are classified according to who should have an endoscopic evaluation, who may be discharged with minimal risk of complications, and who should be admitted to hospital for further observation.

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54
Q

What is microscopic colitis?

A

a chronic inflammatory condition of the gut

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55
Q

What are RFs for microscopic colitis?

A

smoking
drugs: NSAIDs, PPIs and SSRIs

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56
Q

What are the clinical features of microscopic colitis?

A
  • Diarrhoea - chronic, watery, non-bloody diarrhoea that can persist for weeks to months or even years if left untreated
  • Abdominal pain - intermittent abdominal pain or cramping that can be mild to moderate in intensity.
  • Faecal urgency and incontinence
  • Bloating and flatulence
  • Weight loss - consequence of malabsorption or decreased oral intake due to fear of exacerbating diarrhoea.
  • Nocturnal diarrhoea

Extraintestinal manifestations:

  • Joint pain
  • Erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
  • Increased prevalence of concomitant autoimmune disorders including celiac disease, thyroid dysfunction, rheumatoid arthritis, and type 1 diabetes mellitus
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57
Q

What are the investigations for microscopic colitis?

A

Initial investigations for chronic diarrhoea:

  • Blood tests: FBC, CRP, TFTs and coeliac serology
  • Stool samples: to exclude infective causes and for faecal calprotectin levels
  • If malignancy is suspected then a 2-week wait referral should be considered

Colonoscopy and biopsy:
Only diagnosed by histology examination

  • Lymphocytic colitis: increased number of intraepithelial and lamina propria lymphocytes (>20 per 100 cells)
  • Collagenous colitis: as above, along with a thickened collagenous band in the subepithelial layer (>10μm)
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58
Q

What is the management of microscopic colitis?

A

Lifestyle factors:

  • Stopping smoking
  • Stopping medications such as NSAIDs, PPIs and SSRIs where possible
  • Decreasing caffeine intake
  • Decreasing dairy intake (in patients with lactose intolerance)
  • Decreasing alcohol consumption

Pharmacological interventions:
Considered if lifestyle factors are unsuccessful in managing symptoms

  • Mild cases = anti-diarrhoeal drugs such as loperamide may be effective in achieving symptomatic relief
  • Budesonide = effective in the induction and maintenance of remission. A typical dosage is 9mg daily for 8 weeks and the medication then stopped to assess response. If symptoms recur, then re-initiation of budesonide may be necessary.
  • No response to budesonide = immunomodulators (e.g. azathioprine) and biologics (e.g. anti-TNF-alpha drugs).
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59
Q

What are RFs for peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • H pylori is associated with the majority of peptic ulcers
  • Drugs - NSAIDs, SSRIs, corticosteroids, bisphosphonates
  • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - rare cause characterised by excessive levels of gastrin, usually from a gastrin secreting tumour
60
Q

What are the clinical features of peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • epigastric pain
  • nausea
  • duodenal ulcers - epigastric pain when hungry, relieved by eating
  • gastric ulcers - epigastric pain worsened by eating
61
Q

What are the investigations for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Helicobacter pylori should be tested for
either a Urea breath test or stool antigen test should be used first-line

62
Q

What is the management of peptic ulcer disease?

A

H pylori negative:

  • PPIs until the ulcer is healed

H pylori positive:

  • Eradication therapy
63
Q

What conditions are associated with PBC?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome (seen in up to 80% of patients)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic sclerosis
Thyroid disease

64
Q

What are the clinical features of PBC?

A
  • Early: may be asymptomatic (e.g. raised ALP on routine LFTs) or fatigue, pruritus
  • Cholestatic jaundice
  • Hyperpigmentation, especially over pressure points
  • Right upper quadrant pain
  • Xanthelasmas, xanthomata
  • Also: clubbing, hepatosplenomegaly
  • Late: may progress to liver failure
65
Q

What are the investigations for PBC?

A
  • Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype
  • Smooth muscle antibodies in 30% of patients
  • Raised serum IgM
66
Q

What is the management of PBC?

