Med EMRG Exam 1

Question 1

Answer 1

Biot’s: Irregular pattern (↑ ICP).

Question 2

Answer 2

Kussmaul’s: Deep & labored (DKA).

Question 3

Answer 3

Apneustic: Gasping inspiration w/ long pauses

Question 4

Answer 4

Cheyne-Stokes: Waxing & waning w/ apneic periods (↑ ICP).

Question 5

Answer 5

Central neurogenic ventilation

Question 6

Shortened Nrv. pathway involved in a reflex action is:
Speed of reflex ultimately allows for

Answer 6

= reflex arc
= quick responses, reducing the seriousness of injury. Other reflexes help stabilize the body if it stands in one position for a length of time.

Question 7

Reflex arc:
Acquires impulse speed via:

Answer 7

= sensory ascending Nrv. pathway involved in reflex action
= Short pathway

Question 8

1 Cause of Cardiogenic shock

Answer 8

Heart Attack / MI

Question 9

CAD):
CVD):

Answer 9

= Coronary Artery disease: disease affecting coronary vessels
= Cardiovascular disease: affecting heart, peripheral blood vessels, or both

Question 10

ipsilateral:
Contralateral:

Answer 10

= same side
= opposite side

Question 11

PVC) Bigeminy:
Trigeminy
Quadgeminy

Answer 11

= 2rd beat uni/PVC regularly “boom PVC” (1:1 pattern)
= 3rd beat is uni/PVC regularly “boom boom PVC)
= 4rd beat is uni/PVC regularly “boom boom boom PVC” 2-3x

Question 12

Lung perfusion depends on 3 conditions:

Answer 12

= Adequate blood vol/, Intact pulmonary capillaries, Efficient pumping of blood by the heart

Question 13

O2 gradient provides the driving force in:
Larger difference between concentration of oxygen in the alveoli & capillaries:

Answer 13

= moving oxygen into the capillaries (diffusion)
= the greater the diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream

Question 14

Fixed pacer:

Demand pacer:

Answer 14

=NONDEMAND PACER Fires continuously at preset rate, regardless of heart’s electrical activity, TC pacing nondemand
= non-fixed, Sensing device; fires only when natural HR drops

Question 15

Atrial pacer:
Definers:
Treatment:

Answer 15

= paces only in atrium
=Atrial line w/ P wave following
= (ask PT for pacemaker card) Magnet donut, TCP, bradyC & asystole as any other PT

Question 16

Ventricular pacer:
Definers:
Treatment:

Answer 16

= paces only in ventricle
= line before QRS complex & Wide QRS
= (ask PT for pacemaker card) Magnet donut, TCP, bradyC & asystole as any other PT

Question 17

AV Sequential pacer:
Definers:
Treatment:

Answer 17

= paces in atrium & ventricle
= line before P wave & QRS, wide QRS
= (ask PT for pacemaker card) Magnet donut, TCP, bradyC & asystole as any other PT

Question 18

Failure to capture pacer:
Definers:
Treatment:

Answer 18

= not shocking/pacing when supposed to
= Pacer Spikes are not before each beat
= (ask PT for pacemaker card) Magnet donut, TCP, bradyC & asystole as any other PT

Question 19

1 cause of death when having a MI

Answer 19

is from a lethal dysarrhythmia

Question 20

1. Tonic Phase:
2. Hypertonic Phase:
3. Clonic Phase:
4. Postictal:
5. Aura:

Answer 20

1= “Tensed” contraction of muscles
2= Muscular rigidity w/ hyperextension of back
3= “Crazy” Rhythmic jerking motion of EXTRMS, SC-muscles & diaphragm temporarily paralyzed, can cause skeletal injuries, Severe acidosis from excessive ATP waste (Co2, H2o, temp)
4= State of confusion & fatigue after clonic phase; Brain restarting & exhausted from activity
5= sensation that sometimes precedes a seizure: Smell, taste, sound, Commonly metallic taste, can be any sense

Question 21

2 general mechanisms for AMS:

Answer 21

Structural Lesions & Toxic-metabolic states
Other general causes of AMS: Drugs, Cardiovascular problems, Respiratory problems, Infections

Question 22

3 Is of cardiac) Ischemia:
“Infarct” Injury:
Infarction:

Answer 22

= Ischemia: ST depres/, Hyperacute T waves>5chest avf >10 precordial
= “Infarct” Injury: ST elevation 50%,
= Infarction: old MI; >25% Q or QRS >1SB

Question 23

an atmospheric Pressure is how many ft/yards:
Pluera fluid & -neg pressure:
With what condition “can get air in but not out”
which is active & passive w/ I:E

Answer 23

= 33ft / 11yards
= ~⅓ of keeping negative pressure 10-15mLs
= COPD
= inhalation active & exhalation passive

Question 24

What are the two main causes of AMS?

Answer 24

= Structural lesions & toxic-metabolic states.

Question 25

How does arterial PCO2 increase affect blood pH? How does carbon dioxide leave the blood:

Answer 25

= decreases blood pH by increasing the concentration of hydrogen ions = CO2 moves out of the blood into alveoli due to the concentration gradient.

Question 26

: What structure produces the majority of CSF?

Answer 26

Choroid plexus

Question 27

A patient calls 911 today because they are having some trouble breathing. The patient states for the last couple of days, they have had some on and off again chest pain with dyspnea, and today they started to notice some swelling in their ankles. Based off this history, you would suspect

Answer 27

The patient started with left ventricular failure that is now causing the right ventricle to fail as well

Question 28

A patient is unable to move their eyes downward and medially. What cranial nerve is dysfunctional?

Answer 28

Cranial Nerve IV

Question 29

A patient stated they were diagnosed with a disease of the lungs that dealt with the direct destruction of the alveoli. You would identify this as

Answer 29

Emphysema

Question 30

L-ventricular dysfunction S/S:

Answer 30

Dyspnea, Rales, Tachypnea "Left Lungs"

Question 31

R-ventricular dysfunction would most likely present with:

Answer 31

Ascites, JVD, Peripheral edema "Right Tight (skin w/ edema)"

Question 32

Pick’s disease: S/S:

Answer 32

= permanent form of dementia; tends to affect only certain areas of brain & have abnormal substances (called Pick bodies & cells) inside nerve cells in the damaged areas of brain. These Pick bodies contain an abnormal form of a protein called tau. The exact cause of the disease is unknown = tend to behave the wrong way in different social settings. The changes in behavior continue to get worse and are often one of the most disturbing symptoms of the disease. Some patients will have more prominent difficulty with decision making, complex tasks, or language (trouble finding or understanding words or writing). There is no specific treatment for Pick’s disease.

Question 33

A pulmonary disease that is created by the pulmonary tissue producing excessive amount of mucus is:

Answer 33

Chronic Bronchitis

Question 34

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA): S/S: Ligament:

Answer 34

= Bulging of abdominal aorta. = Pulsatile abdominal mass, back/ABDMN pain, hypoBP if ruptured = Ligamentum arteriosum

Question 35

Abdominal situs Inversus=

Answer 35

Spleen & Liver flipped but H normal

Question 36

Absence Seizure (Petit Mal Seizure): Seizure characteristics:

Answer 36

Generalized, nonconvulsive seizure, w/ brief LOC (blank stare), motionless, unresponsive (can become grand mal & rarely has aura) = “Brain pauses then resumes”, 10-30secs duration, Commonly 3-5 secs only, PT able to resume normal activity immediately after seizure (Glutamate kicks in & shuts down)

Question 37

Adrenal Gland Disorders:

Answer 37

= Hyperadrenalism (Cushing’s Syndrome) & Hypoadrenalism (Addison’s Disease)

Question 38

adventitious lung sounds:

Answer 38

= crackles/rales, wheezes, rhonchi, stridor, & pleural rubs

Question 39

Huntington’s chorea/ Huntington’s disease) Cause: 2 Forms & most common: Adult onset: Early onset: S/S:

Answer 39

= genetic defect in chromosome #4. = (Adult & Early onset) Adult onset is most common = develop symptoms in their mid-30s & 40s = begins in childhood or adolescence. = can resembleParkinson’s disease w/ rigidity, slow/unusual Mnt, tremor, behavioral changes (e.g., antisocial behaviors, irritability, and hallucinations), , & dementia (e.g., loss of memory and judgment). There is no treatment

Question 40

Alvelore pores: Dust cells: Type 2 cells:

Answer 40

= “back doors” produces surfactant = macrophages of the lungs = are the last cells dev in ertro & produces surfactant & reason why babys have issues w/ BVM Fetal lung fluid

Question 41

Alzheimer’s Disease: Brain differences: Effects of brain & S/S:

Answer 41

= Subtle onset of memory loss followed slowly progressive dementia over several years = diffuse atrophy of cerebral cortex & enlarged ventricles =Presence of abnormal deposits of proteins Amyloid plaques & tau tangles |Memory loss, Shuffling gait, Muscle stiffness, Aphasia

Question 42

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) aka Characterized by:

Answer 42

= Lou Gehrig’s disease, progressive degeneration of specific nerve cells that control voluntary mnt. = weakness, loss of motor control, dysphasia,& cramping, & eventually weakens the diaphragm

Question 43

Amyotrophic: Lateral Sclerosis:

Answer 43

= shrinkage of musculature = loss of nerve fibers in lateral columns of WM of SC (No cure & poor prognosis – Death w/in 2-5Yrs)

Question 44

An unconscious patient was pulled out of his enclosed garage after he attempted to kill himself with carbon monoxide. Your partner has attached the CO-Oximeter and it shows a reading a 50% carboxyhemoglobin. You quickly identify this as:

Answer 44

Severe CO poisoning

Question 45

Anabolism: Catabolism:

Answer 45

=building processes within a cell (Uses Energy) = Breakdown processes w/in cell (produces energy)

Question 46

ANP Atrial natriuretic peptide:

Answer 46

made, stored, & released by atrial M> cells in response to atrial distension & Sympathetic stim & counters RAAS system, Decreases afterload pressure

Question 47

Anterior cord injury Results from: S/S:

Answer 47

= bony fragments or pressure compressing arteries that profuse anterior SC, Usually w/ severe extension-flexion injury = Loss of motor function, sensation to pain, light touch & temperature below the injury site

Question 48

Antipyretic needed when temp >

Answer 48

only if fever is >101F)

Question 49

Any expanding lesion within the cranium results in

Answer 49

a increase in intracranial pressure

Question 50

Aortic aneurysm: S/Ss:

Answer 50

= weakness aorta wall can rupture, Dissecting aneurysm occurs when inner layers of aorta become separated = Very sudden chest pain & full force, “Ripping/Tearing ” in nature, Pulse & BP deficit

Question 51

ARDS Also known as

Answer 51

= “Noncardiogenic Pulmonary Edema”

Question 52

Arteriosclerosis is

Answer 52

hardening of the blood vessels “AR h-AR-d”

Question 53

What is Acute Coronary syndrome?

Answer 53

A spectrum of conditions caused by sudden reduced blood flow to the heart. Includes unstable angina, NSTEMI, & STEMI.

Question 54

ETCO changes w/ asthma: Status asthmaticus:

Answer 54

= worsens ETCO rises up again to normal as worsens, if worsens beyond rise then hypercapnic = Resp failure imminent, Agressive w/ meds, Might give dex

Question 55

Asthma phase 1 Asthma phase 2

Answer 55

= Bronchospasm w/in mins, reversible w/ bronchodilators. = Inflammatory response 6-8 hrs later, steroids required.

Question 56

NS Glial cells) Astrocytes: Microglia: Oligodendrocytes: Schwann Cells:

Answer 56

= Regulate blood-brain barrier & nutrient supply = Immune defense in CNS. = Myelinate CNS axons. = Myelinate PNS axons.

Question 57

Atherosclerosis is

Answer 57

buildup of plaque in-between arteries' media & intima “40% block = 60% of blood getting through” "ATh F-AT"

Question 58

Atherosclerosis:

Answer 58

= Type of arteriosclerosis involving plaque buildup (fat, cholesterol, etc.) narrowing arteries. "fAT AThero"

Question 59

Atrial appendages:

Answer 59

(abnormal heart birth defect) pockets that form clots on either atrium from uterine dev/,

Question 60

What? Manufactured, stored, & released by Atrial M. cells in response to such things as atrial distention and sympathetic stimulation.

Answer 60

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

Question 61

BAAM=

Answer 61

Beck Airway Airflow Monitor→ high pitch on inhale

Question 62

Back Pain & Nontraumatic Spinal Disorders

Answer 62

Low back pain Disk injury Cauda Equine Syndrome

Question 63

Baroreceptors) Fn: A&P:

Answer 63

= receptors that monitor blood pressure = Great vessels recept/ Gives feedback to brain > Sympathetic NS Activation, AArch & carotid arteries> feedback to medulla >SNS

Question 64

Be able to explain the hypercarbic and hypoxic drives and how do they differ

Answer 64

carbic=too much CO2 so initiates from high PACO2 Oxic= not enough oxy so initiates from low PAO2

Question 65

aortic dissection is: Fixation points: S/S:

Answer 65

= Tearing or arterial fixation points = Ligamentum Arteriosum Aorta & = Pulsus deficit R-hand pink left cold blue, Severe tearing chest pain w/ ripping pain radiating into back, Hypotension, Tachycardia

Question 66

Benign Early Repolarization (BER) ECG changes:

Answer 66

Widespread concave ST elevation limited to precordial leads (usually V2-V5) Absence of PR depression Prominent T waves Characteristic “fish-hook” appearance (often best in lead V4)

Question 67

Pericarditis: Usually presents w/: S/S:

Answer 67

= inflammation of the pericardium, the sac structure w/ 2 layers of tissue that surrounds the heart (Pericardial friction rub) = concave STE, PR Depression in multiple leads Spodick’s Sign, rub @ ERb's point = Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), Hx of sick,

Question 68

Benzodiazepine Effect on Seizures) Increased GABA activity: Reduced Glutamate Activity: Ion Channel Modulation:

Answer 68

= ↑ Cl- influx → Hyperpolarization Prevents APs from firing = ↓ Na+ influx → Less Depolarization Decreases excitability = ↓ Ca2+/Na+ currents Prevents neuronal overfiring

Question 69

Down-regulation: Excitability from recepetors:

Answer 69

= Med,hormone,ect to a target cell receptor causes # of available receptors to decrease = of the receptors results in a decreased responsiveness of the target cell to the medication or hormone as the number of available active receptors decreases.

Question 70

Blood-Brain Barrier) built so: Prevents & Protects:

Answer 70

= CNS capillary walls thicker, more complete, not as permeable as elsewhere in body. = Doesn't permit interstitial flow of proteins & materials as freely as normal capillaries, Protects w/ need lipid loving to get through, anything that can get through can cause damage

Question 71

BNP Brain Natriuretic peptide:

Answer 71

secreted by ventricles in response to stress to excessive stretching of myocytes & Counter RAAS

Question 72

Brain Abscess:

Answer 72

= A collection of pus & inflammation localized in the brain.

