MCQ2

Question 1

Side effects of adrenaline include the following
Select one:

a.
Nausea, vomiting, dizziness, flushing

b.
Oedema, vertigo, gastrointestinal bleeding, blurred vision

c.
Sedation, nausea, transient hypotension, headaches

d.
Palpitations, hypertension, tachyarrhythmias

Answer 1

Palpitations, hypertension, tachyarrhythmias

Question 2

The normal range of blood glucose in an adult patient is
Select one:

a.
4 - 20 mmol/L

b.
4 - 5 mmol/L

c.
4 - 10 mmol/L

d.
2 - 6 mmol/L

Answer 2

4 - 10 mmol/L

Question 3

When completing a PCR you make a mistake recording the time, you should
Select one:

a.
Cross through the mistake, and write correct time

b.
start a new PCR

c.
Use correction fluid and inform the receiving nurse when you get to the hospital

d.
Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time

Answer 3

Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time

Question 4

Which of the following is recognised as a “Degree of Active Listening?” when communicating
Select one:

a.
interrogate the patient to ensure accuracy

b.
deliberately challenge the patient to ensure they are telling the truth

c.
Record the information on the PCR

d.
Repeat the information to ensure accuracy

Answer 4

Repeat the information to ensure accuracy

Question 5

A conscious patient complaining of chest pain should be put in the _____position
Select one:

a.
Supine

b.
Trendelenburg

c.
semi-recumbent

d.
prone

Answer 5

semi-recumbent

Question 6

Parkinsons disease is associated with a deficiency in what hormone
Select one:

a.
Gamma aminobutyric acid

b.
Serotonin

c.
Dopamine

d.
Norepinephrine

Answer 6

Dopamine

Question 7

Dysphasia is a difficulty in
Select one:

a.
Speaking

b.
Swallowing

c.
Shouting

d.
Saliva secretion

Answer 7

Speaking

Question 8

The mechanical process of removing waste materials or poisons from the blood is called
Select one:

a.
osmosis

b.
Haematuria

c.
Haemophilia

d.
Haemodialysis

Answer 8

Haemodialysis

Question 9

Osteoporosis is a condition which
Select one:

a.
Decreases bone mass and strength

b.
Blocks the small intestine

c.
Causes a prolapse of a vertebral disc

d.
Decreases metabolism

Answer 9

Decreases bone mass and strength

Question 10

General rules apply for the use of an ambulance carrying chair, which include
Select one:

a.
Never leave the chair unattended

b.
the chair is designed for rough ground

c.
it requires a minimum of four crew members to carry

d.
it is not suitable for paediatric patients

Answer 10

Never leave the chair unattended

Question 11

Clinical expertise and specific interventions such as medication administration or suctioning are skills a ________could assist with if transported with your patient
Select one:

a.
Fire fighter

b.
Gardaí

c.
nursing escort

d.
patient’s relative

Answer 11

c.
nursing escort

Question 12

Which of the following is an indication for the use of Naloxone?
Select one:

a.
A/LOC and the presence of dilated pupils

b.
Inadequate respiration and/ or ALOC following known or suspected narcotic overdose

c.
P on AVPU with blood glucose of 2.3 mmol/L

d.
Respiratory distress following a submersion incident

Answer 12

b.
Inadequate respiration and/ or ALOC following known or suspected narcotic overdose

Question 13

Which of the following is a possible side effect of Ibuprofen?
Select one:

a.
Headache

b.
flushing

c.
dizziness

d.
Skin rashes

Answer 13

d.
Skin rashes

Question 14

Which of the following is a contraindication for Oxygen?
Select one:

a.
Bleomycin lung injury

b.
Carbon monoxide poisoning

c.
Paraquat poisoning

d.
There are no contradictions for Oxygen

Answer 14

a.
Bleomycin lung injury

Question 15

A 4 year old patient has just come out of a seizure; she is pyrexic and has no contraindications for Paracetamol. CPG 2021) You should administer Paracetamol at the dose of
Select one:

a.
120 mg

b.
180mg

c.
360 mg

d.
240 mg

Answer 15

d.
240 mg

Question 16

An intestinal obstruction is contraindication for what drug
Select one:

a.
Nitrous oxide

b.
Salbutamol

c.
Glucagon

d.
Aspirin

Answer 16

a.
Nitrous oxide

Question 17

Which of the following is a contraindication to administration of Paracetamol?
Select one:

a.
Phaeochromocytoma

b.
Active pathological bleeding

c.
Chronic liver disease

d.
Peptic ulcer disease

Answer 17

c.
Chronic liver disease

Question 18

What does the term contraindication mean?
Select one:

a.
you can proceed with intervention and or medication

b.
Proceed with medication and or intervention is permitted under CPGs

c.
Proceed with intervention and or medication with caution

d.
Proceeding with intervention and/or medication is prohibited

Answer 18

d.
Proceeding with intervention and/or medication is prohibited

Question 19

What is the paediatric dose of Ibuprofen?
Select one:

a.
10mg/kg

b.
0.5mg/Kg

c.
20mg/kg

d.
5mg/Kg

Answer 19

a.
10mg/kg

Question 20

The formula used to calculate the weight of a 9 year old is
Select one:

a.
(age x 2) + 9

b.
(age x 3) + 8

c.
(Age x 2) + 8

d.
(Age x 3) + 7

Answer 20

d.
(Age x 3) + 7

Question 21

The formula used to calculate the weight of a 9 year old is
Select one:

a.
(age x 2) + 9

b.
(age x 3) + 8

c.
(Age x 2) + 8

d.
(Age x 3) + 7

Answer 21

d.
(Age x 3) + 7

Question 22

What is the dose in MG of Ibuprofen for a 9 year old?
Select one:

a.
10mg

b.
20mg

c.
340mg

d.
34mg

Answer 22

c.
340mg

Question 23

What is the correct dose in mg of paracetamol for a 5 year old (CPG 2021)?
Select one:

a.
330 mg

b.
5 mg

c.
270 mg

d.
150 mg

Answer 23

c.
270 mg

Question 24

Which of the following is a contraindication for methoxyflurane
Select one:

a.
renal failure or impairment

b.
Pre-coma states

c.
Systolic blood pressure <90mmhg

d.
pregnancy

Answer 24

a.
renal failure or impairment

Question 25

The dosage of methoxyflurane administered is
Select one:

a.
10mL

b.
3mL

c.
30mL

d.
5mL

Answer 25

b.
3mL

Question 26

An intramuscular injection should be delivered at a ____ degree angle to the skin?
Select one:

a.
90

b.
30

c.
45

d.
15

Answer 26

a.
90

Question 27

The dose of Aspirin is ______ for a Paediatric patient
Select one:

a.
100mg

b.
300mg

c.
50mg

d.
contraindicated

Answer 27

d.
contraindicated

Question 28

Which of the following is an indication for the use of Naloxone?
Select one:

a.
Inadequate respirations and /or ALOC following or suspected narcotic overdose

b.
Hypoglycaemia with a blood glucose < 4 mmol/L

c.
P on the pain scale, with adequate respirations

d.
Severe Anaphylaxis

Answer 28

Inadequate respirations and /or ALOC following or suspected narcotic overdose

Question 29

The dose of Paracetamol administered to a paediatric patient with a temperature > 38.5 oC with signs of distress or pain is
Select one:

a.
15 mg/kg PO

b.
1g PO

c.
20 mg/kg PR

d.
180mg PR

Answer 29

a.
15 mg/kg PO

Question 30

Shock caused by the failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels is called ________ shock
Select one:

a.
Cardiogenic

b.
Hypovoleamic

c.
Septic

d.
Neurogenic

Answer 30

d.
Neurogenic

Question 31

The most effective method of controlling an external bleed is by the use of
Select one:

a.
Elevation

b.
Indirect pressure

c.
Direct pressure

d.
Tourniquets

Answer 31

c.
Direct pressure

Question 32

In compensatory shock, the systolic blood pressure
Select one:

a.
Remains steady

b.
Increases

c.
Rises rapidly

d.
Falls rapidly

Answer 32

a.
Remains steady

Question 33

A clean deep cut made with a sharp knife or scalpel is called a/an
Select one:

a.
Laceration

b.
Incision

c.
Avulsion

d.
Contusion

Answer 33

b.
Incision

Question 34

What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air?
Select one:

a.
20

b.
79

c.
0.4

d.
16

Answer 34

d.
16

Question 35

If treating an adult patient with mild asthma, the EMT should administer
Select one:

a.
Salbutamol

b.
Oxygen 100% non-re-breather

c.
glucagon

d.
epinephrine

Answer 35

a.
Salbutamol

Question 36

When caring for a patient with a foreign object in an extremity, the EMT should
Select one:

a.
Remove the object if there are signs of arterial bleeding

b.
Always remove the object

c.
Never remove the object

d.
Remove the object only if it appears not to have penetrated too deeply

Answer 36

c.
Never remove the object

Question 37

An obstructive airway disease, characterised by a loss of elasticity to the alveoli and the terminal bronchiole is called
Select one:

a.
Bronchitis

b.
Pneumonia

c.
Emphysema

d.
Asthma

Answer 37

c.
Emphysema

Question 38

A patient with an avulsed eye and absolutely no other injuries should be treated by
Select one:

a.
Cover injured eye with a sterile dressing and then bandage snugly, consider transport to a specialised eye hospital

b.
Cover both eyes with a sterile dressing and then bandage snugly, do not apply direct pressure to the injured eye, and consider transport to a specialised eye hospital

c.
Replacing the eye back into its socket and then dress with a bandage, consider transport to a specialised eye hospital

d.
Flushing the avulsed eye with copious amounts of water to prevent infection, apply direct pressure to the injured eye, consider transport to a specialised eye hospital

Answer 38

b.
Cover both eyes with a sterile dressing and then bandage snugly, do not apply direct pressure to the injured eye, and consider transport to a specialised eye hospital

Question 39

The oxygen adjunct of choice for a patient who has been involved in a trauma event and is breathing normally is
Select one:

a.
BVM, 02 and reservoir bag

b.
Nasal cannula

c.
Non rebreather facemask

d.
Venturi mask

Answer 39

c.
Non rebreather facemask

Question 40

When bandaging extremities, the EMT should
Select one:

a.
Apply bandage tightly over fingers and toes

b.
Apply the bandage over the fingers and toes only if the weather is cold

c.
Apply the bandage loosely over the fingers or toes

d.
Leave the fingers or toes exposed whenever possible

Answer 40

d.
Leave the fingers or toes exposed whenever possible

Question 41

When the abdomen is lacerated and an organ is protruding through the wound, the EMT should
Select one:

a.
Keep the organ clean, warm and dry and give the patients a drink of water to counteract shock

b.
Gently spray the organ with water and wrap the wound with a dressing

c.
Gently replace the organ within the cavity and cover with an occlusive dressing

d.
Cover the organ with an occlusive dressing soaked with saline solution.

Answer 41

d.
Cover the organ with an occlusive dressing soaked with saline solution.

Question 42

Which of the following is correct care for a patient with an object impaled in their chest?
Select one:

a.
Quickly removing the object and seal the wound with a sterile dressing

b.
With a sterile dressing cover the object and slowly remove it, then quickly dress the wound

c.
Removing the object if there is severe bleeding and packing the wound

d.
Securing the impaled object with bulky dressing held in place with tape and bandages

Answer 42

d.
Securing the impaled object with bulky dressing held in place with tape and bandages