A

First line = Ursodeoxycholic acid

  • Pruritus - cholestyramine
  • Fat-soluble vitamin supplementation
  • Liver transplantation e.g. if bilirubin > 100 (PBC is a major indication) - recurrence in graft can occur but is not usually a problem
67
Q

What are the complications of PBC?

A
  • Cirrhosis
  • Osteomalacia and osteoporosis
  • Significantly increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
68
Q

What conditions are associated with PSC?

A
  • ulcerative colitis: 4% of patients with UC have PSC, 80% of patients with PSC have UC
  • Crohn’s (much less common association than UC)
  • HIV
69
Q

What are the clinical features of PSC?

A
  • Often asymptomatic in its early stages
  • fatigue
  • pruritus
  • right upper quadrant pain
  • jaundice
  • As the disease progresses, patients may develop complications related to cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and cholangiocarcinoma.
70
Q

What is a concerning complication of PSC?

A

The development of cholangiocarcinoma is a significant concern in PSC, with a lifetime risk of 5-15%

+increased risk of colorectal cancer

71
Q

What are the investigations for PSC?

A

Bloods:

  • elevated ALP and GGT
  • p-ANCA may be positive

ERCP or MRCP:

  • standard diagnostic investigations
  • showing multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance

There is a limited role for liver biopsy, which may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis often described as ‘onion skin’

72
Q

What is the management of PSC?

A

There is no curative treatment for PSC, and management focuses on symptom relief, prevention, and management of complications.

  • Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)
  • Endoscopic interventions, such as balloon dilatation and stenting, can be employed to manage dominant strictures.
  • Liver transplantation is the only definitive treatment for end-stage liver disease due to PSC.
73
Q

What is small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome (SBBOS)?

A

a disorder characterised by excessive amounts of bacteria in the small bowel resulting in gastrointestinal symptoms.

74
Q

What are RFs for SBBOS?

A
  • neonates with congenital gastrointestinal abnormalities
  • scleroderma
  • diabetes mellitus
75
Q

What are the clinical features of SBBOS?

A
  • chronic diarrhoea
  • bloating, flatulence
  • abdominal pain
76
Q

How is SBBOS diagnosed?

A
  • Hydrogen breath test
  • Small bowel aspiration and culture - used less often as invasive and results are often difficult to reproduce

Clinicians may sometimes give a course of antibiotics as a diagnostic trial

77
Q

What is the management of SBBOS?

A
  • Correction of underlying disorder
  • Antibiotic therapy - rifaximin is now the treatment of choice due to relatively low resistance
  • Co-amoxiclav or metronidazole are also effective in the majority of patients.
78
Q

How is UC classified?

A

Based on the extent and severity of colonic involvement:

  • Ulcerative proctitis: Inflammation is limited to the rectum.
  • Proctosigmoiditis: Involves the rectum and sigmoid colon.
  • Left-sided colitis: Extends from the rectum to the splenic flexure.
  • Pancolitis: Affects the entire colon.
79
Q

What are the complications of UC?

A
  • Toxic megacolon - acute and severe colonic dilation, associated with systemic toxicity and increased risk of perforation.
  • Perforation - full-thickness colonic injury, leading to peritonitis and sepsis.
  • Haemorrhage - severe blood loss, requiring transfusion or surgical intervention.
  • Strictures - chronic inflammation and fibrosis may lead to bowel obstruction.
  • Colorectal cancer - long-standing UC increases the risk of colorectal cancer, necessitating regular surveillance colonoscopy.
80
Q

What are the extra-intestinal manifestations of UC?

A
  • Arthritis (peripheral or axial)
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Osteoporosis.
  • Erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, and aphthous stomatitis.
  • Uveitis, episcleritis, and scleritis.
  • PSC, autoimmune hepatitis, and cholelithiasis.
  • Anaemia, thrombocytosis, and increased risk of VTE
81
Q

What are the investigations for UC?