Question 73

Brain Herniation) def/: Initial stages: Late Stage: S/S: Para/Sympathetic Nervous System affect:

Answer 73

= Trauma causes swelling inside skull = blood & CSF are compressed out. = Increasing ICP forces brain out foramen magnum (can cause cushings) = 1 pupil sluggish or dilated, or unequal (anisocoria), Decorticate or Decerebrate posturing, Abnorm/ Resp/s, Severe altered/LOC, Weakness/Paralysis, Projectile vomiting = Cuts off PSNS response thus + SNS (SNS thoracic lumbar) (PSNS cranial sacral)

Question 74

Brain Injury) 1 S/S: 2 Treatment of Brain Herniation: 3 Vent/ing Brain Herniation: 4 Do not let PT become: 5 Note with ETCO2 & ICP:

Answer 74

1= AMS, Alterations in personality, Amnesia, Cushing's triad 2= Maintain ETCO2 between 30-40, Vent/ at upper end of norm/, Admin IV fluids for SBP 90-100, 3= Adults: No more 20 per/min, Children: No more 30per/min Infants: No more 35 per/min 4= hypoxic or hypovolemic 5= Norm ETCO2 35-45 but controlled hypervent/ 30-40 (if overoxygenate can actually decrease amount going to brain)

Question 75

Mid brain) 1 Hypothalamus: 2 Thalamus:

Answer 75

= “homeostasis” Endocrine Fn, N/V reflex, hunger, thirst, kidney Fn, body temps, emotions = Establishes & maintains consciousness; pathways for optic & olfactory nerves

Question 76

Pons: Medulla Oblongata:

Answer 76

= Communication interchange between CNS components = Respiratory center, cardiac center, vasomotor center.

Question 77

Capography wave forms

Answer 77

Question 78

Carbon monoxide poisioning color:

Answer 78

cherry (cherry is usually dead)

Question 79

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning lethal bc: CO hemoglobin affinity

Answer 79

= Odorless, tasteless, & colorless gas = higher affinity to Hemoglobin than that of O2

Question 80

Cauda Equina Syndrome) def: Usually caused by: S/S:

Answer 80

= Nerve roots @ lower end of SC are compressed = herniated disc, tumor or infection = Loss of bowel & bladder control – Saddle anesthesia

Question 81

Central Cord Syndrome) Usually results from: Considered what type of injury: S/S: More commonly seen in patients:

Answer 81

= hyperextension of the cervical spine = incomplete cord injury = motor loss/weakness to upper EXTRMs & bladder Fn loss = >50 years of age &/or w/ arthritis

Question 82

Central Pain Syndrome: Cause by: S/S:

Answer 82

= Neurological condition that results from damage or dysfunction to the brain, brainstem, & SC = stroke, MS, tumors, trauma, Parkinson’s = Burning, Tingling, Loss of sensation (Not fatal, but causes disabling chronic pain)

Question 83

Central pain syndrome: Characterized by: Occurs in PTs who have had:

Answer 83

= condition from damage/injury to brain, brainstem, or SC dev/ Wks, Mns, or Yrs after injury to CNS = intense, steady pain described as burning, aching, tingling, or a “pins and needles” sensation = strokes, multiple sclerosis, limb amputations, or SC injuries. (Pain meds generally provide no relief so they rely on sedation & other methods to keep CNS free from stress)

Question 84

Cerebellum Fn: location: Brainstem + Cerebellum:

Answer 84

= Coordinates: Fine Motor, Posture, Equilibrium, M. tone, CN8 = Located in the posterior fossa = Hindbrain (Contains 2 hemispheres)

Question 85

Both brain & SC bathed in what acting as cushion & vol:

Answer 85

= CSF~150mL; watery, clear fluid that acts as cushion

Question 86

Cerebrum) lobes

Answer 86

= occipital, temporal, parietal, frontal

Question 87

Cerebrum) 1 Frontal Lobe 2 Broca’s Area 3 Central Sulcus/Fissure 4 Parietal Lobe 5 Postcentral Gyrus 6 Precentral Gyrus 7 Occipital Lobe 8 Temporal Lobe “Hearing & Language” 9 Cerebellum “Balance & Coordination” fine motors 10 Pons 11 Medulla Oblongata 12 Corpus callousum

Answer 87

1= “Personality” 2= Broca’s Area 3= Central Sulcus/Fissure 4= “Sensory” Wernicke’s Area “speech comprehension” 5= Primary sensory cortex 6= Primary motor cortex 7= “Vision” 8= “Hearing & Language” 9= “Balance & Coordination” fine motors 10= Pons 11= Medulla Oblongata 12= Corpus callousum

Question 88

chemoreceptors=

Answer 88

in the carotid bodies and in the arch of the aorta. These chemoreceptors are stimulated by decreased PaO2, increased PaCO2, and decreased pH

Question 89

S3 inditcates: S4 indicates:

Answer 89

= CHF maybe or begining stages = in CHF (Aortic, Pulmonic, Erb’s point (3rd ICS), Tricuspid)

Question 90

Chordae Tendineae: Heart regurgitation:

Answer 90

= connect valves’ leaflets to papillary-M.s to prevent valves from prolapsing into atria & allowing backflow during ventricle contraction = papillary not working &/or valve doesn't correctly opens so prolapse

Question 91

Choroid plexus) located & Fn: CSF flow starts at 1: CSF through surrounding 2: CSF returned to3: CSF dumped off 4:

Answer 91

=in brain ventricles gen/s CSF in largest 2-4 ventricles = lateral ventricles to 3rd & 4th ventricle = through subarachnoid space surrounding brain & SC = venous circulation through arachnoid granulations = dural sinuses of brain & through spinal arachnoid space to arachnoid villi found @ end of SC (spinal cistern)

Question 92

Chrontropy: Inotropy: Dromotropy:

Answer 92

= HR, + tropic +HR vice versa = Contraction force = Speed of impulse transmission, usually goes w/ Inotropy “Drone robot electricity”

Question 93

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS)

Answer 93

= 1 + 77% ac & All 3 93-97% accurate (FAST) = Face Arm Speech Time (LKN) Facial Droop: – Have the patient smile or show their teeth Arm Drift: Have the patient extend their arms straight out, with palms up, and hold them there for 10 seconds. Speech: PT say “you can’t teach an old dog new tricks” (1 sentence, easily relay 6-7 words)

Question 94

(Electrolytes affects) Cl Na K Ca Mg

Answer 94

= Cl picks up Co2 (shift) to keep neutrality = depolarizing myocardium = depolarization & majority myocardial contractile = influences repolarizations = regulates contractility & rhythm

Question 95

Clubbing fingernails:

Answer 95

= “finger clubs” distal phalanx of each finger is rounded and bulbous. The proximal nail feels spongy. This is caused by the chronic hypoxia found in cardiopulmonary diseases and lung cancer.

Question 96

Clubbing fingernails:

Answer 96

= “finger clubs” distal phalanx of each finger is rounded and bulbous. The proximal nail feels spongy. This is caused by the chronic hypoxia found in cardiopulmonary diseases and lung cancer.

Question 97

CN 10:

Answer 97

= vagus “wondering” parasympathetic F.s: HR, digestion, & RR & also provides sensory info from throat & voice box.

Question 98

CN 2,3,4,6

Answer 98

Pupil correlates w/ L. of injury EX right pupil blown is right brain trauma

Question 99

CNS) The Brain: Makes up ~ what% of cranial vault Cranium's 3 major structures

Answer 99

= 80% = Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Brainstem

Question 100

Common abnormal respiratory patterns? =

Answer 100

= Cheyne-Stokes, Biot's, Kussmaul's, Apneustic, Central neurogenic

Question 101

Communication or the connecting of two or more vessels is known as:

Answer 101

= Anastomosis

Question 102

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF):

Answer 102

= Weakened heart unable to efficiently pump blood from L-ventricle = May be acute or chronic, May occur suddenly, during an MI, Flash Pulmonary Edema

Question 103

Contractility:

Answer 103

= ability of CM. cells to contract, or shorten (Actin Myosin) Calcium & +Beta1 effects

Question 104

W/ COPD, need to more careful in case of

Answer 104

= bleps in lung & can rupture

Question 105

Cor Pulmonale:

Answer 105

= R ventricle & maybe Atrium hypertrophy from fluid overload

Question 106

Cranial nerve location mnemonic: Nerve locations:

Answer 106

= "Sexy EMTs Play Erotic Jokes, Exciting Their Erotic Lover's Asshole Stimulating Them." = Sniffer- smells (Olfactory) = Eyes - Eyesight (Optic) = Pupils - Pupils & eye movement (Oculomotor) = Eyes = eyes movement (Trochlear) = Jaw -mastication (Trigeminal: sense face & motor jaw) = Eyes - Eye movement (Abducens) = Taster - Taste & facial expression (Facial) = Ears - Ears hearing & balance (Vestibulocochlear) = Licker- tongue taste & swallow (Glossopharyngeal) = ABDMN- Autonomic control thorax & ABDMN (Vagus) = Shoulders -shrug & neck m-nt (Spinal Accessory) = Tongue - Tongue movement (Hypoglossal)

Question 107

Cranial nerves carrying parasympathetic nerve fibers?

Answer 107

CN: 3,7,9,10

Question 108

Cranial nerves name mnemonic: Cranial nerve names:

Answer 108

= “Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch And Feel A Girl’s Vagina, Such Heaven! 1. Olfactory 2. Optic 3. Oculomotor 4. Trochlear 5. Trigeminal 6. Abducens 7. Facial 8. Vestibulocochlear (or Auditory) 9. Glossopharyngeal 10. Vagus 11. Spinal Accessory 12. Hypoglossal

Question 109

Cushing’s Syndrome (Hyperadrenalism):

Answer 109

= Excess cortisol → moon face, weight gain (upper body), buffalo hump, purple striae. "Cortisol Cushion"

Question 110

De Winter’s T Waves:

Answer 110

V2 V3 most commonly but can happen any lead ST depression at the J-point & upsloping ST-segments w/ tall, symmetrical T- waves in the precordial leads (LMCA or LAD occlusion) “Hyper T w/ STD”

Question 111

decorded position=

Answer 111

flexing forearms outwards

Question 112

decortit position=

Answer 112

flexing forearms inwards

Question 113

Definition of Seizures: Common Causes of Seizures: 2 Main Types of Seizures:

Answer 113

= Temporary alteration in cerebral activity from massive neuronal depolarization = Hypoxia, hypoglycemia, fever, tumors, stress, trauma, idiopathic = Generalized Seizures & Partial Seizures

Question 114

Definition of Unconsciousness / Coma

Answer 114

= PT cannot be aroused even by strong external stimuli

Question 115

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) - Type 1: Kussmaul’s Respirations:

Answer 115

= Fat metabolism → ketones → metabolic acidosis (pH <7.35) → hyperglycemia (250-500+), Kussmaul respirations, "fruity breath", ABDMN pain = Deep rapid breathing due to metabolic acidosis from excess ketones.

Question 116

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is usually seen in patients with which type of diabetes?

Answer 116

Type I Diabetes

Question 117

Diastole: Systole:

Answer 117

= 1st phase, ventricles fills w/ blood, hold 100mLs & pumps 50-70mLs = “squeeze” 2nd phase, period of cycle myocardium is contracting

Question 118

Different Types of H/As

Answer 118

Tension headaches (most common & from stress) Migraines Sinus headaches

Question 119

Diffuse Axonal Injury) Caused by: 3 Classification categories: Nerves can repair selfs b/c schwan cells but never back to 100 b/c scar tissues (make new neurons daily)

Answer 119

= direct blow to the head * Severe acceleration/deceleration = Mild diffuse axonal injury (mild concussion) – Moderate diffuse axonal injury (classic concussion) – Severe diffuse axonal injury (brainstem injury)

Question 120

Low Back Pain) Degenerative Disc Disease:

Answer 120

= Natural breakdown of the intervertebral disc

Question 121

DRG dorsal respiratory group

Answer 121

Keeps VRG in check

Question 122

DRG dorsal respiratory group

Answer 122

Keeps VRG in check

Question 123

expressive aphasia: Receptive aphasia: PT w/ aphasia be mistaken for:

Answer 123

= words will be garbled = words will be clear but unrelated to your questions. = a psych disorder b/c such difficulty speaking

Question 124

Dysarthria: Dysphonia: Aphasia:

Answer 124

= defective speech caused by motor deficits = voice changes caused by vocal cord problems = defective language caused by neurologic damage to the brain

Question 125

Each nerve root has a corresponding area of the skin, called

Answer 125

a dermatome, to which it supplies sensation

Question 126

Ears) Pinna: External auditory canal Glands: Middle & inner ear: Semicircular canals:

Answer 126

= Visible outer portion of the ear = secrete wax (cerumen) for protection = Structures required for hearing = balance/ equilibrium

Question 127

ECG Lead coronary arteries) Anterior view leads are feed by

Answer 127

(LAD) Left Anterior Descending

Question 128

ECG Lead coronary arteries) Inferior view leads are feed by

Answer 128

(RCA) Right Coronary Artery “feR RCA”

Question 129

ECG Lead coronary arteries) Posterior view leads are feed by

Answer 129

(RCA) Right Coronary Artery &/or (LCX)

Question 130

ECG Lead coronary arteries) Right view leads are feed by

Answer 130

(RCA) Right Coronary Artery

Question 131

ECG Lead coronary arteries) Lateral view leads are feed by

Answer 131

(LCX) Left Circumflex

Question 132

Egphony: Orthopneia:

Answer 132

= changed tone w/ E to A test = breathing improves standing & worsens supine

Question 133

Ejection Fraction (EF): <45% usually indicates: <30%:

Answer 133

= Ratio of blood pumped from the ventricle to the amount remaining @ the end of diastole/ %of blood pumped out from ventricle (60-70%) =<45% usually indicates in or going to CHF =<30% in CHF & chronic cardiac crip on oxy

Question 134

Electrical stimulus from the brain is delivered to the diaphragm via the:

Answer 134

=Phrenic nerve

Question 135

EMD

Answer 135

Electrical Mechanical disassociation (same as PEA)

Question 136

Tripoding is for Perched lips is for Acrocyanosis: CAPE cyanosis :

Answer 136

= support upper torso becoming tired = anatomical PeeP (3-5) = only peripheral cyanosis = throw a cape over cyanotic torso up

Question 137

Emphysema : Chronic bronchitis:

Answer 137

= “pink puffers” skinny = “blue loafers” Big

Question 138

Endocrine Chromaffin Cells (Adrenal Medulla):

Answer 138

Release epinephrine & norepinephrine; overactivity leads to hypertension (pheochromocytoma), underactivity reduces stress response.

Question 139

Endocrine Alpha Cells (Pancreas):

Answer 139

Produce glucagon to increase blood glucose; overproduction results in hyperglycemia, underproduction causes hypoglycemia.

Question 140

Endocrine Beta Cells (Pancreas):

Answer 140

Secrete insulin to regulate blood glucose; destruction causes diabetes mellitus.

Question 141

Endocrine Cells

Answer 141

Beta Cells (Pancreas), Alpha Cells (Pancreas), Chromaffin Cells (Adrenal Medulla)

Question 142

Types of Diabetes: Endocrine vs Exocrine:

Answer 142

= Influences nearly every cell, organ, & bodily Fn. = Endocrine releases hormones into the bloodstream; exocrine secretes substances through ducts.

Question 143

Types of Diabetes: Islets of Langerhans:

Answer 143

= Type 1 (autoimmune, insulin-dependent) & Type 2 (insulin resistance, linked to obesity, may be managed w/ diet & meds) = Alpha Cells (glucagon ↑ blood sugar), Beta Cells (insulin ↓ blood sugar), Delta Cells (somatostatin inhibits glucagon & insulin).