Question 43

The conscious patient with a sucking chest wound should be transported in which of the following positions
Select one:

a.
Lying on the injured side

b.
Lying on the uninjured side

c.
Supine

d.
Prone

Answer 43

a.
Lying on the injured side

Question 44

In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of
Select one:

a.
Carbon dioxide in the blood

b.
Oxygen in inspired air

c.
Oxygen in the blood

d.
Carbon dioxide in inspired air

Answer 44

c.
Oxygen in the blood

Question 45

Exchange of gases takes place in the lungs due to the process of
Select one:

a.
Diffusion

b.
Absorption

c.
Inspiration

d.
Osmosis

Answer 45

a.
Diffusion

Question 46

A patient presents with an increased pulse rate, low blood pressure, rapid respirations and pallor of the skin. From the above information what is your clinical impression of this patient
Select one:

a.
Shock

b.
The patient is having an allergic reaction (hypersensitivity)

c.
Hyperglycaemia

d.
The patient is having a cerebrovascular accident

Answer 46

a.
Shock

Question 47

The use of accessory muscles when breathing can be described as?
Select one:

a.
noisy breathing

b.
shallow breathing

c.
normal breathing

d.
laboured breathing

Answer 47

d.
laboured breathing

Question 48

Chronic Bronchitis and emphysema are examples of a respiratory disorder, which may cause a condition called
Select one:

a.
Deep vein thrombosis

b.
Pulmonary embolism

c.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d.
Jugular vein distension

Answer 48

c.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Question 49

Treatment for an abdominal evisceration would include which of the following
Select one:

a.
Using adhesive dressings on the wound

b.
Using direct pressure on the wound

c.
Flexing the knees and legs to relieve pressure on the abdomen

d.
Pushing the exposed organs back into the abdominal cavity

Answer 49

c.
Flexing the knees and legs to relieve pressure on the abdomen

Question 50

For a patient with epistaxis (nose Bleed), pressure should be held for a minimum of ____ minutes
Select one:

a.
15

b.
10

c.
5

d.
20

Answer 50

a.
15

Question 51

You have a patient who has severe epistaxis. You have been able to rule out trauma. How would you position this patient to help control the bleeding?
Select one:

a.
supine

b.
Sitting leaning back

c.
Sitting leaning forward

d.
Prone

Answer 51

c.
Sitting leaning forward

Question 52

What are agonal respirations?
Select one:

a.
absence of respirations

b.
occasional gasping breaths, but sufficient to maintain life

c.
occasional gasping breaths, unable to maintain life

d.
painful respirations due to broken ribs

Answer 52

c.
occasional gasping breaths, unable to maintain life

Question 53

A patient with severe bleeding from a wond on their neck is best cared for using a/an

Select one:

a.
pressure points

b.
haemostatic dressing

c.
ambulance dressing

d.
tourniquet

Answer 53

b.
haemostatic dressing

Question 54

Which of the following is most likely to produce hypovolemic shock?
Select one:

a.
Spinal cord injury

b.
Pott’s fracture

c.
laceration to scalp

d.
ruptured spleen

Answer 54

d.
ruptured spleen

Question 55

There are three main causes of fainting (syncope), one is postural, second is emotional stress and the third is _______
Select one:

a.
Hyperglycaemia

b.
Cardiac in origin

c.
Respiratory in origin

d.
Hypertension

Answer 55

b.
Cardiac in origin

Question 56

When dealing with a patient with Epistaxis, digital pressure should be applied for?
Select one:

a.
10 minutes

b.
5 minutes

c.
15 minutes

d.
20 minutes

Answer 56

c.
15 minutes

Question 57

Of the problems listed below, which should the EMT consider first when treating a patient with severe facial injuries
Select one:

a.
The lower jaw may also be fractured which will cause extreme pain

b.
The patient may have a fractured skull

c.
Airway compromise

d.
The patient may have brain damage

Answer 57

c.
Airway compromise

Question 58

Under certain circumstances, an impaled object may be removed if it is located in the
Select one:

a.
Skull

b.
Cheek

c.
Abdomen

d.
Chest

Answer 58

b.
Cheek

Question 59

Hyperglycaemia will usually occur
Select one:

a.
At the same time every day

b.
Gradually (hours or days)

c.
Occur rapidly

d.
Within minutes of eating

Answer 59

b.
Gradually (hours or days)

