MCQ 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

The local Authority tabard at a Major Emergency/Incident is coloured
Select one:

a.
green and white

b.
red and white

c.
blue and white

d.
green and yellow

A

b.
red and white

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2
Q

We us the mnemonic “ASHICE” when giving information to the hospital if we need them on standby. The letter “A” stands for
Select one:

a.
Arrival time

b.
address of patient

c.
Airway status

d.
age of patient

A

d.
age of patient

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3
Q

Of the choices below, which pro word indicates the practitioner has finished the communication and does not expect a reply?
Select one:

a.
over

b.
Wilco

c.
out

d.
Goodbye

A

c.
out

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4
Q

What colour is the inner cordon of a major incident:
Select one:

a.
black

b.
gold

c.
bronze

d.
silver

A

c.
bronze

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5
Q

VHF frequency on your radio stands for
Select one:

a.
Vertical Height Frequency

b.
Very High Frequency

c.
Venetian High Frequency

d.
Vertical High Frequency

A

b.
Very High Frequency

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6
Q

The letter X displayed on an ADR card indicates that the substance
Select one:

a.
is neutralised by water

b.
reacts dangerously with water

c.
does not react dangerously with water

d.
is not neutralised by water

A

b.
reacts dangerously with water

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7
Q

When you have sufficient resources to deal with a major emergency but these resources have not arrived yet, this is classified as
Select one:

a.
simple

b.
compound

c.
Compensated

d.
uncompensated

A

c.
Compensated

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8
Q

The forward incident officer at a major emergency operates at which level
Select one:

a.
frontline

b.
tactical

c.
strategic

d.
operational

A

d.
operational

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9
Q

Handling, storage and forensic arrangements regarding the dead at a major emergency is the responsibility of the
Select one:

a.
medical officer

b.
HSE ambulance service

c.
Gardai

d.
local authority

A

c.
Gardai

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10
Q

While triaging a patient during a major emergency, you discover that he is unable to walk, has a respiratory rate of 24 and a pulse rate of 110. He is classified as
Select one:

a.
urgent (yellow)

b.
immediate (red)

c.
expectant

d.
delayed (green)

A

a.
urgent (yellow)

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11
Q

While triaging a patient during a major emergency, you find a female walking about, who is approximately 8 months pregnant. She is classified as
Select one:

a.
expectant

b.
urgent (yellow)

c.
immediate (red)

d.
delayed (green)

A

d.
delayed (green)

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12
Q

During triage sieve, a capillary refill time above 2 seconds indicates a category of
Select one:

a.
urgent (yellow)

b.
delayed (green)

c.
dead

d.
immediate (red)

A

d.
immediate (red)

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13
Q

The METHANE message from a major emergency should be sent by the
Select one:

a.
forward incident officer

b.
first practitioner on scene

c.
second practitioner on scene

d.
HSE controller of operations

A

c.
second practitioner on scene

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14
Q

The recent earthquake disaster in Haiti is an example of which type of major emergency
Select one:

a.
simple

b.
manmade

c.
compensated

d.
natural

A

d.
natural

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15
Q

Treatment of casualties at a major emergency should be
Select one:

a.
supervised by the lead clinician

b.
limited to the minimum required prior to transport to treatment facilities

c.
carried out using all pre-hospital care prodcedures available

d.
delegated to auxiliary and voluntary services

A

b.
limited to the minimum required prior to transport to treatment facilities

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16
Q

Triage sieve is performed
Select one:

a.
at the casualty clearing station

b.
only for casualties with obvious injuries

c.
on the way to the hospital

d.
where the casualties are found

A

d.
where the casualties are found

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17
Q

In the phonetic alphabet, ‘N’ is denoted by
Select one:

a.
Nova

b.
Nora

c.
November

d.
Norway

A

c.
November

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18
Q

The letter ‘P’ is given as ________ in the phonetic alphabet
Select one:

a.
papa

b.
portugal

c.
pear

d.
peter

A

a.
papa

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19
Q

When giving an ASHICE message, the letter A stands for
Select one:

a.
age of patient

b.
arrival time on scene

c.
address of incident

d.
allergies

A

a.
age of patient

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20
Q

When attending an incident involving a hazardous material the ambulance should be parked
Select one:

a.
upwind

b.
on the side closest to the hospital

c.
downhill

d.
downwind

A

a.
upwind

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21
Q

The first practitioner on scene at a major emergency should
Select one:

a.
set up a casualty clearing station

b.
stay with the ambulance and act as communications officer

c.
immediately transport the first available patients

d.
start to triage casualties

A

b.
stay with the ambulance and act as communications officer

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22
Q

In triage, a yellow coloured card represents
Select one:

a.
dead

b.
immediate

c.
delayed

d.
urgent

A

d.
urgent

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23
Q

In triage, a green label indicates
Select one:

a.
urgent

b.
immediate

c.
delayed
Refer to CPG 4.8.3

d.
dead

A

c.
delayed
Refer to CPG 4.8.3

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24
Q

n triage, a red label indicates
Select one:

a.
dead

b.
urgent

c.
delayed

d.
immediate

A

d.
immediate

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25
Q

The collapse of the world trade centre in New York was what type of major emergency
Select one:

a.
natural

b.
simple

c.
man-made

d.
compensated

A

c.
man-made

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26
Q

The person in charge of the health service activities at a major emergency is called the
Select one:

a.
controller of operations

b.
health service manager

c.
ambulance incident officer

d.
medical incident officer

A

a.
controller of operations

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27
Q

During a major emergency you find a male infant who appears to be abandoned.
He is conscious and has a large bruise on his left forehead, respiration rate of 26 and a capillary refill of 2 seconds.
What category patient is he?
Select one:

a.
immediate

b.
delayed

c.
dead

d.
urgent

A

d.
urgent

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28
Q

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the Gardai wear at the scene of a major emergency
Select one:

a.
green and white

b.
blue and white

c.
blue and yellow

d.
red and white

A

b.
blue and white

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29
Q

When attending a hazardous materials incident the ambulance should be positioned
Select one:

a.
as close to the scene as possible

b.
downhill and upwind

c.
uphill and upwind

d.
uphill and downwind

A

c.
uphill and upwind

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30
Q

The letter “E” on a hazchem code indicates
Select one:

a.
consider evacuation

b.
emergency

c.
evacuate all rescue personnel

d.
reacts dangerously with water

A

a.
consider evacuation

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31
Q

Under the ADR hazard warning code, a truck carrying multiple chemical loads will display
Select one:

a.
an orange plate with “multi-load” displayed

b.
an orange plate for each chemical

c.
a blank orange plate

d.
no hazard warning plate

A

c.
a blank orange plate

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32
Q

Which type of civil disorder involves several sites of disturbance
Select one:

a.
standard disorder

b.
ambush

c.
running disorder

d.
riot

A

c.
running disorder

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33
Q

Select one:

a.
red

b.
green

c.
white

d.
Yellow

A

d.
Yellow

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34
Q

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the local authority wear at the scene of a major emergency
Select one:

a.
green and white

b.
green and yellow

c.
blue and white

d.
red and white

A

d.
red and white

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35
Q

The use of the keyword ‘ROGER’ when using radio communications indicates
Select one:

a.
I heard the message

b.
I understand the message

c.
I want you to repeat the message

d.
send the message again

A

b.
I understand the message

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36
Q

What colour tabard does the controller of operations for the ambulance service wear at the scene of a major emergency
Select one:

a.
red and white

b.
green and white

c.
blue and white

d.
green and yellow

A

b.
green and white

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37
Q

While triaging, a woman in her twenties is unconscious with severe facial wounds. Pulse 40, resps 0 and cap refill delayed. Her category is:
Select one:

a.
green

b.
red

c.
white (dead)

d.
yellow

A

c.
white (dead)

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38
Q

In radio communications, VHF stands for
Select one:

a.
very hard frequency

b.
virtual high frequency

c.
virtual home frequency

d.
very high frequency

A

d.
very high frequency

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39
Q

Over” is an example of a
Select one:

a.
call sign

b.
proword

c.
long message

d.
short message

A

b.
proword

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40
Q

n the phonetic alphabet, the letter I is denoted by
Select one:

a.
indigo

b.
india

c.
indian

d.
ireland

A

b.
india

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41
Q

In the phonetic alphabet, the letter Y is denoted by
Select one:

a.
yankee

b.
yvonne

c.
yankeur

d.
yvette

A

a.
yankee

42
Q

Radio communications over short range uses ____________
Select one:

a.
UHF (ultra high frequency)

b.
SW (shortwave)

c.
FM (frequency modulation)

d.
AM (amplitude modulation)

A

a.
UHF (ultra high frequency)