Question 144

Endocrine/hormone) Cortisol Epinephrine

Answer 144

= Stress hormone from adrenal cortex; promotes gluconeogenesis & anti-inflammatory effects. = Adrenal medulla hormone; increases HR, cardiac output, & bronchodilation during stress.

Question 145

Endocrine/Hormones System) Glucagon: Insulin: Cortisol

Answer 145

: Secreted by alpha cells of pancreas; increases BG by stimulating glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis. Binds to receptors on liver, adipose tissue, & heart (reg/s CO). = Secreted by beta cells; lowers BG by enhancing cellular uptake & glycogenesis.

Question 146

NS Neurotransmitters) Glutamate: GABA:

Answer 146

= Main excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS. = Primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS.

Question 147

NS Neurotransmitters) Glutamate: GABA:

Answer 147

= Main excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS. = Primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS.

Question 148

Endocrine/Hormones System) Glucagon: Insulin: Cortisol

Answer 148

: Secreted by alpha cells of pancreas; increases BG by stimulating glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis. Binds to receptors on liver, adipose tissue, & heart (reg/s CO). = Secreted by beta cells; lowers BG by enhancing cellular uptake & glycogenesis.

Question 149

Enzymes) Amylase: Lipase:

Answer 149

= Breaks down carbohydrates (starches) into simpler sugars (e.g., maltose); found in saliva & pancreas. = Hydrolyzes lipids into glycerol & fatty acids; secreted by the pancreas.

Question 150

Epidural Hematoma) what & where: Nearly always the result of: Commonly hand & hand w/:

Answer 150

= Accumulation of blood between the skull and dura mater = blow to the head that produces a linear fracture = hand & hand w/ basilar skull fracture

Question 151

Endocrine/hormone) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Thyroid Hormones (T3/T4):

Answer 151

= Increases blood Ca+ by stimulating bone resorption & renal reabsorption. = Regulate metabolism, growth, & development.

Question 152

ETCO2=

Answer 152

Measurement of the CO2 concentration at the end of expiration (maximum CO2).

Question 153

Eupnea: Hyperpnea: Cheyene-Stokes:

Answer 153

= Normal breathing = Deep breathing = Gradual increases & decreases in respirations w/ periods of apnea; caused by increasing ICP & brainstem injury

Question 154

Exhalation process: Inhalation process:

Answer 154

= Passive use→ of respiratory muscles’ elastic recoil. = Active use requiring ATP→ of respiratory muscles (diaphragm & intercostals) to increase the chest’s inner diameter.

Question 155

Expressive aphasia: Receptive aphasia:

Answer 155

= words will be garbled &/or expressed = words will be clear but unrelated to your questions (PT w/ receptive aphasia can have such difficulty talking that you could mistakenly suspect a psych disorder)

Question 156

Eye's Vitals) Direct response: Indirect response (consensual response) Accommodation: Extraocular movement: H test: Nystagmus:

Answer 156

=pupils correct size & do they respond to you? = L-pupil respond when light on R-eye (vice versa) = cross eye = Do both eyes look in the same direction? = “Pupil check” is actually for checking iris “colored part” fn = lacking complete fn, depressensent, SSRI usually dont but TCAs can

Question 157

Fascicular Block (Hemiblock):

Answer 157

A block of 1 of the 2 fascicles of the left bundle

Question 158

Flat percussion sound:

Answer 158

= “Extremely dull” , Soft intensity , High pitched, short duration, located in muscle & atelectasis

Question 159

Foreman magnum Fn & relation w/ brain

Answer 159

hole for SC & Brain stem sit right above hole

Question 160

SVR (Systemic Vascular Resistance):

Answer 160

= resistance blood faces in systemic circulation (arteries size)

Question 161

PVR (Pulmonary Vascular Resistance):

Answer 161

= resistance blood faces in pulmonic circulation EX CHF, R ventricle

Question 162

CLs) Temporal Lobe) know: Functions:

Answer 162

= sensory processor = Hearing & auditory processing, memory storage (hippocampus is located here), language comprehension (Wernicke’s area, typically left hemisphere), emotional responses & smell processing.

Question 163

CLs) Frontal Lobe) know by: Fn:

Answer 163

= Personality = Motor control (primary motor cortex), problem-solving, decision-making, & planning (executive functions), personality & emotions, speech production (Broca’s area, typically left hemisphere).

Question 164

Functional residual capacity (FRC)=

Answer 164

volume of gas that remains in the lungs at the end of normal expiration

Question 165

Functions of paranasal sinuses?

Answer 165

= Act as a buffer system, reduce skull weight, contain 4 pairs: Maxillary (largest), Frontal, Sphenoid, & Ethmoid.

Question 166

Functions of the pleura:

Answer 166

= Reduce friction & Maintains ~ 1/3 of neg/ pressure (~10-15mL fluid)

Question 167

GABA receptors location

Answer 167

dispersed through CNS on chloride ion channels in the cell membrane.

Question 168

GABA receptors job:

Answer 168

1. When combines w/ the receptors the channel “opens” 2. chloride diffuses & B/c is a anion (neg/ ion),makes inside of cell more negative than the outside. 3. Thus hyperpolarizes membrane making more difficult to depolarize 4. Depolarization therefore requires larger stim/ to cause cell to fire

Question 169

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) =

Answer 169

= chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS binds w/ receptors so channel “opens” & Cl influxs prolonging depolarization b/c it makes the inside of the cell more negative than the outside.

Question 170

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA): GABA receptors:

Answer 170

= Chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS. = across CNS on Cl-channels in cell membrane.

Question 171

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)=

Answer 171

Chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.

Question 172

gas exchange requires what 3 things

Answer 172

= Perfusion, ventilation, diffusion

Question 173

GCS:

Answer 173

E4, M5 (orient, confused, words, sounds, none), S6 (obey, local/withdraw, normal flex, abnorm flex decorb, exten/ decer, none)

Question 174

Glucagon Function: Insulin Function:

Answer 174

= Released by alpha cells when blood sugar is low → liver breaks down glycogen into glucose → raises blood sugar = Released by beta cells when blood sugar is high → allows glucose into cells via facilitated diffusion → lowers blood sugar.

Question 175

gluconeogenesis

Answer 175

Glucagon stimulates liver breakdown of body proteins & fats w/ subsequent chemical conversion to glucose & produces glucose from nonsugar sources

Question 176

glycogenolysis

Answer 176

Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen

Question 177

Glycosuria

Answer 177

The presence of glucose in urine, creates the sweet urine that added mellitus to diabetes.

Question 178

Gray matter: White matter:

Answer 178

= (cell bodies) sensory processing = mostly comprising communication pathways (axons) motor

Question 179

Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS): Characterized by : Severe stages: Prognosis:

Answer 179

= PNS disorder in which inflammation causes loss of myelin that surrounds neurons. = M-weakness begins @ distal limbs but rapidly advances to involve proximal muscles as well (ascending paralysis) = Mechanical ventilation is often required (use of steroids provides lil/no improvement) = majority recover almost all neurologic Fn on own w/ little medical intervention

Question 180

hat part of the spinal cord does the PSNS originate from?

Answer 180

Cranial & Sacral Spine

Question 181

Heart Failure: S/S:

Answer 181

= Weakened heart unable to efficiently pump blood from L-ventricle = Dyspnea, Chest pain/pressure, Tachycardia, Pedal edema (swollen ankles), JVD, Pale & moist skin, AMS

Question 182

Heart’s 3 tissue layers:

Answer 182

= Endocardium, myocardium, & pericardium.

Question 183

Primary neurotransmitter of sympathetic nervous system? Primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Answer 183

= Norepinephrine (NE). = Acetylcholine (ACh).

Question 184

Function of the cricoid ring?

Answer 184

= Only 360° cartilage, narrowest point in pediatrics, vs glottis in adults.

Question 185

Hering-Breuer reflex=

Answer 185

prevents over expansion of lungs from inhalation> During inspiration, lungs become distended, activating stretch receptors.

Question 186

Epidural Hematoma)

Answer 186

= Hx head trauma, Rapid onset of symptoms, LOC, Lucid interval (min-hours), +ICP w/ N/V/AMS, Lapse in unconsciousness, paralysis on contralateral side of head injury, Dilated, fixed pupil on ipsilateral side., Death PTs usually have better outcome b/c acute symptoms H/A, blurry vision, N/V Venous fast bleed

Question 187

SC) 1 white matter surround & covered w/ 2 White matter forms what bundles/columns: 3 White matter composed of: 4 Descending SC tracts:

Answer 187

1= surround Gray matter & covered w/ myelinated Nrv-fibers 2= Anterior, Lateral, & Posterior white columns 3= (Axons) Nrv-cell pathways 4= message/effector to end of tract "Brain to Motor)

Question 188

Categories of Motor Pathways: Categories of somatosensory Pathways:

Answer 188

= descending = posterior funiculus-medial lemniscal pathway, Anterolateral pathway, Spinocerebellar pathway

Question 189

How do the nerves of the PSNS differ from the SNS?

Answer 189

longer Pre & shorter Post Ganglion

Question 190

How do the nerves of the SNS differ from the PSNS?

Answer 190

shorter Pre & longer Post ganglions

Question 191

How does the endocrine system control the body?

Answer 191

Via hormones.

Question 192

How is asthma treated in an emergency?

Answer 192

Bronchodilators (albuterol, ipratropium), steroids (dexamethasone), magnesium sulfate, and possibly epinephrine for severe cases.

Question 193

How often can Epi 1:1,000 be delivered to a patient via IM who is in a severe asthma attack?

Answer 193

Every 3-5mins as needed

Question 194

Hyoid bone F: Broken commonly via:

Answer 194

= anchors tongues = hangman's break (Nooses)

Question 195

Turbinate F:

Answer 195

creates turbulence; forcing dust particles laterally “filter system” w/ cilia

Question 196

What tubes connects to nasopharnx

Answer 196

Eustaschian tubes

Question 197

Hyperglycemia Pathophysiology: S/S:

Answer 197

= Lack of insulin → fat metabolism (lipolysis) → ketones & metabolic acidosis → excessive glucose causes kidney diuresis. = Polyuria (frequent urination), Polydipsia (excessive thirst), Polyphagia (excessive hunger).

Question 198

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemia Syndrome (HHS) is usually seen in patients with which type of diabetes?

Answer 198

Type II Diabetes

Question 199

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome (HHS) - Type 2:

Answer 199

= Gradual onset, hyperglycemia (>600), severe dehydration, AMS, no ketones (no acidosis)

Question 200

Hyperresonance percussion sound:

Answer 200

= “Booming” , loud intensity, Low pitched, long duration, located in Hyperinflated-Lung

Question 201

Hyperthyroidism (Graves’ Disease):

Answer 201

= Autoimmune overproduction of thyroid hormones (T3/4) stim/ cell metabolism goiter, exophthalmos (bulging eyes)

Question 202

Hyperventilation 2 late severe signs are shown

Answer 202

= Carpoprfal spasm & Trousseau’s sign

Question 203

Hyperventilation Syndrome: Respiratory alkalosis Causes: most common etiologies:

Answer 203

= inappropriate increase in RR is beyond metabolic needs = increase in binding of ionized Ca, thus creating a relative hypocalcemia state (troussos sign) = Anxiety and stress

Question 204

Hypoglycemia:

Answer 204

= Blood glucose <70 mg/dL → caused by excess insulin, inadequate food intake → can cause seizures, coma, death.

Question 205

Hypothyroidism (Myxedema, Myxedema Coma):

Answer 205

= Inadequate thyroid hormone (T3/4) stim/ "hypo slows cells down" = goiter, heart issues, neuropathy, coma.

Question 206

Identify the differences between the visceral and parietal pleura

Answer 206

V=has no nerves P= has nerves

Question 207

What would cause a left-shift of the Oxygen Dissociation Curve?

Answer 207

increase in the pH of the blood, decrease in the amount of CO2 & Body Temp

Question 208

If Oxygen Dissociation Curve would stay shifted too far to the right, what would this cause?

Answer 208

cause the hemoglobin to decrease it's affinity towards oxygen

Question 209

Orthostatic hypotension

Answer 209

PT’s BP drops 20 HR+20 when moved from supine to a seated position

Question 210

IF RAAS freaks out:

Answer 210

= BP & afterload increases

Question 211

Imitators of Infarct:

Answer 211

LVH, LBBB, Ventricular beats, Pericarditis, BER

Question 212

In Type I diabetics with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), what process increases ventilation?

Answer 212

The lack of available insulin forces the cells of the body to convert to lipolysis in order to make cellular energy.

Question 213

Increase in arterial CO2 = what drive

Answer 213

hypercarbic drive

Question 214

Inferior Vena Cava Filter

Answer 214

Filter inserted via pelvis to prevent Strokes, PEs, MIs

Question 215

Pleural space has a pressure between: W/ expiration the chest wall & diaphragm:

Answer 215

= 4 & 8 mmHg atmospheric P

Question 216

Diceph/) Insular Lobe) know by: Critical processor Fns: Location:

Answer 216

= Critical processor = Taste perception, emotional responses & self-awareness, visceral functions (EX: heartbeat, breathing). = Deep within the lateral sulcus, beneath the frontal & temporal lobes. (hidden beneath temporal & frontal lobes)

Question 217

Intercalated discs: Discs speed Vs standard cell membrane: Syncytium:

Answer 217

= Special tissue bands inserted between myocardial cells that increase the rate(400x) in which AP is spread from cell-cell thus Syncytium = 400x faster than standard cell membrane drom/Inotropy = Group of cardiac cells physiologically function as a unit, “working together in sync” “top in syncytium to bottom”

Question 218

Internal respiration: External respiration:

Answer 218

=exchange of gases (O2 and CO2) at the cellular level =exchange of gases (CO2 and O2) in the pulmonary capillaries

Question 219

Intracerebral Hemorrhage) located @ & from: Note w/ symptomology: S/S:

Answer 219

= w/in brain tissue w/ Penetrating & blunt injuries = may vary, mimics CVA, Depends on regions & severity = AMS commonly, Thunderclap H/A, Vomiting, 1 dilated pupil, rapid deterioration

Question 220

Intracranial Perfusion) Brain perfusion may be disrupted by: Any reduction in cerebral blood flow triggers: If pressure continues to expand: Brain's response to high CO2 & increasing ICP causes:

Answer 220

= increasing ICP, hypotension, = BP rise (autoregulation) for adequate cerebral perfusion = ICP becomes so high, ICP can impead on Fn or SC = hyperventilation and hypertension

Question 221

Cardiac) Intrinsic Risk Factors: Extrinsic Risk Factors: Most important extrinsic factor:

Answer 221

= Genetic predisposition; immunocompromised = Work, Home, environment, smoking = smoking cigs

Question 222

Isolated Dextrocardia=

Answer 222

(Hearts on right side) Heart is flipped “Right is Left”, so have to mirror leads, AEDs,

Question 223

Isolated Dextrocardia: Abdominal situs Inversus: Situs Inversus Totalis:

Answer 223

= Heart on right side/flipped “Right = Left” so mirror leads, AEDs = Spleen & Liver flipped but H normal = “EVERYTHING WRONG” H right side

Question 224

Katabolism=

Answer 224

uses fat vs glucose for energy (uses 4 ATP vs. 1)

Question 225

Kiesselbach area(little area)=

Answer 225

where 4 different arteries connect together→ super vascular

Question 226

Eyes cranial nerves: Lost Eye motor control CN:

Answer 226

= 2, 3, 4, 6 = 4 & 6

Question 227

AEIOU-TIPS) A: E: I: O: U-: T: I: P: S:

Answer 227

=Alcohol = Epilepsy = Infection = Opiates (most common OD) / Overdose = Uremia (converts amonia so < toxic) =Trauma = Insulin (~ occurs more than Infection) = Poisoning: = Psychosis = Stroke:

Question 228

Kussmaul's sign

Answer 228

inhale +inthoracic Pressure pushes & JVD on inhale, Exhale decreases pressure reliefing JVD

Question 229

Side of heart has most myocardium: Epicardium makes what & how: Pericardium holds what, w/ what color & Fn.:

Answer 229

= L side of heart (muscle) = folds over self to make pericardium = holds 25-50mLs straw color fluid to reduce friction, 150mL = heart can squeeze,

Question 230

Larynx:

Answer 230

= adams apple, Cricothyroidr sur

Question 231

Left Anterior Fascicle (LAF): Pathway of conducting impulses:

Answer 231

= THIN Located in the anterior & superior portion of the left ventricle = Conducts impulses to the anterior and lateral walls of the L-ventricle

Question 232

Left Posterior Fascicle (LPF): Pathway of conducting impulses:

Answer 232

= THICK Found in the posterior & inferior portion of the left ventricle = Conducts impulses o the inferior & posterior walls of the L-ventricle

Question 233

Left Ventricular Failure: S/S:

Answer 233

Fluid backs up from the left ventricle to the lungs = Rales, orthopnea, pink frothy sputum, crackles.

