Med Chem - Calcium Channel Blockers, ACE I's, ARBS, Renin Inhib, a1/a2 antagonists/agonists Flashcards

1
Q

4 chemical classes of calcium channel blockers

give an example of a drug from each

A

1,4-dihydro pyridines (nifedipine)

phenylalkyl amines (verapamil)

benzothiazepines (diltiazem)

diaminopropanol ethers (bepridil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the MAJORITY of calcium channel blockers are from which chemical class

A

1,4-dihydro pyridines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

all of the 4 chemical classes of calcium channel blockers are _______. BUT which class is less so and why?

A

all 4 classes are basic

1,4 DHP’s are less basic (except amlodipine and nicardipine)

this is bc at physiologic pH, 1,4-DHP’s are unionized, and the other classes are ionized.

unionized bc the Nitrogen in 1,4-DHP’s is conjugated to the esters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is the lipophilicity of 1,4-DHP’s enhanced?

A

by larger esters on R2 and R3 and by disubstituted phenyl rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

true or false

all calcium channel blockers are lipophilic with good oral bioavailability

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

all calcium channel blockers except ___ contain at least 1 chiral carbon

A

nifedipine

they are used as racemic mixtures – effect not known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which enantiomer of verapamil is more potent

A

S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

true or false

the calcium channel blockers do not undergo extensive first pass metabolism

A

FALSE - they do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 main enzymes in the Renin-Angiotensin Pathway

A

renin
ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

purpose of the enzymes in the Renin-Angiotensin pathway (renin and ACE)

A

to release angiotensin II from angiotensinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

effects of angiotensin 2

A

potent vasoconstrictor - affects peripheral resistance, renal function, CV structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ACE degrades _______

what does this do

A

degrades BRADYKININ

bradykinin is a natural vasodilatory that stimulates prostaglandin synthesis and natiuresis (release of sodium in urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

explain how inhibiting ACE would help to lower blood pressure

A

ACE degrades bradykinin. bradykinin is a vasodilator and promotes the release of sodium in the urine, helping to lower BP

thus, inhibiting ACE would prevent the degradation of bradykinin and bradykinin would be able to produce its positive effects on blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

briefly explain the sequence of events in the renin-angiotensin pathway

A

angiotensinogen -> angiotensin I through RENIN

angiotensin I -> angiotensin II thru ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

substrate of ACE

A

angiotensin I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which 2 amino acids on the active site of ACE ionically bind to angiotensin 1

A

lysine or arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which amino acid on ACE composes the hydrophobic pocket of the enzyme

A

leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

aside from LYS/ARG/LEU
what other interaction is important in angiotensin binding to ACE

A

zinc bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ACE inhibitors must have:

-affinity for ____
-a ___ group to bind ____
-capable of binding to ____
-stable to ____

A

affinity for the ACE active site

anionic group to bind the cationic Arg residue on ACE

capable of binding to zinc

stable to the hydrolytic attack of the Glutamate carboxylate anion (otherwise would be converted to product!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

***captopril binds to the active site of ACE and does what?

A

PREVENTS THE CONVERSION OF ANGIOTENSIN i TO II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give 3 examples of what can serve as the zinc binding group in ACE inhibitors

do any show the BEST zinc binding? despite this, is it used a lot?

A

sulfhydryl/thiol (-SH)

carboxylate COOH-CH-NH

phosphanate OH-P=O

sulfhydryl shows the best zinc binding. however, not really used a lot bc skin rashes and loss of taste. can form disulfides which shortens duration of action. — lot (-) things to body. - really only seen in captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

explain what Log P means

relate to enalapril

A

log P of enalapril is 0.71 - pretty low. can’t cross the membrane that well

high logP = more hydrophobic. around 2-3.5 is ideal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

is enalapril highly protein bound?

A

50-60% – pretty high bv high acidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is enalapril eliminated

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

true or false

enalapril does not have the side effects of rash and loss of taste seen with captopril

A

TRUE

bc it doesn’t have thiol group like captopril does

26
Q

food and enalapril

A

food does NOT affect absorption

27
Q

true or false

esters exist in ACE inhibitors to be a binding site for zinc

A

FALSE

esters themselves do not bind zinc

they are hydrolyzed to expose the underlying zinc binding group, which THEN binds zinc directly (thiol, carboxylate, phosphinate)

28
Q

which is more highly protein bound and why- enalapril or fosinopril

A

fosinopril bc it has phosphinate instead of carboxylate

phosphinate is more acidic

29
Q

angiotensin 2 is an octapeptide produced how?

A

by the conversion of angiotensin I through ACE

30
Q

4 ways in which angiotensin II produces vasoconstriction

A

-direct vasoconstriction
-increased catecholamine release
-causes release of aldosterone
-hypertrophy of vascular and cardiac cells

31
Q

name and explain the ARB receptor subtypes

A

AT1 and AT2

AT1 subtype is the one responsible for CV effects of angiotensin II. (AT2 effects are unkown)
therefore, AT1 is logical target for antihypertensives!

32
Q

original research to block the AT1 receptor (beginnings of ARBS) were done with what?

A

peptide analogs, specifically saralasin

however, peptide analogs ended up being partial agonists and lack oral bioavailability

33
Q

saralasin mimics….