Question 60

Non – insulin dependent diabetes is called
Select one:

a.
Type 2

b.
Type 1

c.
Type 3

d.
Type 4

Answer 60

a.
Type 2

Question 61

Due to a liver disorder, a patient’s skin may appear to be yellow in colour. This condition is known as
Select one:

a.
jaundice

b.
Flushed

c.
cyanosis

d.
pallor

Answer 61

a.
jaundice

Question 62

Sugar (glucose) will not enter the red blood cells without the aid of a hormone called
Select one:

a.
Insulin, which is manufactured in the kidneys

b.
Insulin, which is manufactured in the pancreas

c.
glucagon, which is manufactured in the pancreas

d.
glucagon, which is manufactured in the liver

Answer 62

b.
Insulin, which is manufactured in the pancreas

Question 63

Which of the following emergency care measures is recommended for dealing with a patient taking an epileptic seizure
Select one:

a.
load and go, transport the patient to the ED immediately

b.
protect the patient from futher injury until the seizure passes

c.
Gently shake the patient and say “hello can you hear me”

d.
Forcibly restrain the patient until the convulsions pass, this may also include forcing an oropharyngeal airway into the patients mouth

Answer 63

b.
protect the patient from futher injury until the seizure passes

Question 64

A 56 year old woman suddenly complains of the worst headache of her life, with nausea and vomiting. The most likely cause of her symptoms from the list below is
Select one:

a.
Haemorrhagic stroke

b.
Transient ischaemic attack

c.
Ischaemic stroke

d.
Embolic stroke

Answer 64

a.
Haemorrhagic stroke

Question 65

A patient has had a seizure, is now post seizure and is responsive to pain. You check the patients blood glucose and you find it to be 1.3mmol/L . The EMT should administer
Select one:

a.
Administer glucagon

b.
Administer glucose gel

c.
naloxone

d.
oxygen

Answer 65

a.
Administer glucagon

Question 66

Low blood glucose levels, an inadequate blood flow to the brain and a lack of oxygen are all possible causes of
Select one:

a.
meningitis

b.
altered level of consciousness

c.
neurogenic shock

d.
stroke

Answer 66

a.
meningitis

b.
altered level of consciousness

Question 67

A hypoglycaemic event will usually occur
Select one:

a.
rapidly (within a few hours)

b.
Gradually (hours to days)

c.
At the same time, every day

d.
once a week

Answer 67

a.
rapidly (within a few hours)

Question 68

The term syncope is the condition known as
Select one:

a.
disorientation

b.
confusion

c.
seizures

d.
fainting

Answer 68

d.
fainting

Question 69

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of hyperglycaemia?
Select one:

a.
Weak, rapid pulse

b.
hypotension

c.
cold, clammy sweat

d.
Acetone breath (fruity smell)

Answer 69

d.
Acetone breath (fruity smell)

Question 70

Which term describes the phase of a seizure where the patient becomes rigid for a short period of time
Select one:

a.
post-ictal

b.
aura

c.
tonic

d.
clonic

Answer 70

c.
tonic

Question 71

Status Epilepticus is
Select one:

a.
a succession of epileptic fits

b.
When seizures are localised or an absence seizure

c.
When seizures continue for more than 5 minutes with no recovery in between

d.
When the seizure is minor and of little danger to the patient

Answer 71

a.
a succession of epileptic fits

Question 72

Excessive blood glucose levels which usually results when a diabetic patient has not taken his/her insulin or has overeaten, is known as
Select one:

a.
Hypoglycaemia

b.
Hyperglycaemia

c.
Hypertension

d.
Hypotension

Answer 72

b.
Hyperglycaemia

Question 73

The largest artery in the body is the
Select one:

a.
carotid artery

b.
aorta

c.
femoral artery

d.
hepatic artery

Answer 73

b.
aorta

Question 74

The spine consists of 33 bones, which breaks down into 5 groups. Identify the groups
Select one:

a.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar; 6 sacrum; 3 coccyx

b.
7 cervical; 12 lumbar; 5 thoracic; 4 sacrum; 5 coccyx

c.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

d.
5 cervical; 12 lumbar; 7 thoracic, 5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

