MCQs - Ocular diagnostics Flashcards
The main objective of survey radiography of the skull in a patient with orbital disease is to:
a. Assess the bony components of the orbit for lysis, proliferation or trauma
b. Look for extension of the disease process through the cribriform plate.
c. Evaluate the patency of the lacrimal duct
d. Detect soft tissue pathology, including mass lesions
The main objective of survey radiography of the skull in a patient with orbital disease is to:
a. Assess the bony components of the orbit for lysis, proliferation or trauma
Well done. This is the main objective of survey radiography in patients with orbital disease, although radiopaque foreign material will also be detected. It may also be possible to detect superficial soft tissue swelling
Question 3
The lacrimal duct in the dog
a. Extends to the level of the 1st premolar, lateral to the maxillary recess and lateral to the maxillary molars.
b. Extends the length of the nasal cavity, medial to the maxillary recess and medial to the maxillary premolars and canine
c. Extends the length of the nasal cavity, lateral to the maxillary recess and lateral to the maxillary premolars and canine
d. Extends to the level of the 1st premolar, medial to the maxillary recess and medial to the maxillary molars
The lacrimal duct in the dog
Extends the length of the nasal cavity, medial to the maxillary recess and medial to the maxillary premolars and canine
Question 5
When using diagnostic ultrasound, high frequency sound provides
a. Limited depth of penetration, low spatial resolution
b. Limited depth of penetration, high spatial resolution
c. Good depth of penetration, high spatial resolution
d. Good depth of penetration, low spatial resolution
When using diagnostic ultrasound, high frequency sound provides
b. Limited depth of penetration, high spatial resolution
Question 7
Which one of the following statements regarding multi-detector CT is most accurate?
a. Patient positioning for CT is critical
b. CT has a limited ability to display air-filled structures and bone
c. Use of contrast media and bolus tracking allows evaluation of blood vessels and vascular structures
d. CT is the advanced imaging modality of choice for the evaluation of intra-calvarial structures
Which one of the following statements regarding multi-detector CT is most accurate?
c. Use of contrast media and bolus tracking allows evaluation of blood vessels and vascular structures
Question 9
Question text
Which one of the following statements most correctly describes the benefit of MRI for imaging a patient with orbital disease?
a. MRI scans can be completed quickly, and are generally possible in conscious patients
b. MRI is the modality of choice for assessment of bony structures
c. MRI allows accurate assessment of intra-calvarial structures
d. MRI images can be reformatted into different planes without a significant drop in image quality.
Question 9
Which one of the following statements most correctly describes the benefit of MRI for imaging a patient with orbital disease?
c. MRI allows accurate assessment of intra-calvarial structures
MRI provides excellent soft tissue detail and is the imaging modality of choice for evaluation of intra-calvarial structures
You have collected a sample of fluid for cytological analysis.
Which would be the best tube to use for transport of the fluid to the laboratory?
a. Heparin
b. Plain
c. Citrate
d. EDTA
You have collected a sample of fluid for cytological analysis.
Which would be the best tube to use for transport of the fluid to the laboratory?
d.EDTA
Well done. This is the best medium for cell preservation providing that the tube is filled to the mark.
A sample of blood from a fasted dog is macroscopically lipaemic.
This appearance is most likely to indicate
a. Normal variant
b. Elevated triglycerides
c. Elevated cholesterol
d. Elevations in both triglycerides and cholesterol
A sample of blood from a fasted dog is macroscopically lipaemic.
This appearance is most likely to indicate:
b.Elevated triglycerides
Well done. Triglyceride levels >3mmol/l make the sample appear lipaemic due to the presence of chylomicrons (triglyceride rich lipoproteins).
Question 3
Measurement of fructosamine may be useful in monitoring diabetic patients.
Which one of the following statements is most accurate?
a.Fructosamine generally remains elevated even in well stabilised diabetics.
b.Fructosamine gives an indication of the glycaemic state over the previous 1-3 weeks
c.Fructosamine gives an indication of the glycaemic state over the previous 1-3 days
d.Fructosamine levels cannot distinguish between persistent hyperglycaemia and transient hyperglycaemia due to stress
Measurement of fructosamine may be useful in monitoring diabetic patients.
Which one of the following statements is most accurate?
b.Fructosamine gives an indication of the glycaemic state over the previous 1-3 weeks
Well done. Persistent hyperglycaemia leads to glycation of proteins (collectively called fructosamine). Fructosamine is therefore an indicator of the glucose levels over several weeks
You have taken a conjunctival swab and wish to submit it for bacteriological culture.
Which of the following would be the best way to send the swab?
a. Amies transport medium
b. Plain tube
c. Refrigerate and send packed in ice
d. EDTA
You have taken a conjunctival swab and wish to submit it for bacteriological culture.
Which of the following would be the best way to send the swab?
Amies transport medium
Well done. Amies transport medium should help to prevent loss or overgrowth of any bacteria present
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) has revolutionised diagnostic testing for infectious disease.
Which one of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Positive results on PCR are clinically significant
b. PCR is only useful for the detection of bacterial infection
c. Quantitative real time PCR allows estimation of clinical significance
d. DNA must be intact for conventional PCR methodology to work
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) has revolutionised diagnostic testing for infectious disease.
Which one of the following statements is most accurate?
c.Quantitative real time PCR allows estimation of clinical significance
This technique allows an estimation of the amount of DNA in a sample, and thus allows the clinical significance to be assessed
Question 6
The sensitivity of a test is defined as
a. True positives / (false positives + true positives) x 100
b. (True positives + true negatives) / total population tested x 100
c. True positives / (true positives + false negatives) x100
d. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives) x 100
The sensitivity of a test is defined as
c.True positives / (true positives + false negatives) x100
Well done. The sensitivity of the test is the number of positive results as a % of the total number of animals with the disease. A highly sensitive test will almost always detect animals with the disease, but there may be a few false negatives.
Animals may produce antibodies in response to vaccination or when exposed to infection.
Which one of the following responses would classically be expected in the first few days of a disease?
a. Elevated IgM
b. Elevated IgG
c. Elevated IgM and IgG
d. No change in first few days
Animals may produce antibodies in response to vaccination or when exposed to infection.
Which one of the following responses would classically be expected in the first few days of a disease?
a.Elevated IgM
Well done. IgM is generated on initial exposure to an antigen, so a rise in IgM would be expected early on in the course of a disease.
Question 8
A corneal scrape from a dog with suspected pannus is examined cytologically.
Which cells might you expect to identify?
a.Neutrophils
b.Macrophages
c.Lymphoid cells
d.A mixture of all these
A corneal scrape from a dog with suspected pannus is examined cytologically.
Which cells might you expect to identify?
A mixture of all these
A mixture of all these cells may be seen, although there is no pathognomonic cytological pattern. There may also be evidence of pigmentation with melanin granules