Question 234

Left Ventricular Failure: S/S:

Answer 234

Fluid backs up from the left ventricle to the lungs = Rales, orthopnea, pink frothy sputum, crackles.

Question 235

Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH) How to Recognize LVH:

Answer 235

= Enlargement & thickening of the L-ventricle = Take the tallest R wave in V5 or V6 + the S wave in V1 = > 35mm –R in aVL > 11mm

Question 236

Lens & Function: Iris: Iris function

Answer 236

= Cellular structure behind iris; Convex & transparent allows images to focus onto the retina =Circular contractile muscle; Its pigment produces color of eye =Controls amount of light reaching the retina by controlling pupil size & initiated by Optic N. CN-II (senses light), & Oculomotor N. CNIII (controls size of pupil)

Question 237

Low Back Pain) Sciatica: From: Causes:

Answer 237

= Severe pain that radiates along sciatic nerve = Compression or trauma to the sciatic nerve = Lumbar herniated disc, Degenerative disc disease, Spondylolisthesis, Spinal stenosis

Question 238

Lower Airway Anatomy) Cricoid ring Narrowest point in Aduldts vs Pedis How many alveoli do you have in your lungs? bronchioles streched out would be how far: Cilia fn & triggers what if obstructed:

Answer 238

= only 360 degree cartilage = Cricoid ring in PEDIs vs adults glottis = 300 mil = 15K miles of bronchioles = Cilia moves up if stuck triggers cough reflex

Question 239

Lown-Ganong) definer: Pathway name & path:

Answer 239

= has short PRI interval = Bundle of James connects posterior internodal pathway to bundle of his

Question 240

Cancer pus in between pleura termed:

Answer 240

= (inpinima)

Question 241

Mahaim Syndrome

Answer 241

Accessory connects to Below bundle of his (wide QRS) looks like VTach

Question 242

Main Components of a Neuron

Answer 242

Cell body (soma) w/ nucleus, Dendrites transmit impulses to soma, Axons transmit impulses away from soma

Question 243

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter: Main excitatory neurotransmitter: Neurotransmitter for reward & motivation: Neurotransmitter Which plays a role in stress response: Neurotransmitter for Mood & helps w/ sleep & digestive regulation:

Answer 243

= GABA = Glutamate = Dopamine = Epinephrine = Serotonin

Question 244

Major Blood Supply to Brain

Answer 244

= Carotid system (anterior) & Vertebrobasilar system (posterior) → both join at Circle of Willis

Question 245

Major Endocrine Glands: Diabetes: Pancreas & Diabetes:

Answer 245

= Hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, pancreas, adrenal glands, gonads = Disease where insulin production or response is impaired → abnormal carbohydrate metabolism & increased blood glucose. = Contains both endocrine (hormone-producing) & exocrine (digestive enzyme-producing) tissues.

Question 246

ARDS) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome: Emergency Treatment:

Answer 246

= Fluid invades the alveoli Atelectasis, Immune system responds and increases inflammation to area, Major V/Q mismatch! = Remove PT from water ASAP, Primary assessment, if no pulse, begin immediate CPR, IV/IO & ALS airway (ET), Follow ACLS protocols, Protect from heat loss

Question 247

CN with their correct name) CN 4 CN 10 CN 6 CN 9 CN 8 CN 12 CN 11 CN 3 CN 5 CN 7 CN 2 CN 1

Answer 247

Trochlear 4 Vagus 10 Abducens 6 Glossopharyngeal 9 Acoustic (Vestibulocochlear) 8 Hypoglossal 12 Spinal Accessory 11 Oculomotor 3 Trigeminal 5 Facial 7 Optic 2 Olfactory 1

Question 248

Match the Labels

Answer 248

H= Aorta I= Pulmonary Artery J= Left Pulmonary Veins K= Left Atrium L= Bicuspid Valve M= Aortic Valve N= Left Ventricle O= Papillary Muscle

Question 249

Match the Labels

Answer 249

A= SA Node B= AV Node C= Interventricular Septum D= Right Bundle Branch E= Purkinje System F= Purkinje Fibers G= Left Bundle Branch H= Bundle of His I= AV Junction J= Internodal Pathways K= Bachmann's Bundle

Question 250

Match the labels

Answer 250

A= Superior Vena Cava B= Pulmonary Valve C= Right Pulmonary Veins D= Right Atrium E= Tricuspid Valve F= Chordae Tendineae G= Right Ventricle H= Inferior Vena Cava

Question 251

Meninges) Protective membranes that cover the entire CNS: Layers of the meninges:

Answer 251

= Protective membranes the cover the entire CNS = Dura, Arachnoid Mater, & Pia Mater

Question 252

Mesothelial Cells: Pancreatic Acinar Cells:

Answer 252

= Line body cavities (pleura, peritoneum); secrete lubricating fluid. = Secrete digestive enzymes (e.g., amylase, lipase) into the duodenum

Question 253

Methemoglobin= Methemoglobinemia= treat w/:

Answer 253

= Hemoglobin not picking up ( w/ iron in ferric (Fe3+) vs oxy) = changing color from lack of oxygenated hemoglobins = Methylene Blue

Question 254

Migraine Headaches:

Answer 254

Thought to be caused by changes in blood vessel size in the base of the brain Pain is usually described as pounding, throbbing, and pulsating. Often associated with nausea and vomiting and may be preceded by visual changes Most commonly from vascular size change

Question 255

Monro-Kellie Doctrine: in short:

Answer 255

= The pressure-vol/ relationship between ICP, Vol/ of CSF, blood, brain tissue, & CPP = In the fixed space of the cranial cavity, when one increases, the others must decrease

Question 256

Monroe-Kellie doctrine, which states:

Answer 256

Intracranial volume(fixed)=Brain volume(to include any mass or lesion volume) + CSF volume + Blood volume

Question 257

Most Common type of MI

Answer 257

Inferior

Question 258

Most head injury PTs who're in a coma & likely to need endotracheal intubation have a GCS score of:

Answer 258

8 or less

Question 259

Most lethal type of MI

Answer 259

Anterior

Question 260

Most of the cranial cavity is occupied by the:

Answer 260

Cerebrum

Question 261

Mucus F. =

Answer 261

absorb energy, balance, heat dental roots

Question 262

Globit cells produce for function of: Larynx Cilia propels mucus toward: Cigarette smoking major problem excluding cancer:

Answer 262

= Mucus to trap air contaminants, for the cilia = the pharynx to trigger swallow reflex = leads to destruction of the cilia, leaving the cough reflex as the only protective mechanism.

Question 263

Multiple sclerosis (MS): S/S:

Answer 263

= unpredictable CNS disease; autoimmune attack against myelin inflammation of certain nerve cells followed by demyelination, or destruction of the myelin sheath, thus inability properly conduct impulses = include weakness of one or more limbs, sensory loss, paresthesias, and changes in vision. Symptoms can wax and wane over years, and range from mild to severe. Severe cases can be debilitating, rendering patients unable to care for themselves.

Question 264

Muscle tremors, shivering, and loose electrodes can cause deflections on the ECG called:

Answer 264

Artifact

Question 265

Muscular Dystrophy: Dynamics: PSUEDOHYPERTROPHY: Signs & Symptoms:

Answer 265

= Progressive degeneration & necrosis of skeletal M. fibers = Replacement of M. w/ fat & connective tissue = increased size from connective-T. infiltration = Muscle weakness, Contractures, Chronic resp/ infections, weak cough, Cardiomyopathy

Question 266

Myoclonus: can be symptom w/ NS disorders such as: Pathologic myoclonus:

Answer 266

= temporary, involuntary twitching or spasm of muscle or group of muscles (EX: hiccups) = multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s, or Alzheimer’s = can distort normal movement and limit a person’s ability to eat, walk, and talk

Question 267

narrowest portion of the adult upper airway is the

Answer 267

Glottic opening

Question 268

Nervous system) Afferent neurons Efferent neurons Interneurons

Answer 268

= sensory transmit stimuli from body to CNS. = Motor Transmit signals from CNS to muscles & glands. = Facilitate communication between sensory & motor neurons in the CNS

Question 269

Nervous System) Glial cells

Answer 269

Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, Schwann Cells:

Question 270

Nervous System) Neurotransmitters

Answer 270

Acetylcholine (ACh), Dopamine, Serotonin, Glutamate, GABA

Question 271

Examples of toxic-metabolic causes?

Answer 271

Anoxia (lack of oxygen) DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis) Hepatic failure (elevated ammonia) Hypercapnia (↑ CO₂) Hypoglycemia Renal failure Thiamine deficiency Toxic exposure (cyanide, organophosphates)

Question 272

Neurogenic Shock) def: Problems: Occurs @ causing:

Answer 272

= SC/Brain Injury disrupts ability to control body autonomic Fns = “pipe” problem, Unable to maintain BP, Severe reduction CO = above T-vertebrae, loss of all SNS innervation, causing widespread BP plummet

Question 273

NEVER LET HEAD INJURY PTs

Answer 273

HYPOXIC & HYPOTENSIVE

Question 274

Nitroglycerin is administered to a patient having chest pain because it:

Answer 274

Dilates the blood vessels which lowers the afterload pressure.

Question 275

Alpha 1 agonist neurotransmitter: Alpha 2:

Answer 275

= NORepi / Noradrenal = inhibits the release of NORepi = acetylcholine post & pre ganglion

Question 276

Parasympathetic uses Neurotransmitters: Muscarinic (5) receptors found:

Answer 276

= acetylcholine post & pre ganglion = M1: CNS, GI, salv glands M2: SA & AV nodes M3: Smooth Muscles

Question 277

NS Neurotransmitters) Acetylcholine (ACh): Dopamine: Serotonin:

Answer 277

= Excitatory in skeletal muscles; inhibitory in cardiac muscle. = Modulates motor control, mood, & reward pathways. = Regulates mood, sleep, & gut motility.

Question 278

Occipital Lobe) know by: all ojos Functions: Visual processing & interpretation, recognizing shapes, colors, & motion

Answer 278

= all ojos = Visual processing & interpretation, recognizing shapes, colors, & motion

Question 279

o.d. (oculus dexter) o.s. (oculus sinister) o.u. (oculus uterque)

Answer 279

= Right eye "Dexter is my right hand man" = Left Eye = Both eyes "U for Unison")

Question 280

Ocular Muscles do what & Innervated by 3CNs: Remember by:

Answer 280

= control eye m-nt by Oculomotor (CN-III), trochlear (CN-IV),& abducens (CN-VI) = OCULAR MUSCLES is 13 letters = CN 3+4+6

Question 281

Ocular Muscles: Innervated by 3 cranial nerves:

Answer 281

= control eye movement = Oculomotor (CN-III), trochlear (CN-IV),& abducens (CN-VI)

Question 282

Only a fraction of carbon dioxide is transported as a gas. It flows into the alveoli due to the gradient that exists between the concentrations of gases

Answer 282

(PCO2 of 45 mmHg in the pulmonary artery versus 40 mmHg in the alveoli).

Question 283

only condition A-Fib has cadence:

Answer 283

Afib w/ 3rd degree In rhythm "Gandalf dead so Atriums & Ventricles doing own thing

Question 284

Osmotic diuresis

Answer 284

When glucose spills into urine, the osmotic pressure, or concentration of particulates, rises inside the kidney tubule to a Lvl > blood Lvl. Water follows glucose into urine to cause a marked water loss termed

Question 285

Oxygen molecules w/o a job become=

Answer 285

free radical hurting brain & cardio molecules

Question 286

Oxygenation 3 needs=

Answer 286

intact airway, adequate vent & respiration

Question 287

Oxyhemoglobin is: Carbaminohemoglobin: Methemoglobin: Deoxyhemoglobin: Carboxyhemoglobin: Sulfhemoglobin: Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c):

Answer 287

= oxygen carrying Hemoglobin = carbon dioxide on hemoglobin amino-acid = Hemoglobin not picking up ( w/ iron in ferric (Fe3+) vs oxy) = Hemoglobin not bound to oxygen. = Hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide (CO). = Hemoglobin irreversibly bound to sulfur. = Hemoglobin bound to glucose for measuring long-term BGL control

Question 288

P Wave Asystole:

Answer 288

P waves ventricles dont pick up b/c 3rd degree HB (type of PEA)

Question 289

R-atrial enlargement: Upside down P wave cause:

Answer 289

= changes P wave “P Pulmonele” b/c ventricle backing up or vasodialation, L-Pump failure P mitria “P wave double humps”, = impulse comes from AV or below atrias

Question 290

Parasinal sinus F: Pairs & Names:

Answer 290

= buffer system, changes relative weight = 4pairs, Max, Frontal, Sphenoid, Ethoniod

Question 291

Parietal Lobe) Know: Function:

Answer 291

= Sensory perception (touch, temperature, pain) = Sensory perception (touch, temp, pain), spatial orientation & awareness of body position, understanding language (Wernicke's area, typically left hemisphere).

Question 292

Parkinson’s: 4 main characteristics:

Answer 292

= chronic & progressive disorder. = 1. "Pill Rolling" Tremor, 2. Rigidity, 3. Bradykinesia (Norm/, spontaneous, & autonomic mnt slowed/lost) 4. Postural instability (Impaired balance & coordination)

Question 293

Anterior portion of the nose Fn: Lateral wall of nasal cavity is marked by The turbinates create turbulence for:

Answer 293

= hair follicles that help trap large dust particles. = 3 bony turbinates. Between each is a passageway, or meatus, that leads to the paranasal sinuses = helping entrapment & removal of any inhaled foreign particles, such as dust.