A

Bloods:

  • FBC (anaemia, leukocytosis)
  • CRP/ESR
  • CMP (including LFTs)

Stool sample:

  • Test for c. Dif / other infective pathogens
  • Faecal calprotectin (raised)

Abdominal X-Ray:

  • Dilated loops with air-fluid level secondary to ileus
  • Free air = perforation
  • Toxic megacolon = transverse colon dilated to ≥6cm in diameter

Flexible sigmoidoscopy / Colonoscopy & Biopsy:
GOLD STANDARD FOR DX

  • Continuous colitis extending from rectum proximally
  • Superficial inflammation (not beyond submucosa)
  • Loss of vascular marking
  • Diffuse erythema
  • Ulceration and psuedopolyps
  • Crypt abscesses
  • Depletion of goblet cells and mucin

Barium enema:

  • Loss of haustrations
  • Superficial ulceration, ‘pseudopolyps’
  • Long standing disease = colon is narrow and short (drainpipe colon)
82
Q

What is the management of UC?

A

Inducing remission:
(Topical > oral if no improvement after 4w)

  • 1st line: Topical/Oral aminosalicylates e.g. mesalazine
  • 2nd line: Topical/Oral CS e.g. pred, beclomethasone
  • 3rd line (steroid resistant): Oral tacrolimus
  • 4th line: Biological agents e.g. infliximab
  • 5th line (resistant disease): Surgery (colectomy with ileostomy or ileojejunal pouch)

Maintaining remission:

  • ASA (topical, topical + oral, oral)

Surgical:

  • Surgery may be indicated for patients with UC who have complications, such as toxic megacolon, perforation, or severe bleeding, or who fail to respond to medical therapy.
83
Q

How is the severity of UC graded?

A
  • mild: < 4 stools/day, only a small amount of blood
  • moderate: 4-6 stools/day, varying amounts of blood, no systemic upset
  • severe: >6 bloody stools per day + features of systemic upset (pyrexia, tachycardia, anaemia, raised inflammatory markers)
84
Q

What is the management of severe colitis?

A

EMERGENCY > Treated in hospital with MDT approach

  • 1st line = IV corticosteroids
  • 2nd line = IV ciclosporin (CS contraindicated or ineffective)
  • 3rd line = Surgery
85
Q

What is the recommended duration of isolation for c. diff?

A

48hrs

86
Q

Which antibiotic is historically associated with causing C. difficile ?

A

Clindamycin

87
Q

What are the clinical features of c. diff?

A
  • diarrhoea
  • abdominal pain
  • a raised WCC is characteristic
  • if severe toxic megacolon may develop
88
Q

How is c. diff diagnosed?

A
  • Detecting C. difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool
  • C. difficile antigen positivity only shows exposure to the bacteria, rather than current infection
89
Q

What is the management of c. diff?

A

First episode:

  • First-line = oral vancomycin for 10 days
  • Second-line = oral fidaxomicin
  • Third-line = oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole

Recurrent episode:

  • Within 12 weeks of symptom resolution = oral fidaxomicin
  • After 12 weeks of symptom resolution = oral vancomycin OR fidaxomicin

Life-threatening:

  • Oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
  • Specialist advice - surgery may be considered
90
Q

What are the characteristic electrolyte disturbances seen in patients with refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia

91
Q

What vaccine is specifically recommended for patients diagnosed with coeliac?

A

Pneumococcal

92
Q

middle-aged women with fatigue and pruritis?

A

PBC

93
Q

What is the most appropriate tool to screen for malnutrition?

A

The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST)

94
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

Triad of:

  • dysphagia (secondary to oesophageal webs)
  • glossitis
  • iron-deficiency anaemia

Treatment includes iron supplementation and dilation of the webs

95
Q

Recently been in swimming pools. The stool floats in the toilet water, but there is no blood. What is the most likely cause?

A

Giardia lamblia

Giardia causes fat malabsorption, therefore greasy stool can occur.

It is resistant to chlorination, hence risk of transfer in swimming pools.

96
Q

firm, smooth, tender and pulsatile liver edge?

A

Right heart failure

97
Q

How can haemochromatosis effect sexual function?

A

Can cause hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

Low FSH, LH, oestrogen, testosterone, progesterone

98
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

autosomal recessive disorder characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues

99
Q

A combination of liver and neurological disease?

A

Wilson’s disease

100
Q

What are the clinical features of Wilson’s disease?