Answer 74

c.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

Question 75

dentify the three types of muscular tissue
Select one:

a.
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

b.
Striated, voluntary, skeletal

c.
Cardiac, smooth, involuntary

d.
Voluntary, striated, cardiac

Answer 75

a.
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

Question 76

Where is the Dorsalis Pedis pulse point found?
Select one:

a.
Behind the ankle

b.
in the groin

c.
at the knee

d.
On top of the foot

Answer 76

d.
On top of the foot

Question 77

There are a number of factors that provide us with a stimulus to breath, one of them being _______ which are situated in the walls of the Aorta and the Carotid
Select one:

a.
neurotransmitters

b.
Stretch receptors

c.
Baroreceptors

d.
chemoreceptors

Answer 77

d.
chemoreceptors

Question 78

Skeletal muscle has four characteristics, excitability, contractility, extensibility and _______
Select one:

a.
Elasticity

b.
Automaticity

c.
Osseo integration

d.
Elongation

Answer 78

a.
Elasticity

Question 79

How many spinal vertebrae are there?
Select one:

a.
30

b.
33

c.
31

d.
12

Answer 79

b.
33

Question 80

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta for each contraction is called
Select one:

a.
Stroke volume

b.
Systolic pump pressure

c.
Cardiac output

d.
Cardiac pre-load

Answer 80

a.
Stroke volume

Question 81

Which of the following groups of organs all lie within the abdominal cavity
Select one:

a.
Pancreas, vena cava and lungs

b.
Kidneys, spleen and heart

c.
Oesophagus, aorta and lungs

d.
Gall bladder, liver and pancreas

Answer 81

d.
Gall bladder, liver and pancreas

Question 82

External respiration is the process of carbon dioxide being exchanged for oxygen in your lungs. This takes place in the _________ of the lungs
Select one:

a.
Pleural Cavity

b.
Alveoli

c.
Bronchi

d.
Trachea

Answer 82

b.
Alveoli

Question 83

The lower chambers of the heart, which are responsible for the main pumping action of the myocardium, are referred to as ________
Select one:

a.
Tricuspids

b.
Septum

c.
Atria

d.
Ventricles

Answer 83

d.
Ventricles

Question 84

Which of the following structures is part of the respiratory system?
Select one:

a.
hepatic artery

b.
Larynx

c.
oesophagus

d.
hyoid bone

Answer 84

b.
Larynx

Question 85

Severe bleeding from the forearm may be referred to as ______ to the elbow
Select one:

a.
Superior

b.
Proximal

c.
Inferior

d.
Distal

Answer 85

d.
Distal

Question 86

When dealing with a limb fracture, you would
Select one:

a.
Withold pain relief from the patient

b.
Apply traction to the injured limb

c.
Leave open wounds uncovered

d.
Check CSMs distal to the injury site

Answer 86

d.
Check CSMs distal to the injury site

Question 87

The most important thing that an EMT has to remember about severely angulated fractures is that the
Select one:

a.
Acute angle of the limb may cause pinching or cutting of the nerves or blood vessels

b.
Angulation will always make transport difficult

c.
Angulation will cause mild pain

d.
Angulation may result in permanent shortening of the limb

Answer 87

a.
Acute angle of the limb may cause pinching or cutting of the nerves or blood vessels

Question 88

A patient with a fractured clavicle typically sits or stands with the
Select one:

a.
Shoulder of the injured side bent forward

b.
Shoulder of the injured side bent backwards

c.
Shoulder of the uninjured side bent backwards

d.
Shoulder of the uninjured side bent forwards

Answer 88

a.
Shoulder of the injured side bent forward

Question 89

Which of the following statements describes the treatment decision regarding spinal injuries?
Select one:

a.
The mechanism of injury can determine whether the patient is treated as a possible spinal injury

b.
Never treat for spinal injuries unless the patient complains of neck pain

c.
You must treat all cases as spinal injuries

d.
Treat for spinal injury only if speech is slurred and the patient has received direct head trauma