Question 294

Fossa Ovalis: Patent Foramen Ovale (PFO): Forman Ovale A&P:

Answer 294

= depression in R-Atrium remnant of Foramen Ovale = ASD; hole in atriums septum that didnt close after out of uterus in fetus = b/c fetus fluid in lung/heart & closes w/ 1st breath b/c lungs neg/ pressure

Question 295

Patient's with a long history of emphysema will tend to present with pinkish skin, this is known as:

Answer 295

Polycythemia

Question 296

PE common with: PE history & S/S Saddle embolism PE:

Answer 296

= immobility, planes, childbirths, long bone fracture = Tachypnea & cardia w/ story = emboli usually from pelvis goes to blocking both lungs

Question 297

Pediatric PTs grunt during exhalation if:

Answer 297

= atelectasis is present to create physiological PeeP

Question 298

Percentage of Blood Flow & Glucose Used by Brain

Answer 298

Brain receives 20% of total blood flow & uses 25% of glucose despite being only 2% of body weight

Question 299

Pericarditis PT's will have more pain with:

Answer 299

= laying down & coughing

Question 300

Peripheral Nerves)Visceral "autonomic" Sensory: Visceral "autonomic" Motor:

Answer 300

= Afferent tracts transmit sensations from visceral organs EX: Sensations such as a full bladder or the need to defecate = Efferent fibers exit CNS & branch to supply nerves to the involuntary cardiac muscle & smooth muscle of the viscera (organs) & to the glands.

Question 301

Peripheral Nerves) Somatic Sensory: Somatic Motor:

Answer 301

= Afferent nerves transmit sensations: touch, pressure, pain, temp, & position proprioception = Efferent fibers carry impulses to the skeletal (voluntary) muscles

Question 302

PETCO2=

Answer 302

Partial pressure of end-tidal CO2 in a mixed gas solution

Question 303

Phrenic nerve branches of what nerve types tracts of heart arm pain w/ heart injury bc:

Answer 303

= C3,4, 5 = Sensory & Motor = Cervical plexus tracts w/ phrenic nerve

Question 304

Pneumonia: Bronchial-pneumonia: Lobar pneumonia Interstitial pneumonia: S/S:

Answer 304

= infection usually migrated from somewhere else = Patchy consolidation >1 lobes (L 2 R 3) = infection in 1 lobe only = Diffuse & Bilateral = Fever/chills, orthopnea, yellow/brown sputum, egphony

Question 305

Poliomyelitis (polio) It is characterized by:

Answer 305

= infectious, inflammatory viral disease of CNS that can result in permanent paralysis. = fatigue, H/A, fever, vomiting, stiffness of the neck, & pain to the hands & feet

Question 306

Poliomyelitis: Poliovirus Transmitted via: S/S:

Answer 306

= Infectious disease invades CNS causing permanent paralysis – Destroys neurons in CNS = fecal -oral route = Most people infected don't have S/S (24-100) will have flulike S/S) & 1-100 will have weakness & paralysis

Question 307

Pontine respiratory

Answer 307

Smooths out transition of inhalation & exhalation

Question 308

Pontine respiratory

Answer 308

Smooths out transition of inhalation & exhalation

Question 309

Preload:

Answer 309

= pressure (volume) w/in the ventricles at the end of diastole & Also commonly called the end diastolic volume (frank starlings law)

Question 310

Preload: Afterload: Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP):

Answer 310

= pressure/vol/ w/in ventricles @ end of diastole “End-diastole vol/“ = resistance against which the heart must pump against (increase afterload= increase ventricular workload) = average pressure in arteries during a single cardiac cycle = pressure that drives blood to tissues (ensuring organ perfusion)

Question 311

Presence of Carotid bruit: What is a carotid bruit:

Answer 311

= usually means= atherosclerosis = sound of turbulent blood flow around partial vessel obstruction

Question 312

Primary anterior Pituitary hormones: TP-FLAG T: P: F: L: A: G:

Answer 312

Thyroid stimulating Hormone Prolactin Follicle Stimulating Hormone Luteinizing hormone Adreno-corticotropic Growth hormone

Question 313

Prinzmetal Angina:

Answer 313

= Coronary Spasm causing pain from Stimulants

Question 314

Procainamide & Lidocaine) class

Answer 314

= class 1A&B Na Channel Blockers = Alterative to Amiodarone in cardiac arrest V-Fib/pVT, Stable monomorphic Ventricular TachyC w/ presserved LVF = V-Tach with a pulse, pre-excitation rhythms (WPW) >50% QRS width

Question 315

Cachexia

Answer 315

Profound weight loss (in context of cancer)

Question 316

Propranolol, Labetalol, Metoprolol) class Labetalol Metoprolol

Answer 316

= class 2 Beta Blockers = 2nd line med for SVT after Adenosine, A-fib/flutter w/RVR, Reduce myocardical ischemia in AMI PT's w/elevated HR, Antihypertensive = Hypertension, 2nd line med for A-Fib/A-Flutter w/ RVR, & SVT

Question 317

Pulse Deficit: Pulse Deficit indicates: Pulsus Alternans: Pulsus Alternans indicates:

Answer 317

= difference in HR w/ auscultation & PR w/ palpation. = not all heartbeats make palpable pulse, often A-Fib = Alternation of strong & weak pulses, typically =L-ventricle dysfunc/or H-failure & often chronic condition of the heart.

Question 318

Pupils: Direct response: Indirect response: Accommodation: Ocular motor movement:

Answer 318

= same pupil in light responds = pupil opposite of light responds = eyes cross when finger to nose = eye movement in "H"

Question 319

Febrile seizure: when pyrogen production stops: Fever hard to differentiate from heatstroke; neuro symptoms may present w/ either Treat:

Answer 319

= fever seizure with kid & cool down = Hypothalamic thermostat will reset to normal = for heatstroke if you are unsure which it is * If child history of febrile seizures, treat for fever.

Question 320

Causes of Structural Lesions (AMS)

Answer 320

Brain tumors, degenerative diseases, intracranial hemorrhage, parasites, trauma

Question 321

Causes of Toxic-Metabolic States (AMS)

Answer 321

= Anoxia, DKA, hepatic failure, hypercapnia, hypoglycemia, renal failure, thiamine deficiency, toxins (cyanide, organophosphates)

Question 322

Chronic Alcoholism Effect on Brain

Answer 322

Interferes w/ thiamine absorption & use, leading to Wernicke’s Syndrome or Korsakoff’s Psychosis

Question 323

CSF & Blood Volume in Brain

Answer 323

Arterial Blood: 30 mL Venous Blood: 120 mL CSF: 150 mL Brain Tissue: 1400 mL

Question 324

Lung Compliance: High compliance: Low compliance:

Answer 324

= The lung’s ability to stretch and expand = Easy to inflate,

Question 325

Difference between active & passive phases of breathing?

Answer 325

= Inhalation requires ATP (active); exhalation is passive unless in COPD or other conditions.

Question 326

Does CO2 bind to the same hemoglobin site as oxygen?

Answer 326

= no, it binds to amino acid in the hemoglobin protein chain thus Carminoglobin

Question 327

Examples of structural lesions?

Answer 327

= Brain tumors, degenerative disease, intracranial hemorrhage, parasites, trauma.

Question 328

Function of Choroid Plexus: 3 Major Components of Intracranial Volume Causes of Hydrocephalus: 2 Types of Shunts for Hydrocephalus:

Answer 328

= Produces CSF = 80% brain tissue, 10% blood, 10% CSF = CSF blockage, leading to increased pressure = VP shunt (drains to abdomen), VA shunt (drains to right atrium)

Question 329

Fundamental unit of the nervous system?

Answer 329

Nerve cell (neuron), composed of a cell body (soma), dendrites (transmit impulses to soma), & axons (transmit impulses away from soma).

Question 330

How does the gradient between alveolar & capillary oxygen concentration affect oxygen transfer?

Answer 330

Less oxygen passes into the bloodstream as the gradient decreases.

Question 331

Key features of chronic bronchitis?

Answer 331

Increased goblet cells, excessive mucus production, rhonchi, productive cough, "blue bloaters."

Question 332

Key features of emphysema?

Answer 332

Destruction of alveoli, CO2 retention, dyspnea, barrel chest, finger clubbing, hypertrophic accessory muscles.

Question 333

Most Common Type of Neuron: Main Excitatory Neurotransmitter in CNS: Main Inhibitory Neurotransmitter in CNS:

Answer 333

= Multipolar = Glutamate = GABA

Question 334

Neurotransmitter of Sympathetic Nervous System: Neurotransmitter of Parasympathetic Nervous System

Answer 334

= Norepinephrine / Noradrenal = Acetylcholine

Question 335

Posterior Column Function

Answer 335

Proprioception & fine touch

Question 336

Posterior Column Function

Answer 336

Proprioception & fine touch

Question 337

PT presents w/hx smoking, productive cough for 3 months/year over 2 years, and cyanosis. What is the most likely condition?

Answer 337

Chronic bronchitis.

Question 338

PT presents w/stridor, drooling, difficulty swallowing, and a sudden onset of fever. What is the most likely condition?.

Answer 338

Epiglottitis

Question 339

PT shows severe dyspnea, barrel chest, pursed-lip breathing, & weight loss. What condition does this describe?

Answer 339

Emphysema

Question 340

Pyramidal Tract Function & Location:

Answer 340

= Motor control, sits dorsally, sends signals ventrally

Question 341

Brown-Séquard Syndrome Effect

Answer 341

Medial spinal cord dissection, causing ipsilateral motor loss & contralateral pain/temp loss

Question 342

Hyperkalemia affect of Neuronal Function

Answer 342

K+ retention disrupts normal efflux, affecting neuron excitability

Question 343

Role of the phrenic nerve?

Answer 343

= Stimulates diaphragm, originates from C3, C4, C5.

Question 344

Role of tonsils?

Answer 344

= Lymphatic tissue for immune defense; "kissing tonsils" can indicate tonsillitis.

Question 345

Q: Role of Type II alveolar cells?

Answer 345

Produce surfactant, last cells to develop in utero (issues in premature babies).

Question 346

Spinothalamic Tract Function & Location:

Answer 346

= Pain & temperature, sits ventrally (ipsilateral function)

Question 347

Spinothalamic Tract Function & Location: Pyramidal Tract Function & Location: Posterior Column Function:

Answer 347

= Pain & temperature, sits ventrally (ipsilateral function) = Motor control, sits dorsally, sends signals ventrally = Proprioception & fine touch

Question 348

Wernicke’s Syndrome vs. Korsakoff’s Psychosis

Answer 348

Wernicke’s Syndrome (Reversible): Ataxia, confusion, eye muscle weakness Korsakoff’s Psychosis (Irreversible): Severe memory impairment

Question 349

What are common S/S of a PT experiencing a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

Answer 349

Sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, and signs of hypoxia w/o lung sounds changes.

Question 350

Lobes of the brain & their functions Frontal lobe: Parietal lobe: Temporal lobe: Occipital lobe: Cerebellum:

Answer 350

F] Motor Fn, decision-making, speech (Broca’s area) P] Sensory perception, proprioception. T] Hearing, memory, language comprehension (Wernicke’s area) O] Vision processing. C] Coordination, balance.

Question 351

2 main types of seizures?

Answer 351

Generalized seizures & partial (focal) seizures.

Question 352

2 CSF shunts & where do they drain?

Answer 352

VP (Ventriculoperitoneal) shunt → Drains into the abdomen. VA (Ventriculoatrial) shunt → Drains into the right atrium.

Question 353

What condition presents as diminished lung sounds, hyperresonance, tracheal deviation (late sign), and respiratory distress?

Answer 353

Tension pneumothorax.

Question 354

When CO2 increases in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):

Answer 354

= CO2 combines w/ water to form an acid, lowering pH & increasing hydrogen ion concentration.

Question 355

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Answer 355

Severe inflammation and fluid buildup in alveoli, causing non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema and hypoxemia.

Question 356

What is atelectasis?

Answer 356

Partial or complete collapse of alveoli, often due to mucus plugging or lack of surfactant.

Question 357

What is Korsakoff’s psychosis?

Answer 357

= Chronic, irreversible memory disorder caused by severe thiamine deficiency.

Question 358

Fn of cAMP in cardiac physiology?

Answer 358

= Downregulates, decreasing chronotropy (HR) & inotropy (contractility).

Question 359

What is the function of the diaphragm during respiration?

Answer 359

Contracts to increase thoracic cavity volume, decreasing pressure and allowing air inflow.

Question 360

most common cause of stroke?

Answer 360

= Atherosclerotic plaque rupture & hemostasis leading to thrombotic stroke.

Question 361

What is the most common cause of stroke?

Answer 361

= Atherosclerotic plaque rupture & hemostasis leading to thrombotic stroke.

Question 362

What is the spinothalamic tract responsible for?

Answer 362

= Pain & temperature sensation; located on the ventral side, meaning damage causes contralateral deficits.

Question 363

What is Wernicke’s syndrome?

Answer 363

= Acute, reversible encephalopathy w/ ataxia, nystagmus, confusion, unsteady gait.

Question 364

What is Brown-Séquard syndrome

Answer 364

Spinal cord hemisection causing ipsilateral motor loss & contralateral pain/temp loss.

Question 365

What type of information is transmitted by the dorsal roots of the spinal cord

Answer 365

= Sensory input.

Question 366

What type of information is transmitted by the ventral roots of the spinal cord?

Answer 366

Motor output.

Question 367

Where do embolic strokes typically originate from?

Answer 367

= Carotid arteries, heart (A-fib), or large neck vessels.

Question 368

Why is CO2 released from hemoglobin in the lungs?

Answer 368

= the lower concentration of CO2 in the alveoli.

Question 369

Why time intubation with inhalation in awake PTs?

Answer 369

Vocal cords are widest during inhalation to avoid hitting vascular ventricular folds.

Question 370

RAS: Associated with: Drugs that affect RAS

Answer 370

= Reticular Activating System} Hub from info transmission from dissociation made of network of interconnected neurons in brainstem = wakefulness, consciousness, REM sleep. Hypnotic drugs target the RAS to induce sleep

Question 371

1) Not all of the alveoli remain patent during gas exchange thus: 2) This process is referred to as:

Answer 371

= a small % of blood passes through alveoli w/o exchanging oxygen & carbon dioxide = physiologic shunt (affects ~2% of the total blood flow to the lungs)

Question 372

Residual Volume (RV)=

Answer 372

amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of maximal expiration (~1200mLs)

Question 373

Resonance percussion sound:

Answer 373

= “Hallow” , loud intensity, low pitched, long duration, located in a normal lung

Question 374

Reticular Activating System (RAS) Function

Answer 374

= Maintains wakefulness & consciousness, regulates sleep-wake cycles

Question 375

Role of turbinates?

Answer 375

Create turbulence to filter air using cilia.

Question 376

SC Transection: Thoracic spine: Cervical spine: Lumbar spine:

Answer 376

= Partially or completely cut in SC w/o Potential to send & receive nerve impulses below injury = Incontinence & paraplegia = Partial/complete resp/ paralysis, quadriplegia, incontinence

Question 377

Schram roth test:

Answer 377

finger nails creates diamonds A fig: normal, B fig: clubber

Question 378

sclera: Cornea: Retina:

Answer 378

= white of the eye; Dense avascular structure gives eye shape = Separates anterior chamber fluid from external environment & permits light to enter the lens & reach the retina. = Sensory network of eye transforms light rays into electrical impulses that the optic nerve transmits to the brain.

