MCQ 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Below which SpO2percentage requires the practitioner to administer oxygen in a non-COPD patient
Select one:

a.
98

b.
96

c.
94

d.
99

A

94

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2
Q

You are performing a primary survey on an unresponsive trauma patient involved in an RTA. When evaluating her chest you note unilateral chest rise, you should

Select one:

a.
Count the breathing rate for 60 seconds

b.
administer entonox for pain relief

c.
inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest

d.
note injury and continue to check circulation

A

inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest

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3
Q

ormal capillary refill results in the blood returning within _______ seconds

Select one:

a.
Four

b.
Three

c.
Five

d.
Two

A

Two

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4
Q

Which piece of equipment from the list below is required when taking a patient’s blood pressure by auscultation technique

Select one:

a.
A tourniquet

b.
Astethoscope

c.
Apulse oximeter

d.
A cardiac monitor

A

Astethoscope

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5
Q

A reading of less than 85% when using a pulse oximeter means that the patient is suffering from which of the following

Select one:

a.
Severe hypothermia

b.
Severe hypoxemia

c.
Mild hypoxemia

d.
Mild hyperthermia

A

Severe hypoxemia

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6
Q

A sphygmomanometer is used in the measurement of

Select one:

a.
Pupil size

b.
Blood glucose levels

c.
Blood pressure

d.
Temperature

A

Blood pressure

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7
Q

Normal resting heart rate expected for a newborn infant is

Select one:

a.
75 – 130

b.
60 – 100

c.
70 – 110

d.
90 – 180

A

90 – 180

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8
Q

When inflating a blood pressure cuff to measure blood pressure by palpation, it should be inflated ______ mmHg above where the last pulse was felt

Select one:

a.
20

b.
10

c.
30

d.
15

A

30

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9
Q

The normal breathing rate for an adult at rest is

Select one:

a.
12-20 breaths per minute

b.
8-10 breaths per minute

c.
28 - 30 breaths per minute

d.
4 - 6 breaths per minute

A

12-20 breaths per minute

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10
Q

An assessment tool that measures oxygen in the haemoglobin in the capillary bed’s is called _____

Select one:

a.
A pulse oximeter

b.
Stethoscope

c.
A tympanic thermometer

d.
A blood pressure cuff

A

pulse oximeter

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11
Q

The Normal pulse rate in an adult at rest is appoximately between _____________ per minute

Select one:

a.
100 - 160

b.
60 - 100

c.
70 - 130

d.
40 - 60

A

60 - 100

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12
Q

The difference between your systolic and diastolic blood pressure should be approximately 40 mmHg. This is called your ________

Select one:

a.
Pulse

b.
Pulse pressure

c.
Point Pressure

d.
Pressure Point

A

Pulse pressure

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13
Q

When assessing circulation in an unresponsive patient, the pulse should be palpated in the ______

Select one:

a.
Femoral

b.
Posterior tibial

c.
Carotid

d.
Dorsalis pedis

A

Carotid

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14
Q

The first set of vital signs that you obtain is known as the

Select one:

a.
primary

b.
baseline

c.
main

d.
trending

A

baseline

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15
Q

The primary survey should be completed in less then ___ seconds

Select one:

a.
60

b.
10

c.
30

d.
90
Feedback

A

60

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16
Q

Pulse oximeters are used to measure?

Select one:

a.
pulse rate only

b.
The percentage of oxygen in the patient’s finger

c.
The patient’s distal pulse

d.
The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated

A

The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated

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17
Q

Your transport decision should be made after which component of patient assessment

Select one:

a.
vital signs assessment

b.
Secondary survey

c.
ongoing assessment

d.
Primary survey

A

Primary survey

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18
Q

The maximum on scene time for life threatening trauma should be

Select one:

a.
As soon as the primary survey is complete

b.
less than 20 minutes

c.
less than 3 minutes

d.
less than 10 minutes

A

10 minutes

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19
Q

When conducting a primary survey on a patient with obvious significant external bleeding which of the following is the priority?