Answer 89

a.
The mechanism of injury can determine whether the patient is treated as a possible spinal injury

Question 90

You arrive at the scene of a road traffic accident to find a 25 year old female sitting in her car complaining of slight neck pain. She is conscious and alert with normal vital signs. The car was hit from behind by another car traveling at 50KMPH. The patient will
Select one:

a.
be treated using passive spinal motion restriction

b.
have active spinal motion restriction applied

c.
removed using rapid extrication

d.
ruled out for spinal injury and walked to the ambulance

Answer 90

b.
have active spinal motion restriction applied

Question 91

One sign of a spinal injury is priapism, which is
Select one:

a.
Cramping of the fingers

b.
Lack of sensation of the distal extremities

c.
loss of bladder control

d.
persistent erection of the penis

Answer 91

d.
persistent erection of the penis

Question 92

A properly applied cervical collar will assist you in maintaining the head and neck in
Select one:

a.
A neutral in line position

b.
A hyperextended position for airway maintenance

c.
A slightly flexed position for airway maintenance

d.
The “sniffing position”

Answer 92

a.
A neutral in line position

Question 93

You are caring for a 52 year old unconscious male patient who is the passenger in a vehicle struck by a truck. He has an open head wound and bruising to the chest and abdomen. His rspirations are 32 per minute and his pulse is 180 per minute. His skin is very cool and clammy. This patient should be managed by
Select one:

a.
Immobilization with a vest type extrication device before removal on a long board

b.
rapid extrication using a long board and collar

c.
await the fire service to cut the vehicle for extrication

d.
performing a rescue drag with any spinal immobilisation device

Answer 93

rapid extrication using a long board and collar,

performing a rescue drag with any spinal immobilisation device

Question 94

While managing a trauma situation involving possible spinal injury you encounter a combative patient. What is the best course of action regarding spinal immobilisation
Select one:

a.
Forcibly restrain them

b.
Do not forcibly restrain them

c.
Call ALS to sedate them for spinal immobilisation

d.
ensure they are arrested by Gardai

Answer 94

b.
Do not forcibly restrain them

Question 95

A sprain is an injury to
Select one:

a.
ligaments

b.
tendons

c.
bones

d.
muscles

Answer 95

a.
ligaments

Question 96

Which vital sign might indicate a closed head injury following a fall
Select one:

a.
shallow breathing

b.
equal pupils

c.
rapid pulse

d.
elevated BP

Answer 96

d.
elevated BP

Question 97

Fractures to what bone are most likely to result in the most severe internal bleeding
Select one:

a.
pelvis

b.
sternum

c.
Femur

d.
humerus

Answer 97

a.
pelvis

Question 98

A patient who is bleeding within the skull will most likely produce which of the following sets of vital signs:
Select one:

a.
Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and rising respiratory rate

b.
Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate

c.
Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and lowering respiratory rate

d.
Rising blood pressure, rising pulse and lowering respiratory rate

Answer 98

b.
Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate

Question 99

Which one of the following factors has the greatest influence on kinetic energy?
Select one:

a.
Increasing velocity

b.
Increasing density

c.
Increasing oscillation

d.
Increasing mass

Answer 99

a.
Increasing velocity

Question 100

Which of the following statements regarding damage to the spinal cord is true?
Select one:

a.
The thoracic region is the most frequently injured part

b.
the cervical region is the most frequently injured part

c.
all neurological effects are permanent

d.
When damaged it will cause loss of leg movement only

Answer 100

b.
the cervical region is the most frequently injured part

Question 101

What does DCAPBTLS stand for

Answer 101

Deformity
Contusion
Abrasion
Punctuation
Burns
Tenderness
Laceration
Swelling

Question 102

Standard pulse rate

Answer 102

Infant 100 - 160
Toddler 90 - 150
Pre school 80 - 140
School 70 - 120
Adolescent 60 - 100