A

angiotensin 2

saralasin MOA is to block the AT1 receptor and bind in place of angiotensin 2

(however this drug is a peptidomimetic and was not successful)

34
Q

define peptidomimetics

A

molecules that mimic peptide action but have NO PEPTIDE BONDS and MW is less then 700daltons

35
Q

true or false

losartan is a prodrug

A

FALSE

losartan IS 14% oxidized by CYP2C9 and 3A4 to an active metabolite, however the original drug still did have activity, the metabolism just made it more active than before

36
Q

how does the oxidation of losartan by CYP2C9 and CYP3A4 make it more active?

A

because the OH is oxidized to carboxylic acid

carboxylic acid exhibits much better hydrogen bonding than OH

37
Q

name the only renin inhibitor

A

Aliskiren

38
Q

advantage of aliskiren over ACE inhibitors and ARBS

A

aliskiren does not cause a compensatory increase in renin

39
Q

aliskiren is a renin inhibitor developed as….

A

a NON-PEPTIDE mimic of the octapeptide that renin recognizes in angiotensinogen (the substrate)

40
Q

MOA aliskiren

A

by inhibiting renin, aliskiren directly inhibits the formation of angiotensin I and angiotensin 2

41
Q

how many chiral centers of aliskiren contain

A

4

42
Q

aliskiren should not be used (contraindicated) with ACE inhibitors or ARBS in which patients? why?

A

diabetic patients bc of the risk of renal impairment, hypotension, hyperkalemia

43
Q

ARBS and ACE inhibitors should not be used in which patients

A

with mod-severe renal impairment (less than 60 mL/min)

44
Q

true or false

alskiren is poorly absorbed

A

true

only 2.5% bioavailable and 90% excreted unchanged in the feces

45
Q

name and explain the 2 main types of alpha adrenergic receptors

A

a1 receptor and a2 receptor

a1 receptor is associated with the contraction of vascular smooth muscle

a2 receptor associated with inhibition of norepinephrine release

46
Q

explain what a nonselective alpha antagonist would be expected to do

A

lower blood pressure by inhibiting a1 vasoconstriction, BUT also block the INHIBITION of norepinephrine release (by blocking a2), therefore this would lead to fast heart rate and increased cardiac output

therefore, to lower blood pressure, we would need an alpha 1 antagonist or an alpha 2 agonist

want to make as selective as possible

47
Q

3 chemical classes of alpha antagonists

name which are nonselective/selective

A
  1. B-haloalkylamines - nonselective
  2. Imidazoline antagonists - nonselective
  3. quinazoline derivatives - alpha 1 selective!
48
Q

name a B-haloalkylamine that is a nonselective alpha antagonist

A

phenoxybenzamine

49
Q

explain the MOA of phenoxybenzamine

A

IRREVERSIBLE covalent inhibition of the alpha receptors

this occurs bc the Cl on phenoxybenzamine is a very good leaving group, and an aziridinium ion will form

this aziridinium ion is highly electrophilic and highly reactive

thus, a nucloephile on the alpha receptor will attack a carbon in the aziridinium ion, resulting in an ALKYLATED RECEPTOR — its now covalently linked to phenoxybenzamine

50
Q

2 clinical uses for phenoxybenzamine

A

pheochromocytoma

treat peripheral vascular resistance (Raynaud’s)

51
Q

2 reasons the aziridinium ion formed from phenoxybenzamine is so electrophilic

A

-3 membered ring structure has a lot of strain

-N has a (+) charge which is not favored

52
Q

2 drugs in the imidazoline alpha antagonist class
are they nonselective or selective?

A

tolazoline, phentolamine

nonselective

53
Q

chemically, selective a1 antagonists are….

A

quinazoline derivatives containing a substituted piperazine ring

54
Q

2 key pieces that are ESSENTIAL for alpha 1 (selective) antagonists

which piece is not essential?

A

quinazoline ring and piperidine/piperizine ring system is ESSENTIAL

the R substituent on the piperidine/piperizine ring is not essential for action and just affects the pharmacokinetics

55
Q

explain how central a2 agonists work

A

they stimulate a2 receptors in the CNS

this results in a reduction in sympathetic outflow to the CV system, resulting in a hypotensive effect.

56
Q

adverse effects of central a2 agonists

A

sedation, bradycardia, mental depression

bc they reduce sympathetic outflow

57
Q

**how are alpha 2 agonists able to have CNS effects such as sedation and mental depression??

A

because the imidazoline ring nitrogens are LESS BASIC due to the conjugation with the benzene ring
(phenyliminoimidazoline derivatives)

this results in an UNIONIZED form that can cross the BBB

58
Q

explain the metabolism of clonidine

A

clonidine is an a2 agonist that works by binding and activating a2 receptors in the BRAIN

therefore, it is a hydrophobic molecule in order to cross the BBB. however, being very hydrophobic, it’s also metabolized extensively

it is first OXIDIZED by CYP450. into p-HYDROXY clonidine. this metabolite is INACTIVE bc the OH makes the molecule too polar to cross the BBB - cannot have hypotensive effect

glucuronidation takes care of the rest

59
Q

name 2 central a2 adrenergic agonists

A

clonidine and methyldopa

60
Q

methyldopa

A

a2 agonist

its a prodrug

phenylethylamine derivative

61
Q

explain the metabolism of methyldopa

how does it get through the BBB and into the brain?

A

methyldopa is a PRODRUG

metabolized twice (decarboxylase, then hydroxylase) to form the active form - ALPHA-METHYLNOREPINEPHRINE which is a SELECTIVE A2 COMPOUND

methyldopa is actively transported in the brain. in the brain, it is metabolized to its active form to exert hypotensive action

62
Q
A