Question 379

Seizures Types: Generalized Seizures: Categories:

Answer 379

= Generalized Seizures & Partial Seizures = electrical discharge in small area of brain but spreads to involve entire cerebral cortex, causing widespread malfunction. Associated w/ unconsciousness = Grand Mal Seizures (most common(TonicClonic Seizure), Petit Mal Seizures (Absence Seizure), Pseudo Seizures (Hysterical Seizure), Mimic generalized seizures

Question 380

Sensory Located @ Motor Located @

Answer 380

=in the parietal lobes of the cerebrum = in the frontal lobes of the cerebrum.

Question 381

S/S of this type of hemorrhage may take hours, or even days to develop:

Answer 381

Subdural hematoma

Question 382

Sinus Headaches:

Answer 382

Caused by pressure that is the result of fluid accumulation in the sinus cavities (PTs may have cold-like S/S of nasal congestion, cough, fever) Prehospital emergency care is not required Usually bacterial infection & rq antibiotic

Question 383

Situs Inversus Totali

Answer 383

s= “EVERYTHING WRONG” H right side

Question 384

Cilia In the nose move how & for: When mucus & entrapped particles reach posterior of nasopharynx:

Answer 384

= steady posterior flow of mucus at the same time removing any entrapped particles. = they are swallowed and removed from the body via the digestive tract.

Question 385

Cranial nerve types mnemonic: Nerve types:

Answer 385

= "Some Say Marry Money, But My Bitch Says Big Boobs Matter Most." = 1. Olfactory - Sensory 2. Optic - Sensory 3. Oculomotor - Motor 4. Trochlear - Motor 5. Trigeminal - Both 6. Abducens - Motor 7. Facial - Both 8. Vestibulocochlear (or Auditory) - Sensory 9. Glossopharyngeal - Both 10. Vagus - Both 11. Spinal Accessory - Motor 12. Hypoglossal - Motor

Question 386

Speech Located @ Vision Located @ Personality Located @ Balance & coordination Located @

Answer 386

= most commonly L-temporal lobe of cerebrum =in the occipital cortex of the cerebrum = in the frontal lobes of the cerebrum = in the cerebellum.

Question 387

Spina bifida (SB) Long-term effects: The three most common types of SB:

Answer 387

= neural defect from failure of 1 or > of the fetal vertebrae to close properly during pregnancy thus a portion of SC unprotected. >opening can usually be repaired shortly after birth, but the nerve damage is permanent. = physical & mobility impairments, & most some form of learning disability. = 1. Myelomeningocele (most severe full exposure) 2. Meningocele (meninges protrude through spinal opening) 3. Occulta (mildest form 1/> vertebrae malformed & covered by a layer of skin)

Question 388

Spina Bifida: Different Types) 1. Myelomeningocele: 2. Meningocele: 3. Occulta:

Answer 388

= Neural tube defect from the incomplete closing of vertebrae & membranes around SC 1) Spinal cord & meninges protrude 2) Only the meninges protrude 3) 1 or more vertebrae are malformed

Question 389

Spinal Canal) Vertebral Foramen: Articular facets: Back, chest, pelvic muscles provide: kids can hyperflex more vs adults b/c:

Answer 389

= Contains and protects spinal cord = form joint between vertebra (above & below) Held in place by various lig/s = supports. (post&anterioer longitudinal ligament) (Intervertebral disc & body of vertebral) = kids have larger wedges compared to adults

Question 390

Spinal Cord Dorsal vs. Ventral Roots

Answer 390

Dorsal = Sensory Ventral = Motor

Question 391

SC) Pyramidal Tract: Posterior Columnus: Spinothalamic Tract:

Answer 391

= Motor fn. on the same side = Position & vibration sensation on the same side = Pain & temp sensation to opposite side

Question 392

Spinal Cord Syndromes) Anterior Cord Syndrome: Results from: S/S: Commonly seen w/:

Answer 392

= bony frag/s or pressure compressing arteries of anterior SC = severe extension-flexion injury = Loss of motor, sensory, light, & temp/ Fn below injury site = Old & pedis rear end MVC w/ improper head restraint

Question 393

Spinal Nerve Plexuses) def/: Locations: Key myotomes for neurologic evaluation: Dermatomes

Answer 393

= sensory components of spinal nerves innervate specific & discrete surface areas called dermatomes = distributed from the occiput of the head to the heel of the foot and buttocks. = arm extension (C-5), elbow extension (C-7), small finger abduction (T-1), knee extension (L-3), & ankle (plantar) flexion (S-1).

Question 394

Spodick's Sign, or downsloping of the TP segment on an ECG is usually associated with

Answer 394

Pericarditis

Question 395

Stable & symptomatic doesnt always mean

Answer 395

medicate; ex vagal is all that is needed

Question 396

Stable Angina:

Answer 396

= Predictable chest pain w/ exertion, relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.

Question 397

Diaphragm expansion cause: intrapulmonic P. relation w/ atmospheric P.

Answer 397

= increase chest vol/ thus decrease in air pressure inside the chest cavity (intrapulmonary pressure) = decrease to ~1-2 mmHg

Question 398

Stretch receptors in the lung tissue send a signal to the CNS during inhalation that inhibits the stimulation of the phrenic nerve. This safety mechanism is known as the:

Answer 398

Hering-Beuring reflex

Question 399

Stretch receptors are located @:

Answer 399

= visceral pleura, bronchi & bronchioles walls

Question 400

Stridor most likely indicates:

Answer 400

Swelling of the laryngeal tissues

Question 401

Stroke Management:

Answer 401

} Stroke Alert }Establish & Maintain a patent airway (Advanced airway may be required) }Supplemental O2 (if signs of hypoxia are present) }BGL (treat hypoglycemia w/ IV dextrose) }IV (large gauge preferred) & 15 Lead ECG }Protect paralyzed or Motor deficit PTs from hurting themselves (DONT HAVE PT SIT ON DEFICIT) }LSD & tPA (Fibrinolytic) @ hospital

Question 402

Stroke window for tPA Fibrinolytic checklist

Answer 402

= 3Hr tPA– 0.8 mg/kg (max dose 90 mg)

Question 403

5th leading cause of death each year

Answer 403

= STROKE }Cerebral vascular attack / brain attack) Ischemic 87% & Hemorrhagic 13% 2 sub types of ischemic(Embolic or Thrombotic) Injury from plaque rupture & hemostasis most common reason for stroke Thrombotic is moving clot & most common >Risk Factors: Smoking, HTN, Diabetes, A-Fib, Hyperlipidemia. (smoking & HTN biggest causes

Question 404

structures make up your upper airway? Par-, Lar, Nasophar-, Orophar-pharnx

Answer 404

= Par-, Lar, Nasophar-, Orophar-pharnx

Question 405

Subdural Hematoma) what & where: Occurs after or w/: Deadly b/c: Meningies involveved & most common vessel:

Answer 405

= Accumulation of blood beneath dura mater but outside brain = falls or injuries involving strong deceleration forces = Venous bleed slower S/S onset slower High mortality = Dura & arachnoid involved} Most common vessel is the superior sagittal sinus

Question 406

Tension Headaches:

Answer 406

= frontal lobe} Caused by M. contractions in head & neck – Attributed to stress -Pain is usually described as squeezing, dull, or as an ache.

Question 407

The 4 categories of peripheral nerves are:

Answer 407

= Somatic sensory & Motor, Visceral (autonomic) sensory & Motor

Question 408

What would cause a right-shift of the Oxygen Dissociation Curve?

Answer 408

decrease in the pH of the blood, increase in body temperature, increase in the amount of CO

Question 409

The cauda equina, is located: Vertebra C-2 is known as: Vertebra C-1 is known as:

Answer 409

= Below the level of L2 = the Atlas = the axis

Question 410

Direct ARDS causes: Indirect ARDS causes:

Answer 410

= Pneumonia, Gastric Aspiration, Near drowning, Smoke inhalation = Sepsis, Pancreatitis, Trauma/Burns, High altitude, Blood transfusions

Question 411

The cranium's several bones fused together at called

Answer 411

pseudojoints called sutures.

Question 412

Dystonia: Early symptoms of dystonia include:

Answer 412

= group of disorders characterized by M. contractions that cause twisting & repetitive m-nts, abnormal postures, or freezing in middle of action. Such movements are involuntary and sometimes painful. They can affect a single muscle, a group of muscles, or the entire body =deterioration in handwriting, foot cramps, or a tendency of one foot to drag after walking or running. These initial symptoms can be mild and can be noticeable only after prolonged exertion, stress, or fatigue. In many cases, they become more noticeable and widespread over time. In other individuals, there is little or no progression

Question 413

The forced expiratory volume (FEV) Most commonly, FEV1 measures Peak flow measures: Both these measurements are commonly used for:

Answer 413

= vol/ of air exhaled over measured period of time = air vol/ expelled in 1st sec of a forced expiration = max/ rate of airflow during a forced expiration( Ls of air expiration per min) = assessing PTs w/ lung diseases (COPD, asthma)

Question 414

The forced expiratory volume (FEV) Most commonly, FEV1 measures Peak flow measures: Both these measurements are commonly used for:

Answer 414

= vol/ of air exhaled over measured period of time = air vol/ expelled in 1st sec of a forced expiration = max/ rate of airflow during a forced expiration( Ls of air expiration per min) = assessing PTs w/ lung diseases (COPD, asthma)

Question 415

The "F"s of a PE:

Answer 415

Fat, Fucked, Fractured, Flying, Feet

Question 416

The location where pulmonary arteries enter and pulmonary veins exit is called the:

Answer 416

Pulmonary hilum

Question 417

The main respiratory center lies in the

Answer 417

Medulla Oblengata

Question 418

Material that surrounds gray matter in the spinal cord & is made up largely of axons is called: The covering that protects the entire spinal cord and peripheral nerve roots is called the:

Answer 418

= White matter - Spinal meninges

Question 419

The most important factor that determines the ventilation rate of a patient is the amount of:

Answer 419

Arterial pCO2

Question 420

The narrowest portion of the pediatric upper airway is the:

Answer 420

Cricoid ring

Question 421

The phrenic runs runs off the cervical spinal cord from:

Answer 421

C3-5

Question 422

J waves on a 12-lead ECG w/ PT who is not hypothermic is usually associated w/:

Answer 422

(BER) Benign early repolarizarion

Question 423

The sensory components of the spinal nerves that innervate specific and discrete surface areas are called:

Answer 423

Dermatomes

Question 424

The spinal cord ends in the area of: By adulthood, sections of spinal column that've fused are:

Answer 424

= L1/L2 = Coccyx & Sacrum

Question 425

Muscular dystrophy (MD) refers to a Most common form of MD:

Answer 425

= group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive M. weakness & degeneration of skeletal or voluntary M-fibers. = Duchenne; heart & other involuntary M.s affected in some types of MD

Question 426

The term “collateral circulation” refers to:

Answer 426

An alternative path for blood flow in case of blockage

Question 427

Tonsils are: 3 types of tonsils:

Answer 427

= nodules of lymphoid tissue that are located in the posterior pharynx. = pharyngeal/adenoids, palatine & lingual in Oral cavity

Question 428

lobe that controls Fns as N/V reflex, hunger, thirst, & temp:

Answer 428

Hypothalamus

Question 429

admin/ing NGL to PT suspected of having an acute MI has therapeutic effect b/c

Answer 429

1 Increased coronary artery perfusion through vasodilation 2 Decrease in cardiac afterload pressure from peripheral vasodilation

Question 430

Thick, fibrous, inflexible membranes surrounding muscle that help bind muscle groups together are called:

Answer 430

Fascia

Question 431

This color of skin is associated with severe CO poisoning

Answer 431

Cherry Red

Question 432

Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm (TAA) aka : S/S: Ligament & fixation point:

Answer 432

= Bulging of thoracic aorta. DeBakey Tear = “TEARING PAIN INTO BACK”, SOB, hoarseness, dysphagia = Ligamentum arteriosum, fixed between aorta & pulmonary artery.

Question 433

Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm aka: Definers: ECG changes:

Answer 433

= Debakey Tear = Pulse & BP deficit, Acute "Rip/Tearing" pain, Hetero-perfusion = ST Elevation in aVR and Posterior Leads

Question 434

Thyroid Disorders:

Answer 434

= Hyperthyroidism (Graves’ Disease, Thyroid Storm) & Hypothyroidism (Myxedema, Myxedema Coma)

Question 435

Addison’s Disease (Hypoadrenalism):

Answer 435

= Inadequate cortisol & aldosterone production → adrenal crisis if untreated.

Question 436

Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxic Crisis):

Answer 436

= "Tense Tachy Temp" Life-threatening thyroid hormone surge → extreme tachycardia, hypertension, fever.

Question 437

TIA S/S:

Answer 437

= “Mini Stroke” Blood flow blocked for short time ~ small thromboembolism & body lysation or vasoconstriction = Lasts few mins to several Hrs usually (can last 24Hrs) Resolves completely within 24 hours No evidence of neurological deficits Precurrsor Over 50% has stroke later Can be single on combination of S/S: visual, phonation, slurring

Question 438

Tidal Volume:

Answer 438

= Amount of air moved in & out of lungs in 1 breath (~500 mL’s in a healthy adult)

Question 439

Time interval markings on ECG paper are placed at:

Answer 439

3-second intervals.

Question 440

Tonic Clonic / Grand mal Seizures: May be caused by: Phases: Concerns:

Answer 440

= (most common) Temp/ alt/ in cerebral activity changes electrical activity in the cerebral cortex. = hypoxia, hypoglycemia, fever, tumors, stress, trauma, idiopathic. = Aura, Tonic, Clonic, Hypertonic, Postical = airway is clear} Intercostal-M.s & diaphragm temporarily paralyzed w/ copious amounts of secretions

Question 441

lack of metabolic substrates (oxygen, glucose, or thiamine can produce

Answer 441

diffuse depression of both sides (hemispheres) of the cerebrum, with or without depression within the brainstem.

Question 442

Toxic-metabolic states involve either:

Answer 442

the presence of circulating toxins or metabolites or the lack of metabolic substrates (oxygen, glucose, or thiamine).

Question 443

Majority Hemorrhagic stroke pts have:

Answer 443

>Thunderclap H/A sudden full cranial vault full force “worst H/A of life”

Question 444

Trachea bifurcates @?

Answer 444

Carina

Question 445

Rx of a PT w/ suspected ARDS can include: except:

Answer 445

= Endotracheal intubation, CPAP if still breathtaking on own, Admin of corticosteroids = Administration of Nitroglycerin

Question 446

Trigeminal neuralgia aka:

Answer 446

tic douloureux

Question 447

Two Main Causes of Altered Mental Status (AMS)

Answer 447

Structural Lesions & Toxic-Metabolic States

Question 448

Two Main Types of Ischemic Stroke: Most Common Cause of Stroke: Common Sources of Emboli in Embolic Stroke

Answer 448

= Embolic & Thrombotic = Thrombotic stroke (clot formation due to atherosclerosis or plaque rupture) = Carotid stenosis, AFib, air embolism

Question 449

Type 1 Diabetes:

Answer 449

= No insulin → cells can’t use glucose → fat breakdown increases → excessive ketones → Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA).