A

Liver:

  • Hepatitis, cirrhosis

Neurological:

  • Basal ganglia degeneration
  • Speech, behavioural and psychiatric problems are often the first manifestations
  • Also: asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism

Also:

  • Kayser-Fleischer rings - green-brown rings in the periphery of the iris
  • Renal tubular acidosis (esp. Fanconi syndrome)
  • Haemolysis
  • Blue nails
101
Q

What are the investigations for Wilson’s disease?

A
  • Slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings
  • Reduced serum caeruloplasmin
  • Reduced total serum copper
  • Increased free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper
  • Increased 24hr urinary copper excretion

> > Diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene

102
Q

What is the management of Wilson’s disease?

A
  • Penicillamine (chelates copper) = traditional first-line treatment
  • Trientine hydrochloride = alternative chelating agent which may become first-line in the future
103
Q

prophylaxis of oesophageal bleeding?

A

non-cardioselective B-blocker (NSBB) e.g. propranolol

104
Q

management of a variceal bleed?

A

ABC:

  • Patients should be resuscitated prior to endoscopy
  • Blood transfusion may be needed

Correct clotting:

  • FFP, vitamin K, platelet transfusions may be required

Vasoactive agents:

  • Terlipressin to stop active bleeding
  • Octreotide may also be used

Prophylactic IV antibiotics:

  • Have been shown to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis
  • Quinolones are typically used

Both terlipressin and antibiotics should be given before endoscopy in patients with suspected variceal haemorrhage

Endoscopy:

  • Endoscopic variceal band ligation
  • Once bleeding controlled

If uncontrolled haemorrhage:

  • Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS):

  • If above measures fail
  • Connects the hepatic vein to the portal vein
  • Exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy is a common complication
105
Q

Management of constipation ?

A

first-line laxative = bulk-forming laxative such as ispaghula

Second-line = osmotic laxative, such as a macrogol

106
Q

What is the management of Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

1. High-dose PPI

2. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies

  • Metaplasia (but not dysplasia) = every 3-5 years
  • Dysplasia of any grade = endoscopic intervention is offered

3. Endoscopic intervention

  • Radiofrequency ablation: preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia
  • Endoscopic mucosal resection
107
Q

What malignancy does achalasia increase the risk of?

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

108
Q

Describe the differences between the 2 oesophageal cancers

A
109
Q

management of mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis?

A

topical (rectal) aminosalicylates e.g. mesalazine suppositories

if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add an oral aminosalicylate

if remission still not achieved add topical or oral corticosteroid

110
Q

what laxative is not recommended in IBS?

A

lactulose
as it can increase gas production, thereby making symptoms worse in some patients.

111
Q

When should omeprazole not be prescribed?
(drug interaction)

A

clopidogrel

112
Q

treatment for nausea with migraines ?

A

metoclopramide

113
Q

iron study profile in haemochromatosis?

A

↑ Transferrin saturation
↑ serum ferritin
↓ total iron binding capacity

114
Q

isolated rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress ?

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

115
Q

drugs which may cause cholestasis ?

A

COCP
antibiotics such as co-amoxiclav, phenothiazines, sulphonylureas, fibrates and anabolic steroids

116
Q

What is Melanosis coli?

A

a disorder of pigmentation of the bowel wall. Histology demonstrates pigment-laden macrophages.

It is associated with laxative abuse, especially anthraquinone compounds such as senna

117
Q

Patients with HNPCC are at a higher risk of which cancers?

A

COLON

Also endometrial

118
Q

What are the 3 causes of colon cancer?

A
  • Sporadic (95%)
  • Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC, 5%)
  • Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP, <1%)
119
Q

Patients with FAP are also at risk from which cancer?

A

duodenal tumours

120
Q

Gardner’s syndrome

A

A variant of FAP

Also features osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma and epidermoid cysts on the skin

121
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

An autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa that results in vitamin B12 deficiency.

122
Q

What causes pernicious anaemia?

A

antibodies to intrinsic factor +/- gastric parietal cells

123
Q

What are the clinical features of pernicious anaemia?