43
Q

In an ASHICE message the letter C denotes
Select one:

a.
clinical status decision

b.
condition

c.
CUPS

d.
cause

A

b.
condition

44
Q

In an ASHICE message the letter E denotes
Select one:

a.
emergency services required

b.
evacuation procedure

c.
emergency services present at scene

d.
estimated time of arrival

A

d.
estimated time of arrival

45
Q

The proword that should be used before spelling a word during a radio transmission is
Select one:

a.
speaking

b.
i say

c.
wait out

d.
i spell

A

d.
i spell

46
Q

When at the scene of a civil disorder the ambulance should be parked
Select one:

a.
facing out with back doors open

b.
facing in with back doors closed

c.
facing out with back doors closed

d.
facing in with back doors open

A

a.
facing out with back doors open

47
Q

How many digits are there in a UN number
Select one:

a.
1

b.
3

c.
4

d.
2

A

c.
4

48
Q

The figure “X” when displayed on a HAZCHEM label is listed as part of the
Select one:

a.
Emergency Action Code (EAC)

b.
hazard warning diamond

c.
UN number

d.
specialist advice phone number

A

a.
Emergency Action Code (EAC)

49
Q

On a HAZCHEM label where is the company logo located
Select one:

a.
bottom right

b.
top left

c.
top right

d.
bottom left

A

a.
bottom right

50
Q

What is contained on the bottom section of an ADR plate
Select one:

a.
UN number

b.
emergency action code

c.
hazard warning label

d.
manufacturer contact phone number

A

a.
UN number

51
Q

Who is responsible for controlling access to the outer cordon at the scene of a major emergency
Select one:

a.
ambulance officer

b.
Gardai

c.
local authority

d.
fire service

A

b.
Gardai

52
Q

ollowing dispatch to the scene of civil disorder, an ambulance crew should
Select one:

a.
report to the rendevous point

b.
request a Garda escort

c.
proceed to the scene of the disorder

d.
refuse to attend

A

a.
report to the rendevous point

53
Q

The correct calculations for weight estimation for a 2 year old patient are?
Select one:

a.
2 x (age + 5)

b.
age x 4

c.
(Age x 2) + 8

d.
(Age x 3) + 7

A

c.
(Age x 2) + 8

54
Q

According to CPG, an infant is aged
Select one:

a.
birth until able to walk

b.
4 weeks to one year old

c.
birth to 4 weeks

d.
birth to 1 year

A

b.
4 weeks to one year old

55
Q

For a cardiac arrest how many practitioner/responders should be mobilised as a minimum
Select one:

a.
3 - 4

b.
6 - 8

c.
4 - 6

d.
crew of 2

A

a.
3 - 4

56
Q

When a patient has a foreign body airway obstruction, but is able to cough, the EMT should
Select one:

a.
Encourage the patient to cough

b.
observe the patient until complete obstruction

c.
give the patient a drink of water or milk

d.
Give 1 – 5 back blows followed by 1 – 5 abdominal thrusts

A

a.
Encourage the patient to cough

57
Q

A patient who is bleeding within the skull will most likely produce which of the following sets of vital signs:
Select one:

a.
Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate

b.
Rising blood pressure, rising pulse and lowering respiratory rate

c.
Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and rising respiratory rate

d.
Lowering blood pressure, lowering pulse and lowering respiratory rate

A

a.
Rising blood pressure, slowing pulse and slowing respiratory rate

58
Q

According to bystanders, your unconscious female patient just fell from a second floor window. She is showing signs of severe shock. Among other things, you will want to monitor her airway and her ____ pulse
Select one:

a.
Radial, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 110mmHg

b.
Femoral, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 40mmHg

c.
Carotid, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 120mmHg

d.
Carotid, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 60mmHg

A

Carotid, which means she has an approximate systolic blood pressure of at least 60mmHg

59
Q

The most important sign in the evaluation of a head injured patient is
Select one:

a.
Tachypnea

b.
loss of consciousness

c.
Blood pressure

d.
pulse rate

A

b.
loss of consciousness

60
Q

A patient with severe bleeding from a wond on their neck is best cared for using a/an

Select one:

a.
pressure points

b.
haemostatic dressing

c.
tourniquet

d.
ambulance dressing

A

b.
haemostatic dressing

61
Q

A condition in which there is progressive loss of elasticity of the lungs, with an over expansion of the alveoli is known as
Select one:

a.
emphysema

b.
Bronchitis

c.
pulmonary embolism

d.
Asthma

A

a.
emphysema

62
Q

Which of the following statements regarding damage to the spinal cord is true?
Select one:

a.
When damaged it will cause loss of leg movement only

b.
all neurological effects are permanent

c.
the cervical region is the most frequently injured part

d.
The thoracic region is the most frequently injured part

A

c.
the cervical region is the most frequently injured part

63
Q

The most reliable sign that your patient is being adequately ventilated by a bag-valve mask
Select one:

a.
the patient begins breathing on their own

b.
the pulse rate quickens

c.
The patient regains consciousness

d.
The patient’s chest rises and falls with each ventilation delivered

A

d.
The patient’s chest rises and falls with each ventilation delivered

64
Q

One cause of acute abdominal pain is an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, which is described as
Select one:

a.
Bleeding from the stomach

b.
Coffee ground vomit

c.
An area of weakening and dilation in the wall of an artery

d.
Hematemesis

A

c.
An area of weakening and dilation in the wall of an artery

65
Q

Agonal respirations are best defined as
Select one:

a.
Shallow, rapid and regular breaths

b.
Deep, rapid, and regular breaths

c.
Deep, very slow, and regular breaths

d.
Very slow and irregular gasping breaths

A

d.
Very slow and irregular gasping breaths

66
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the Sino Atrial (SA) Node?
Select one:

a.
It is the principle pacemaker of the heart

b.
It is located below the AV node

c.
It fires approximately 40 – 60 times

d.
it only controls the ventricles

A

a.
It is the principle pacemaker of the heart

67
Q

In addition to ventricular fibrillation, what other rhythm may be shocked by the AED
Select one:

a.
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

b.
Premature ventricular contractions

c.
Normal sinus rhythm

d.
Ventricular tachycardia

A

a.
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

68
Q

Which of the following is most likely to produce hypovolemic shock?
Select one:

a.
Pott’s fracture

b.
laceration to scalp

c.
Spinal cord injury

d.
ruptured spleen

A

d.
ruptured spleen

69
Q

Which one of the following factors has the greatest influence on kinetic energy?
Select one:

a.
Increasing oscillation

b.
Increasing density

c.
Increasing mass

d.
Increasing velocity

A

d.
Increasing velocity

70
Q

In what position might a patient with congestive heart failure be most comfortable
Select one:

a.
upright

b.
trendelenburg

c.
Supine

d.
Prone

A

a.
upright

71
Q

ctopic pregnancies most often occur in the
Select one:

a.
fallopian tube

b.
uterus

c.
urethra

d.
vagina

A

a.
fallopian tube

72
Q

Each ovary is connected to the uterus by
Select one:

a.
Eustachian tubes

b.
Umbilicus

c.
Fallopian tubes

d.
Hepatic tube

A

c.
Fallopian tubes

73
Q

To prevent supine hypotension, a pregnant patient with history of blood pressure problems should be transported in what position
Select one:

a.
Fowler’s position

b.
Supine position

c.
Lying on the left side

d.
Prone position

A

c.
Lying on the left side

74
Q

In an emergency delivery the amniotic sac has not naturally ruptured, the EMT can
Select one:

a.
Puncture the sac with a gloved hand

b.
do nothing as the baby will break the sac

c.
Rush baby and mother to hospital immediately

d.
Strip the sac away when the baby is fully delivered

A

a.
Puncture the sac with a gloved hand

75
Q

A pregnancy is divided into stages known as
Select one:

a.
semesters

b.
months

c.
trimesters

d.
weeks

A

c.
trimesters

76
Q

_________ shock is a condition caused by a reaction to a drug, bite or sting, which reduces peripheral resistance and venous return
Select one:

a.
Cardiogenic

b.
Anaphylactic

c.
Hypovolemic

d.
Septic

A

b.
Anaphylactic

77
Q

Meconium staining, a sign of foetal distress, is a result of
Select one:

a.
Post-partum haemorrhage

b.
foetal defecation

c.
vaginal bleeding

d.
Mucus from the foetus’s mouth and nose

A

b.
foetal defecation

78
Q

A significant difference between paediatric and adult patients is the
Select one:

a.
Hydration levels

b.
head size

c.
number of ribs in the ribcage

d.
response to pain

A

b.
head size

79
Q

The most appropriate emergency care for a 3 year old male patient suffering severe respiratory distress should include
Select one:

a.
oxygen delivered by nasal cannula

b.
oxygen delivered via non-rebreather mask

c.
Assisted ventilations with supplement oxygen at 4 LPM

d.
Oxygen by the blow by method

A

b.
oxygen delivered via non-rebreather mask

80
Q

Which of the following is a very common cause of seizures in children aged between 6 months and 5 years old?
Select one:

a.
Accidental poisoning

b.
flashing lights

c.
Accidental head injury

d.
sudden rise in temperature

A

d.
sudden rise in temperature

81
Q

When examining the fontanelles of an infant, a normal state would be
Select one:

a.
Smooth and level

b.
Slightly bulging

c.
2 – 3 inches below the cranial surface

d.
Slightly sunken

A

c.
2 – 3 inches below the cranial surface

82
Q

In PHECC guidelines, a paediatric patient is aged
Select one:

a.
<16 years old

b.
<10 years old

c.
<1 year old

d.
<8 years old

A

a.
<16 years old

83
Q

Paediatric defibrillation pads should be used for patients under ___ years of age
Select one:

a.
16

b.
12

c.
8

d.
10

A

c.
8

84
Q

The more serious causes of abdominal pain are the internal bleeding, peptic ulcer, diverticulitis, abdominal aneurysm, kidney stones and _________
Select one:

a.
Flatulence

b.
Menstrual pains

c.
Abdominal cramps

d.
Ectopic pregnancy

A

d.
Ectopic pregnancy

85
Q

In PHECC standards, the paediatric weight estimation of a one to five year old is
Select one:

a.
Age x 2 + 8kg

b.
Age x 3 + 9kg

c.
Age x 3 +8kg

d.
Age x 3 +7kg

A

a.
Age x 2 + 8kg

86
Q

The paediatric weight estimation of a neonate is
Select one:

a.
6kg

b.
3.5Kg

c.
5kg

d.
10kg

A

b.
3.5Kg

87
Q

For a paediatric patient, what percentage of the body surface area is given to the head
Select one:

a.
1%

b.
18%

c.
14.5%

d.
9%

A

b.
18%

88
Q

Moderate asthma in a child <5 yrs old should be treated with ____ by the EMT
Select one:

a.
Salbutamol 5mg NEB

b.
Salbutamol 2.5mg NEB

c.
Oxygen only

d.
Chlorphenamine 4mg PO

A

b.
Salbutamol 2.5mg NEB

89
Q

The term “haematuria” relates to
Select one:

a.
Blood in the vomit

b.
Blood from the nose

c.
Blood in the stool

d.
Blood in the urine

A

d.
Blood in the urine

90
Q

You are called to the house of a responsive 65 year old man who complains of sudden chest pain whilst watching television. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 156/92 and respirations 18 and laboured. He looks very pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following medication/s is/are indicated for this patient?
Select one:

a.
GTN only

b.
Aspirin and salbutamol

c.
Aspirin only

d.
Aspirin and GTN

A

d.
Aspirin and GTN

91
Q

A nasal cannula at the proper setting on the flow regulator (1 - 6 litres per minute), can deliver a minimum and maximum oxygen concentration of
Select one:

a.
24 - 44%

b.
24 - 40%

c.
28 - 44%

d.
24 - 48%

A

a.
24 - 44%

92
Q

You are assessing a patient with ACS when they suddenly collapse to the floor. The patient is unresponsive, not breathing and has no pulse. The first action you carry out is
Select one:

a.
Provide two ventilations

b.
Insert an OPA

c.
Attach defibrillation pads

d.
Start chest compressions

A

c.
Attach defibrillation pads

93
Q

There are three main causes of fainting (syncope), one is postural, second is emotional stress and the third is _______
Select one:

a.
Hyperglycaemia

b.
Respiratory in origin

c.
Hypertension

d.
Cardiac in origin

A

d.
Cardiac in origin

94
Q

Burns to the face/hands, feet, flexion points and ______ are all serious
Select one:

a.
Peritoneum

b.
Periapical

c.
Periosteum

d.
Perineum

A

d.
Perineum

95
Q

When dealing with a patient with Epistaxis, digital pressure should be applied for?
Select one:

a.
10 minutes

b.
5 minutes

c.
15 minutes

d.
20 minutes

A

c.
15 minutes

96
Q

Regular contraction, bloody show and rupture of the membranes are all indications of what stage of labour
Select one:

a.
Fourth stage

b.
Third stage

c.
Second stage

d.
First stage

A

d.
First stage

97
Q

Of the problems listed below, which should the EMT consider first when treating a patient with severe facial injuries
Select one:

a.
The patient may have brain damage

b.
Airway compromise

c.
The patient may have a fractured skull

d.
The lower jaw may also be fractured which will cause extreme pain

A

b.
Airway compromise

98
Q

When using the “palmar rule” to estimate the size of a burn, you assess the burn using _______ hand which is equal to ____ % skin surface
Select one:

a.
your own - 9%

b.
the patient’s – 1%

c.
Your own – 1%

d.
An average adult’s - 9%

A

b.
the patient’s – 1%

99
Q

Under certain circumstances, an impaled object may be removed if it is located in the
Select one:

a.
Skull

b.
Abdomen

c.
Cheek

d.
Chest

A

c.
Cheek

100
Q

When completing a PCR you make a mistake recording the time, you should
Select one:

a.
start a new PCR

b.
Use correction fluid and inform the receiving nurse when you get to the hospital

c.
Cross through the mistake, and write correct time

d.
Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time

A

d.
Cross through the mistake, initial and write correct time