Question 450

Type 1 Diabetes:

Answer 450

= Autoimmune destruction of beta cells → no insulin production → requires insulin therapy & frequent glucose monitoring.

Question 451

Type 2 Diabetes:

Answer 451

= Insulin resistance → linked to obesity → managed w/ diet, exercise, & meds that increase insulin secretion or receptor sensitivity.

Question 452

Type 2 Diabetes:

Answer 452

Some insulin is present → prevents excess fat breakdown, so ketones don’t build up → instead, these PTs develop HHS (Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome) without acidosis.

Question 453

Unstable Angina:

Answer 453

= Unpredictable, occurs at rest, more severe, precursor to MI.

Question 454

Up-regulation: More receptors causes:

Answer 454

= Med/hormone causes formation of more receptors than normal = increases target tissue’s sensitivity to the particular medication or hormone.

Question 455

Up-regulation: More receptors causes:

Answer 455

= Med/hormone causes formation of more receptors than normal = increases target tissue’s sensitivity to the particular medication or hormone.

Question 456

Upon arrival you find a 21-year-old patient with obvious severe respiratory distress. The patient is very tachypneic and the family tells you the patient has a long history of asthma. Your partner has connected the patient to oxygen and has also hooked up the patient to ETCO2 monitoring. What would you most likely expect to see on this patient's capnogram?

Answer 456

Hypocarbia and an up-sloping of phase 3 of the capnogram waveform

Question 457

Upper Airway 3 responsibilities for?

Answer 457

= Filter, warm, Humidified

Question 458

V/Q Mismatch & Pathos) Causes of V problem: Causes of Q problem:

Answer 458

= Ventilation issues: Obstruction, swelling, or mechanical disruption. Perfusion issues: PE, severe hemorrhage, or shock.

Question 459

Ventilation: Diffusion: Perfusion:

Answer 459

= Air moving into and out of the lungs. = Gas exchange between alveoli and blood. = Blood flow to tissues for oxygen delivery.

Question 460

Prebotzinger VRG: DRG: Pontine resp:

Answer 460

= "SA resp node” in medulla = transmits via phrenic = receives input from chemoreceptors = com/s w/ VRG to smooth out the vent

Question 461

Vocal cords widest at If intubating awake PT remember:

Answer 461

= inhalation = time during inhalation to avoid hitting vascular ventricular folds

Question 462

Vomiting w/ head injury is a frequent result of:

Answer 462

= Increasing intracranial pressure

Question 463

VT vs SVT w/ aberrancy) 3rd Criteria: Josephson’s Sign: Nadir:

Answer 463

= Josephson’s Sign = Notching near the nadir of the S-wave = deepest/most distal point of depression

Question 464

w/ A/V Sequential regain:

Answer 464

atrial kick

Question 465

Cellular asphyxiation : CO2 attaches to hemoglobin via CO2 doesn't bind to

Answer 465

= cells stuck in 1 of the shifts causing death = amino acid chain (carbminoacid = hem sites

Question 466

Wernicke’s Syndrome (Reversible): Korsakoff’s Syndrome (Irreversible):

Answer 466

= Acute weakness, ataxia, confusion, unsteady gait, nystagmus. = Chronic phase w/ severe memory impairment > Give Thiamine before admin/ of Dextrose for hypoglycemia!

Question 467

What are adrenal gland disorders?

Answer 467

Hyperadrenalism (Cushing’s Syndrome). Hypoadrenalism (Addison’s Disease).

Question 468

What are Kussmaul's respirations?

Answer 468

Deep rapid breathing due to metabolic acidosis from excess ketones.

Question 469

What are the 2 subdivisions of the autonomic NS (ANS)?

Answer 469

Sympathetic & Parasympathetic

Question 470

What are the characteristics of Type 1 diabetes?

Answer 470

Requires external insulin, frequent blood sugar monitoring, & sometimes insulin pumps. ## Footnote Without insulin, glucose cannot enter cells, leading to alternative energy pathways.

Question 471

What are the characteristics of Type 2 diabetes?

Answer 471

Insulin resistance, often linked to obesity; can sometimes be reversed w/ lifestyle changes. Treated w/ meds that increase insulin secretion, enhance receptor sensitivity, or decrease glucagon effects.

Question 472

What are the major endocrine glands?

Answer 472

Hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, pancreas, adrenal glands, gonads.

Question 473

What are the signs & symptoms of hyperglycemia?

Answer 473

3 P’s: Polyuria (frequent urination), Polydipsia (excessive thirst), Polyphagia (excessive hunger).

Question 474

What are the two main branches of the nervous system?

Answer 474

Central & Peripheral

Question 475

What are the two subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Answer 475

Somatic & Autonomic

Question 476

What are the two types of ischemic stroke?

Answer 476

= Embolic & thrombotic.

Question 477

What are the types of cells in the Islets of Langerhans?

Answer 477

Alpha Cells: Produce glucagon (raises blood sugar). Beta Cells: Produce insulin (lowers blood sugar). Delta Cells: Produce somatostatin (inhibits glucagon & insulin secretion).

Question 478

What are the types of diabetes?

Answer 478

Type 1: Autoimmune destruction of beta cells → requires insulin. Type 2: Insulin resistance, often linked to obesity; can be managed w/ diet, exercise, & meds.

Question 479

What are thyroid disorders?

Answer 479

Hyperthyroidism (Graves' Disease, Thyroid Storm). Hypothyroidism (Myxedema, Myxedema Coma).

Question 480

What best defines Type I Diabetes?

Answer 480

It is usually caused by an autoimmune response in which the body's immune system attacks and kills the beta cells of the pancreas.

Question 481

What blood glucose level identifies as being hyperglycemic?

Answer 481

> 120mg/dL - >140mg/dL

Question 482

What blood glucose level identifies as being hypoglycemic?

Answer 482

< 70mg/dL

Question 483

What causes endocrine disorders?

Answer 483

Endocrine disorders are caused by internal communication problems.

Question 484

What condition involves chronic hypoxia leading to pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure (cor pulmonale)?

Answer 484

COPD, specifically emphysema.

Question 485

What condition is characterized by insufficient cortisol production from the adrenal glands?

Answer 485

Addison's Disease

Question 486

What condition is more prone to barotrauma

Answer 486

ARDS,

Question 487

What condition might a patient with an enlarged neck, weight loss, and bulging eyes have?

Answer 487

Graves' Disease

Question 488

What cranial nerve allows a patient to make facial expressions and close their eyelids?

Answer 488

Cranial Nerve VII

Question 489

What cranial nerve allows a patient to move their eyes laterally?

Answer 489

Cranial Nerve VI

Question 490

What cranial nerve is affected if a patient's tongue deviates to one side?

Answer 490

Cranial Nerve XII

Question 491

What cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?

Answer 491

Cranial Nerve VIII

Question 492

What cranial nerve is responsible for sensation to the face and motor innervation of mastication muscles?

Answer 492

Cranial Nerve V

Question 493

What cranial nerve might be dysfunctional if a patient has difficulty swallowing?

Answer 493

Cranial Nerve IX

Question 494

What do alpha cells of the pancreas secrete?

Answer 494

Glucagon

Question 495

What do alveolar pores do?

Answer 495

Provide "back doors" between alveoli for air distribution, produce surfactant.

Question 496

What do beta cells of the pancreas secrete?

Answer 496

Insulin

Question 497

What do delta cells of the pancreas secrete?

Answer 497

Somatostatin

Question 498

What do the adrenal glands secrete?

Answer 498

The adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys, secrete catecholamines such as norepinephrine and epinephrine.

Question 499

What does adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulate?

Answer 499

Stimulates release of corticosteroid hormones cortisol and aldosterone. ## Footnote Targets adrenal cortexes.

Question 500

What does Somatostatin do?

Answer 500

Somatostatin is the opposite of GH (Growth Hormone). "Stopper"

Question 501

What does the endocrine system influence?

Answer 501

Nearly every cell, organ, and bodily function.

Question 502

What does the parathyroid hormone cause?

Answer 502

An increase in the blood Ca level.

Question 503

What does the release of calcitonin from the thyroid gland cause?

Answer 503

The blood Ca level to drop "calcitonin cuts Ca"

Question 504

What dysfunction might a patient experience after a viral infection if they lost their sense of smell?

Answer 504

Olfactory CN 1

Question 505

What ECG pattern is associated with a patient having a pulmonary embolism:

Answer 505

S1Q3T3

Question 506

What effects would you see if the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) was to take over?

Answer 506

"Fight or Flight" increase HR & electricity, GI constriction, ect + tropic effects

Question 507

1}Arterial oxygen concentration (CaO2) calculated: 2}SaO2 represent in the CaO2 equation? 3} Hgb represent in the CaO2 equation? 4} 1.34 represent in the CaO2 equation? 5} 0.003 represent in the CaO2 equation? 6} PaO2 represent in the CaO2 equation?

Answer 507

1} 𝐶𝑎𝑂2=(𝑆𝑎𝑂2× 𝐻𝑔𝑏 × 1.34)+ (0.003 × 𝑃𝑎𝑂2) CaO2=(SaO2×Hgb×1.34)+(0.003×PaO2). 2} Hemoglobin-oxygen saturation (%) 3} Amount of hemoglobin present (g/dL) 4} Amount of oxygen bound to 1 gram of hemoglobin at 1 atmosphere of pressure. 5} Oxygen dissolved in plasma (mL/g Hgb) 6} Partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in plasma

Question 508

Enzyme facilitates CO2 & water reaction in RBC: ions formed when carbonic anhydrase combines CO2 & water:

Answer 508

= Carbonic anhydrase = Hydrogen (H+) & bicarbonate (HCO3−).

Question 509

What findings support a diagnosis of Cushing's Disease?

Answer 509

Moon face, Excessive purple stretch marks, Buffalo hump. "Cushings look like a cushion"

Question 510

What findings would substantiate a suspected overdose of levothyroxine? "Thyroid horomone replacement med"

Answer 510

A-Fib w/ RVR, hypotension and seizures.

Question 511

What happens when CSF drainage is blocked?

Answer 511

= (↑ ICP) can cause Hydrocephalus

Question 512

What happens when T-cells attack normal cells?

Answer 512

When T-cells attack normal cells, it can lead to autoimmune diseases.

Question 513

What hormone contributes to salt and fluid balance?

Answer 513

Aldosterone (ADH) ## Footnote Targets kidneys, blood.

Question 514

What hormone decreases blood glucose levels?

Answer 514

Insulin ## Footnote Targets all cells, particularly in liver, muscle, and fat.

Question 515

What hormone does the hypothalamus release to stimulate growth?

Answer 515

Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) ## Footnote Targets the anterior pituitary.

Question 516

What hormone does the hypothalamus release to stimulate the adrenal cortex?

Answer 516

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) ## Footnote Targets the anterior pituitary.

Question 517

What hormone increases blood calcium levels?

Answer 517

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) ## Footnote Targets bone, intestine, kidneys.

Question 518

What hormone increases blood glucose levels?

Answer 518

Glucagon ## Footnote Targets all cells, particularly in liver, muscle, and fat.

Question 519

What hormone inhibits growth hormone release?

Answer 519

Somatostatin (GHIH) Targets the anterior pituitary.

Question 520

What hormone inhibits milk production?

Answer 520

Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) Targets the anterior pituitary.

Question 521

What hormone is released by the posterior pituitary?

Answer 521

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) & Oxytocin

Question 522

What hormone is released in response to light and affects mood?

Answer 522

Melatonin Exact action unknown; can help determine daily, lunar, and reproductive cycles.

Question 523

What hormone is responsible for uterine contractions?

Answer 523

Oxytocin Released by the posterior pituitary.

Question 524

What hormone prepares the uterus for pregnancy?

Answer 524

Progesterone targets uterus

Question 525

What hormone stimulates cell metabolism?

Answer 525

Thyroxine (T4) targets all cells

Question 526

What hormone stimulates milk production in mammary glands?

Answer 526

Prolactin (PRL) Targets mammary glands.

Question 527

What hormone stimulates milk production?

Answer 527

Prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH) (Targets anterior pituitary)

Question 528

What hormone stimulates reproduction and functional development of T lymphocytes?

Answer 528

Thymosin Targets white blood cells, primarily T lymphocytes.

Question 529

What hormone stimulates the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females?

Answer 529

Estrogen Targets most cells, particularly those of the female reproductive tract.

Question 530

What hormone stimulates the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males?

Answer 530

Testosterone Targets most cells, particularly those of the male reproductive tract.

Question 531

What hormone stimulates the development of sex cells?

Answer 531

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Targets ovaries or testes.

Question 532

What hormone stimulates the fight-or-flight response?

Answer 532

Epinephrine (adrenaline) Targets muscle, liver, cardiovascular system.

Question 533

What hormone stimulates the release of estrogen and testosterone?

Answer 533

Luteinizing hormone (LH) Targets ovaries or testes.

Question 534

What hormone stimulates the thyroid gland?

Answer 534

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) (Targets anterior pituitary)

Question 535

What hormone stimulates the thyroid to release thyroid hormones?

Answer 535

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Question 536

What hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary?

Answer 536

ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic), TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating), GH (Growth Hormone), PRL (Prolactin), LH (Luteinizing), FSH (Follicle-Stimulating).

Question 537

What hormones does the pituitary gland secrete?

Answer 537

The pituitary gland secretes 2 posterior hormones (ADH/Vasopressin and Oxytocin) and 6 anterior hormones (Thyroid, Prolactin, FSH, LH, Adrenocorticotropic hormone, GH).

Question 538

What hormones does the posterior pituitary secrete?

Answer 538

ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) & Oxytocin.

Question 539

What is a Thyroid Storm?

Answer 539

Severe Hyperthyroidism Crisis ## Footnote S/S: High fever, TachyC, HTN, AMS. Complications/Rx: Life threat: Arrhythmias | Beta-blockers, Cooling, Fluids.

Question 540

What is Addison’s Disease (Hypoadrenalism)?

Answer 540

Inadequate cortisol & aldosterone production. Can lead to adrenal crisis, requiring immediate treatment. "Addison can't stress"

Question 541

Addison’s Disease: S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 541

= HypoAdrenalism Insufficiency "Addison can't stress" = Weakness, Wt loss, HypoT, HyperK+, Bronze skin = Life threat: Adrenal Crisis (Shock) | IV Hydrocortisone, Fluids.

Question 542

What is Adrenal Crisis? S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 542

=Acute Cortisol Deficiency = Severe HypoT, Shock, AMS. = Life threat: Circulatory Collapse | IV Hydrocortisone, Fluids.

Question 543

What is Cushing’s Syndrome (Hyperadrenalism) Causes:

Answer 543

Excess cortisol → moon face, weight gain (especially upper body), buffalo hump, purple striae. = Exogenous (steroids) or endogenous overproduction.

Question 544

Cushing’s Syndrome: S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 544

= hyperadrealism causing Excess Cortisol = Moon face, Buffalo hump, Wt gain, Purple striae. = Minor life threat: HTN | Treat underlying cause.

Question 545

What is Diabetes Insipidus (DI) S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 545

ADH Deficiency → Excess Urination =Polyuria, Polydipsia, Dehydration, HyperNa+. =Life threat: HypoV Shock | IV Fluids, DDAVP.