A
  • Anaemia features
  • Peripheral neuropathy - ‘pins and needles’, numbness
  • Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord - progressive weakness, ataxia and paresthesias that may progress to spasticity and paraplegia
  • Neuropsychiatric features - memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, irritabiltiy
    other features
  • Mild jaundice - combined with pallor results in a ‘lemon tinge’
  • Glossitis → sore tongue
124
Q

What are the investigations for pernicious anaemia?

A
  • Macrocytic anaemia
  • Hypersegmented polymorphs on blood film
  • Low WCC and platelets may also be seen
  • Vitamin B12 level of >= 200 nh/L is generally considered to be normal
  • Anti intrinsic factor antibodies
  • Anti gastric parietal cell antibodies
  • Schilling test is no longer routinely done (radiolabelled B12 given on two occasions, firstly on its own, secondly with oral IF. Urine B12 levels are then measured)
125
Q

What is the management of pernicious anaemia?

A
  • Vitamin B12 replacement - usually given IM
  • Folic acid supplementation may also be required
126
Q

What is the main complication of pernicious anaemia?

A

increased risk of gastric cancer

127
Q

How is the severity of c. diff determined?

A

Mild:

  • Normal WCC

Moderate:
- ↑ WCC (<15)
- Typically 3-5 loose stools /d

Severe:

  • ↑ WCC (>15)
  • or an acutely ↑ creatinine (>50% above baseline)
  • or a temperature > 38.5°C
  • or evidence of severe colitis (abdominal or radiological signs)

Life-threatening:

  • Hypotension
  • Partial or complete ileus
  • Toxic megacolon, or CT evidence of severe disease
128
Q

Management of UC Following a severe relapse or >=2 exacerbations in the past year?

A

oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine

129
Q

vomiting, thoracic pain, subcutaneous emphysema (mild crepitus in the epigastric region)?

A

The Mackler triad for Boerhaave syndrome

130
Q

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A

Spontaneous perforation of the esophagus that results from a sudden increase in intraesophageal pressure combined with negative intrathoracic pressure (eg, severe straining or vomiting)

131
Q

What is the management of Bile-acid malabsorption?

A

bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

132
Q

What can be a trigger for liver decompensation in cirrhotic patients?

A

What can be a trigger for liver decompensation in cirrhotic patients?

133
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome (HRS) ?

A

A type of functional kidney impairment that occurs in patients with advanced liver disease.

The key features include ascites, low urine output, and a significant increase in serum creatinine

134
Q

What is the management of HRS?

A
  • Vasopressin analogues, for example terlipressin,
  • Volume expansion with 20% albumin
  • Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
135
Q

How does PSC look on USS?

A

bile duct dilatation

136
Q

test used to check for h. pylori eradication?

A

urea breath test

137
Q

which drugs can cause cholestasis?

A
  • combined oral contraceptive pill
  • antibiotics: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
  • anabolic steroids, testosterones
  • phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
  • sulphonylureas
  • fibrates
  • rare reported causes: nifedipine
138
Q

What is diagnostic of malnutrition?

A

Unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months

139
Q

Regime for H. pylori eradication ?

A

PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin, or
PPI + clarithromycin + metronidazole

140
Q

Management complex perianal fistulae in patients with Crohn’s disease ?

A

A draining seton

141
Q

Clinical features of achalasia?

A
  • dysphagia of BOTH liquids and solids
  • typically variation in severity of symptoms
  • heartburn
  • regurgitation of food
  • may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia etc
  • malignant change in small number of patients
142
Q

Investigations for achalasia?

A

oesophageal manometry:

  • excessive LOS tone which doesn’t relax on swallowing
  • considered the most important diagnostic test

barium swallow:

  • shows grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level
  • ‘bird’s beak’ appearance

chest x-ray:

  • wide mediastinum
  • fluid level
143
Q

Management for achalasia?

A

First line = pneumatic (balloon) dilation

  • less invasive and quicker recovery time than surgery
  • patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur

Second line = surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy

  • if recurrent or persistent symptoms

Alternatives:

  • intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is sometimes used in patients who are a high surgical risk
  • drug therapy (e.g. nitrates, CCB) has a role but is limited by side-effects
144
Q

Drug to reverse dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

145
Q
A