Measles Vaccines Cards Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the genetic material/structure/family of measlesvirus

A

Paramyxovirus family, RNA genome, enveloped

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2
Q

How contagious is measles?

A

90% transmission after exposure

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3
Q

What are the antiviral treatments for measles?

A

There are no effective treatments.

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4
Q

Name the most important measles glycoproteins

A

H protein (hemagglutinin) and F protein (fusion)

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5
Q

How is measles transmitted?

A

Respiratory droplets and aerosolized small droplet nuclei enter at the respiratory tract

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6
Q

Measles fuses with what cells?

A

In the lung: Dendritic cells of respiratory tract and alveolar macrophages. In the lymph: T and B lymphocytes.

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7
Q

Where does measles disseminate to?

A

Lymph nodes; secondary lymph organs; intestine (endothelial cells); skin and brain (epithelial cells)

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8
Q

How does measles inhibit innate immunity?

A

Inhibit TLR signaling and interferon synthesis/signaling; interferes with T cell activation. Additionally, it’s associated with transient lymphopenia/immune suppression

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9
Q

How does measles enter an epithelial cell?

A

From the basal side through Nectin 4, a protein in the cell junction

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10
Q

How does measles exit a host?

A

It buds apically from an infected respiratory epithelium and is released into airway lumen

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11
Q

How long is measles incubation period?

A

10-14 days

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12
Q

When do the main clinical signs of measles appear, and what are they?

A

prodrome @ 14 days: low-grade fever and malaise; then cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

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13
Q

What are koplik spots?

A

White-blue specks on red mucosa, normally buccal and lower labial surfaces, appearing 2 days after prodrome symptoms; resolve when skin rash (exanthem) appears.

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14
Q

Describe the timing of the measles skin rash

A

4 days after prodrome symptoms, exanthem appears. Onset coincides with T-cell immunity activation and resolution of prodrone clinical symptoms. Fever peaks on day 2-3 of rash, resolves on day 3-4 of rash.

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15
Q

Describe the clinical appearance of the measles skin rash

A

Red maculopapular lesion, confluencing. Beginning at hairline and spreading to trunk, extremities, palms + soles. After 3-4 days turns copper/brown, resolving in same pattern after 7 days.

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16
Q

Describe clinical signs/symptoms of measles dissemination

A

Diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain; cervical lymphadenopathy/splenomegaly; pharyngitis; bronchiolitis/viral pneumonia; encephalitis

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17
Q

What are the common complications of measles?

A

Secondary pneumonia, otitis media, or other URI (source of morbidity in infants and developing countries)

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18
Q

What is SSPE?

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis; slow, progressive CNS disease occuring 4-8 years after acute measles infection (usually at

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19
Q

How do you diagnose measles?

A

Measles IgM antibody; 4x rise in measles IgG; PCR and culture (slow, esp wild-type)

20
Q

How do you treat measles?

A

Supportive care and Vitamin A (decrease mortality in developing countries)

21
Q

Describe the measles vaccine

A

Live attenuated vaccine, 95% efficacy (99% efficacy with 2 doses), combined in MMR

22
Q

What is the protective vaccination rate for measles?

A

93% to avoid community circulation/outbreak

23
Q

What was the rate of death of measles in 2013?

A

14 deaths per hour

24
Q

Define vaccine antigen

A

Molecule that an antibody response is generated against

25
Q

Define adjuvant

A

Substance that nonspecifically activates the immune system, added to vaccine to enhance immune response

26
Q

Define vaccine titer

A

A measure of the amount of antibody made to a vaccine antigen

27
Q

Give three examples of inactivated killed vaccines

A

Polio (injected), hepatitis A, rabies

28
Q

Give two examples of inactivated toxin vaccines

A

Tetanus (tetanospasmin neurotoxin), diptheria

29
Q

What are toxoid vaccines?

A

Toxin inactivated by heat or chemical (formalin) treatment, typically requiring boosters

30
Q

Give examples of subunit vaccines

A

Hep B, HPV, Pertussis, influenxa (IM), pneumococcal polysaccharide, meningococcal polysaccharide

31
Q

What does the Hep B vaccine contain?

A

Hep B surface antigen (recombinant from yeast)

32
Q

What does the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine contain?

A

Mixed carbohydrates isolated from the outer capsule of 23 different streptococcus pneumoniae serotypes

33
Q

Give examples of conjugated vaccines

A

HiB, pneumococcal conjugate, meningococcal conjugate; often conjugated with diptheria or tetanus toxoid

34
Q

Give examples of live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, rotavirus, influenza (nasal spray), oral polio vaccine, yellow fever, BCG

35
Q

What is the significant risk of OPV?

A

OPV may revert back to wild-type, fully pathogenic form. It repiclicates in gut mucosa, and reverts within weeks of vaccination.

36
Q

What is the risk of BCG vaccine?

A

Causes disseminated, TB-like disease in immunocompromised patients.

37
Q

What antigens are T cell dependent?

A

Protein antigens

38
Q

What antigens are T cell independent?

A

Carbohydrate antigens

39
Q

What do T cells secrete to aid in T-cell dependent immune response?

A

Secrete IL2, IL4, IL5 which helps promote B cell class switching

40
Q

Define secondary immune response

A

Memory B cells proliferate and result in a higher IgG response to an antigen upon second exposure

41
Q

How do protein antigens cause an immune response?

A

T-cell dependent; presented by APC and recognized by T and B cells in germinal centers of local lymph nodes; T cells promote B cell class switching

42
Q

How do carbohydrate antigens cause an immune response?

A

Antigens directly cross-link B-cell receptors on B cells in marginal zones of spleen/lymph nodes; B cells class switch or differentiate into plasma cells, persisting in spleen

43
Q

What type of immune response produces memory B cells?

A

T cell dependent (protein antigens)

44
Q

What types of patients cannot respond to carbohydrate antigens? How do vaccines work around this?

A

Children under 2; requires conjugating carbohydrate to diptheria or tetanus toxoid to provoke T cell dependent response

45
Q

Where do T cell dependent responses take place?

A

Germinal center of lymph

46
Q

Where do T cell independent responses take place?

A

Marginal Zone, outside of the germinal center, of lymph and spleen