Question 546

What is diabetes?

Answer 546

Disease where the body’s ability to produce or respond to insulin is impaired, leading to abnormal carbohydrate metabolism & increased blood glucose.

Question 547

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in Type 1 diabetes: Signs: Treatment:

Answer 547

Fat metabolism → ketone production → metabolic acidosis. =Hyperglycemia (250-500+), ketones, Kussmaul respirations (rapid deep breathing, fruity breath), abdominal pain, pH <7.35. = Fluids, insulin, electrolyte management.

Question 548

What is Graves’ Disease?

Answer 548

Hyperthyroidism ## Footnote S/S: Goiter, Exophthalmos, TachyC, Wt loss, Heat intolerance. Complications/Rx: Minor life threat: Irreg/ rhythms or BradyC | O₂ if needed.

Question 549

hemoglobin W/ carbon dioxide attached to it? – hemoglobin w/ carbon monoxide?

Answer 549

= Carbaminohemoglobin = Carboxyhemoglobin

Question 550

What is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) in Type 2 diabetes? Treatment:

Answer 550

Gradual onset, extreme hyperglycemia (>600), severe dehydration, altered mental status, no ketones (no acidosis). Fluids, electrolyte correction, insulin if needed.

Question 551

What is hyperthyroidism (Graves’ Disease)? Symptoms: Thyroid Storm:

Answer 551

Autoimmune overproduction of thyroid hormones. = Goiter, exophthalmos (bulging eyes). = Life-threatening excessive thyroid hormone release → ↑HR, ↑BP, ↑temp.

Question 552

What is hypoglycemia?

Answer 552

Blood sugar <70 mg/dL, must be corrected immediately. ## Footnote Causes: Excess insulin, inadequate food intake. Symptoms: Pale, diaphoretic, tachycardia, AMS, seizures, possible death.

Question 553

What is Hypoglycemia? S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 553

Low Blood Sugar (<70) =AMS, Diaphoresis, TachyC, Seizures. = Life threat: Seizures, Coma | Oral Glucose, IV Dextrose.

Question 554

What is hypothyroidism (Myxedema, Myxedema Coma)? Treatment:

Answer 554

Inadequate thyroid hormones, can lead to goiter, heart issues, neuropathy, coma. =Thyroid hormone replacement.

Question 555

what is hypoxic drive

Answer 555

Anaerobic katabolism aka not enough oxy in blood

Question 556

What is Myxedema Coma? S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 556

=Severe Hypothyroidism Crisis = HypoT, BradyC, AMS, Hypothermia. = Life threat: Respiratory failure | IV Levothyroxine, Warmth, Fluids.

Question 557

What is Pheochromocytoma: S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 557

Adrenal Tumor → Excess Catecholamines =Severe HTN, TachyC, Sweating, HA. =Life threat: HTN Crisis NEVER ADMIN DOP| Alpha-blockers, Surgery.

Question 558

What is SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH) S/S: Complications/Rx:

Answer 558

Excess ADH → Fluid Retention =Dilutional HypoNa+, Low urine output, AMS. =Life threat: Seizures | Fluid restriction, Hypertonic saline.

Question 559

What is status asthmaticus?

Answer 559

Severe asthma not responding to initial treatments; respiratory failure imminent.

Question 560

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

Answer 560

Exocrine glands have ducts and can deal with enzymes, while endocrine glands are more systemic.

Question 561

Endocrine vs Exocrine glands?

Answer 561

Endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream w/o ducts Exocrine glands secrete substances through ducts.

Question 562

What is the function and type of CN I

Answer 562

(Olfactory)Sensory | Smell | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 563

What is the function and type of CN II

Answer 563

(Optic) Sensory | Vision | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 564

What is the function and type of CN III

Answer 564

(Oculomotor) Motor | Eye movement, pupil constriction | Parasympathetic.

Question 565

What is the function and type of CN IV

Answer 565

(Trochlear) Motor | Eye movement (superior oblique) | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 566

What is the function and type of CN IX

Answer 566

(Glossopharyngeal) Both | Taste (posterior 1/3), swallowing | Parasympathetic.

Question 567

What is the function and type of CN V

Answer 567

(Trigeminal) Both | Facial sensation, mastication | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 568

What is the function and type of CN VI

Answer 568

(Abducens) Motor | Eye movement (lateral rectus) | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 569

What is the function and type of CN VII

Answer 569

(Facial) Both | Facial expression, taste (anterior 2/3), lacrimation | Parasympathetic.

Question 570

What is the function and type of CN VIII

Answer 570

(Vestibulocochlear) Sensory | Hearing & balance | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 571

What is the function and type of CN X

Answer 571

(Vagus) Both | Parasympathetic control of heart, lungs, digestion | Parasympathetic.

Question 572

What is the function and type of CN XI

Answer 572

(Accessory) Motor | Shoulder shrug (trapezius, sternocleidomastoid) | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 573

What is the function and type of CN XII

Answer 573

(Hypoglossal) Motor | Tongue movement | Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

Question 574

ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone) fn

Answer 574

Stimulates adrenal cortex to release cortisol.

Question 575

ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) fn

Answer 575

Increases water reabsorption in kidneys → prevents dehydration.

Question 576

Aldosterone fn

Answer 576

Increases Na+ retention & K+ excretion to regulate BP.

Question 577

Calcitonin fn

Answer 577

Calcitonin lowers blood Ca+ Lvls via promotes osteoblast activity & by inhibiting osteoclasts.

Question 578

What is the function of CN III (Oculomotor)?

Answer 578

Motor | Eye movement, pupil constriction | Parasympathetic.

Question 579

What is the function of CN VII (Facial)?

Answer 579

Both | Facial expression, taste (anterior 2/3), lacrimation | Parasympathetic.

Question 580

Epinephrine fn

Answer 580

Increases HR, BP, & metabolism (fight-or-flight response).

Question 581

FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) fn

Answer 581

Stimulates follicle maturation in females & spermatogenesis in males.

Question 582

GH (Growth Hormone) fn

Answer 582

Stimulates growth, metabolism, & IGF-1 production in liver.

Question 583

Glucagon fn

Answer 583

Raises blood glucose by stimulating glycogen breakdown.

Question 584

Insulin fn

Answer 584

Lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake into cells.

Question 585

LH (Luteinizing Hormone) fn

Answer 585

Stimulates ovulation in females & testosterone production in males.

Question 586

Melatonin fn

Answer 586

Regulates sleep-wake cycle (circadian rhythm).

Question 587

Oxytocin fn

Answer 587

Stimulates uterine contractions & milk ejection.

Question 588

PRL (Prolactin) fn

Answer 588

Stimulates milk production in mammary glands.

Question 589

PTH (Parathyroid Hormone) fn

Answer 589

Increases blood Ca+ by stimulating osteoclasts & kidney reabsorption.

Question 590

Pancreas fn

Answer 590

The pancreas has the majority of endocrine functions and produces pancreatic juice.

Question 591

Pineal gland fn

Answer 591

The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which regulates the circadian cycle.

Question 592

TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone) fn

Answer 592

Stimulates thyroid gland to release T3 & T4.

Question 593

What is the Glasgow Coma scale score for a patient who is verbal but confused, closes eyes, and localizes with painful stimulus?

Answer 593

12

Question 594

What is the key organ in diabetes?

Answer 594

Pancreas (contains both endocrine & exocrine tissues).

Question 595

What is the longest cranial nerve in the human body?

Answer 595

Vagus CN 10

Question 596

Main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS? Main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

Answer 596

= Glutamate = GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid).

Question 597

What is the main pre and post ganglionic neurotransmitter for the SNS?

Answer 597

Epinephrine

Question 598

What is the main pre and post ganglionic neurotransmitter for the PSNS?

Answer 598

Acetylcholine

Question 599

What is the pathophysiology of hyperglycemia?

Answer 599

Insufficient insulin → reliance on fat metabolism (lipolysis) → ATP & CO₂ production → excess glucose causes kidney diuresis.

Question 600

PCO2 gradient between pulmonary artery & alveoli: Normal arterial oxygen concentration (CaO2): Normal oxygen concentration in alveoli Normal pulmonary arterial circulation: CO2 pulmonary capillaries concentration gradient CO2 pulmonary alveoli concentration gradient:

Answer 600

= Pulmonary artery: 45 mmHg, Alveoli: 40 mmHg = 17 to 24 mL/dL. = Alveoli: 104 mmHg = Pulmonary arterial circulation: 40 mmHg = Capillaries: 45 mmHg = Alveoli: 40 mmHg.

Question 601

Growth hormone (GH) fn

Answer 601

Stimulates body growth in childhood; causes switch to fats as energy source. ## Footnote Targets all cells, especially growing cells.

Question 602

What is the proper care for a Type I diabetic patient with altered mental status and malfunctioning glucometer?

Answer 602

Place the patient on oxygen via a NRB at 12-15 lpm, start an IV and administer 25 grams of IV dextrose for the treatment of suspected hypoglycemia.

Question 603

What is the role of hormones in the endocrine system?

Answer 603

Hormones are chemical substances produced by a gland that act as messenger signals.

Question 604

Thymus?

Answer 604

The thymus matures T-cells (4 & 8) and helps detect irregular human and cancer cells.

Question 605

Thyroid often referred to as?

Answer 605

The thyroid is referred to as the 'internal flame.'

Question 606

What might a patient with damage to the posterior pituitary gland experience?

Answer 606

Excrete too much water and become extremely hypovolemic. (ADH)

Question 607

What occurs for cardiogenic shock to be present: Intrinsic: Extrinsic:

Answer 607

= Pump failure; heart can't supply sufficient blood = “Inside” MI, PE, ect = “Outside” Pericardial tamponade, Tension Pneumo/, ect

Question 608

What organ is key in blood glucose level regulation?

Answer 608

Pancreas

Question 609

What part of the spinal cord does the SNS originate from?

Answer 609

Lumbar & Thoracic Spine

Question 610

What reflex stops us from over ventilating ourselves? What receptors are involved?

Answer 610

Hering-Breuer Stretch receptors

Question 611

What should the release of glucagon by the pancreas cause?

Answer 611

An increase in the BGL.

Question 612

What should the release of insulin by the pancreas cause?

Answer 612

A decrease in the blood sugar level.

Question 613

What triggers glucagon release?

Answer 613

Released by alpha cells when blood sugar drops, triggering the liver to break down glycogen into glucose.

Question 614

What triggers insulin release?

Answer 614

Released by beta cells when blood sugar rises, allowing glucose to enter cells via facilitated diffusion.

Question 615

What type of receptors are used by the parasympathetic nervous system?

Answer 615

Nm (nicotinic muscle), Nn (nicotinic neuronal), & Muscarinic = found in heart

Question 616

What type of receptors are used by the sympathetic nervous system?

Answer 616

A1,A2, B1, B2

Question 617

When Ketones Are Made: Liver & Ketones: Ketosis vs. Ketoacidosis:

Answer 617

= If glucose is unavailable (or cannot enter cells), the body burns fat for energy, producing ketones. = The liver converts fatty acids into ketones when glucose is low = Ketosis is a normal metabolic process (low-level ketones), while ketoacidosis is a dangerous condition (high ketones → acidosis).

Question 618

Which coronary artery feeds the anterior wall of the left ventricle?

Answer 618

Left Anterior Descending (LAD)

Question 619

Which coronary artery feeds the inferior wall of the heart?

Answer 619

Right Coronary Artery (RCA)

Question 620

Which coronary artery feeds the left lateral wall of the heart?

Answer 620

Left Circumflex (LCX)

Question 621

Which cranial nerve controls the size of the pupil?

Answer 621

Cranial Nerve III

Question 622

Which cranial nerve is responsible for shrugging shoulders?

Answer 622

Cranial Nerve XI

Question 623

Which cranial nerve transmits visual information from the retina to the brain?

Answer 623

Cranial Nerve II

Question 624

Which gender tends to have more endocrine problems

Answer 624

Females tend to have more

Question 625

Which ion has the greatest influence on muscular contraction:

Answer 625

= Calcium

Question 626

contraindications for the application of CPAP

Answer 626

Pneumothorax, Apnea, Hypotension

Question 627

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) Parts:

Answer 627

Autonomic Nervous System, Somatic Nervous System, Sympathetic Nervous System

Question 628

Perfusion problems w/ V/Q Ventilation problems w/ V/Q

Answer 628

= Acute, sudden chest pain and dyspnea from a suspected PE, Hypotension from a severe hemorrhage, Hypoperfusion from an anterior wall MI = Trauma PT w/ suspected flail chest, PT w/ exacerbation of their COPD, Hypoxia from a asthma attack

Question 629

Why do premature infants have difficulty breathing?

Answer 629

Type II alveolar cells, which produce surfactant, develop late in utero, causing respiratory distress in preemies.

Question 630

Why does glycosuria cause fluid loss from the body?

Answer 630

increase amount of water that is not reabsorbed by the kidneys bc Water loves to follow sugar

Question 631

Why does hyperkalemia predispose to seizures?

Answer 631

K+ retention reduces repolarization, keeping neurons partially depolarized & closer to firing threshold.

Question 632

WPW) Orthodromic loop; Antidromic loop: Treatmeats:

Answer 632

= Clockwise reentry w/ narrow complex = Counterclockwise reentry w/ wide QRS = procainamide 1a Na blocker, (if no procain) sedate & cardiovert) cardioversion

Question 633

You are called to a local airport terminal for a patient who is complaining of dyspnea. The patient states they just flew back to the United States from Asia, and was feeling fine until they walked off the plane to claim their checked baggage. The patient states the dyspnea was an acute onset, and also complains of some chest discomfort that they describe as "sharp". You would most likely suspect this patient is having a(n):

Answer 633

Pulmonary embolism

Question 634

You are called to the scene of a patient who was outside playing basketball with friends. The patient stated he had a brief coughing spell and now has become increasingly dyspneic over the last twenty minutes. Your physical assessment reveals diminished lung sounds to the patient's right chest, a blood pressure of 138/90, a pulse rate of 110, and a ventilation rate of 26 per minute. You would most likely suspect this patient is experiencing a(n):

Answer 634

Spontaneous pneumo

Question 635

You are treating a patient with severe asthma that initially was tachypneic but now is becoming unresponsive and bradypneic. This patient has not responded to the administration of bronchodilators. What would you most likely expect to see on this patient's capnogram?

Answer 635

The patient's ETCO2 would start to rise to hypercarbic levels

Question 636

You arrive on scene to find a 30-year-old female unconscious on the floor. The patient has a history of hypothyroidism and her husband thinks the patient attempted suicide by ingesting a massive amount of her levothyroxine medication. Which of the following findings would substantiate this?

Answer 636

A-Fib w/ RVR, hypotension and seizures.

Question 637

What? secreted by the ventricles of the heart in response to excessive stretching of the ventricle myocytes

Answer 637

Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

Question 638

Main Components of a Neuron

Answer 638

Cell body (soma) w/ nucleus, Dendrites transmit impulses to soma, Axons transmit impulses away from soma

Question 639

Major Blood Supply to Brain

Answer 639

= Carotid system (anterior) & Vertebrobasilar system (posterior) → both join at Circle of Willis

Question 640

Myelinated axon

Answer 640

Faster by 30x via saltatory conduction

Question 641

Un-Myelinated axon

Answer 641

Impulses cell to cell