Select one:

a.
Assess responsiveness

b.
Assess airway

c.
C spine control

d.
Control catastrophic bleeding

A

Control catastrophic bleeding

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20
Q

When managing a trauma patient with mechanism of injury suggestive of spinal injury you should

Select one:

a.
apply C-spine control only if there are obvious neurological symptoms

b.
wait until CSMs are assessed before decided whether c-spine immobilisation is needed

c.
apply a cervical collar immediately

d.
perform manual C-spine control

A

perform manual C-spine control

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21
Q

The systematic head to toe examination looking for non life threatening injuries in a patient is part of a
Select one:

a.
primary survey

b.
ongoing survey

c.
secondary survey

d.
scene assessment

A

secondary survey

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22
Q

You are assessing a patient who has an altered level of consciousness. On approach you find the patient who has their eyes closed responds to your voice by opening their eyes but doesn’t speak. What is the patient’s level on the AVPU score

Select one:

a.
U

b.
P

c.
V

d.
A

A

V on the A.V.P.U scale

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23
Q

While assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, the patient only responds to a pinch of the earlobe. They are considered to be ___ on the AVPU scale
Select one:

a.
A

b.
U

c.
P

d.

A

P on the A.V.P.U scale

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24
Q

The skin pigment of a jaundiced patient may appear

Select one:

a.
red

b.
yellow

c.
White

d.
blue

A

Yellow

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25
Q

A patient who does not respond to any stimulus is considered to be _______________ on the AVPU scale

Select one:

a.
unable to respond

b.
unstable

c.
unconscious

d.
unresponsive

A

unresponsive

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26
Q

or a patient to be considered alert on the aVPU scale they should be

Select one:

a.
awake

b.
able to walk in a straight line

c.
alert and oriented

d.
sitting up with their eyes open

A

alert and oriented

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27
Q

Capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of cardiovascular status in which patient group

Select one:

a.
adults

b.
children

c.
pregnancy

d.
geriatrics

A

children

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28
Q

The elements of AVPU are

Select one:

a.
Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive

b.
Alone, voice, pain, unresponsive

c.
Alert, verbal, pain, unconscious

d.
Alert, verbal, prone, unresponsive

A

Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive

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29
Q

The contraction of the abdominal muscles to palpation is a sign of

Select one:

a.
Muscular strain

b.
Cramps in the abdominal muscles

c.
An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining

d.
diarrhoea

A

An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining

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30
Q

The normal range of blood glucose in an adult patient is

Select one:

a.
4 - 10 mmol/L

b.
4 - 20 mmol/L

c.
4 - 5 mmol/L

d.
2 - 6 mmol/L

A

4 - 10 mmol/L

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31
Q

The “Q” in the OPQRST mnemonic best relates to which of the questions below

Select one:

a.
When did the problem begin and what caused it

b.
On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your pain

c.
Does anything make it better or worse

d.
What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing

A

What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing

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32
Q

The sections of the spinal cord that are most susceptible to injury are the cervical and

Select one:

a.
Coccyx

b.
Sacrum

c.
Thoracic

d.
Lumbar

A

Lumbar

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33
Q

The three major parts of the brain are the:

Select one:

a.
midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord

b.
cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

c.
cerebellum, medulla, and occiput

d.
brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord

A

cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

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34
Q

The blood vessels that return blood from the head are the

Select one:

a.
Inferior vena cava

b.
Pulmonary veins

c.
Jugular veins

d.
Carotid arteries

A

Jugular veins

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35
Q

The kneecap (patella) is an example of a

Select one:

a.
Flat bone

b.
Long bone

c.
Sesamoid bone

d.
Short bone

A

Sesamoid bone

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36
Q

Which of the following structures is part of the respiratory system?

Select one:

a.
Larynx

b.
oesophagus

c.
hepatic artery

d.
hyoid bone

A

Larynx

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37
Q

The lower chambers of the heart, which are responsible for the main pumping action of the myocardium, are referred to as ________

elect one:

a.
Ventricles

b.
Atria

c.
Septum

d.
Tricuspids

A

Ventricles

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38
Q

The human skeleton is made up of

Select one:

a.
385 bones

b.
206 bones

c.
310 bones

d.
106 bones

A

206 bones

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39
Q

Distal CSM’s means

Select one:

a.
CSM’s near the fracture

b.
CSM’s at the fracture site

c.
CSM’s before the fracture

d.
CSM’s past the fracture

A

CSM’s past the fracture, CSM’s near the fracture

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40
Q

Bones are classified according to their shape: long, short, flat and irregular. An example of an irregular shaped bone is

elect one:

a.
Femur

b.
Vertebrae

c.
Clavicle

d.
Sternum

A

Vertebrae

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41
Q

The shoulder girdle consists of?

Select one:

a.
Clavicles and the phalanges

b.
Scapulae and the metacarpals

c.
Clavicles and the scapulae

d.
Phalanges and humerus

A

Clavicles and the scapulae

42
Q

An example of the hinged joint can be found at the

Select one:

a.
Sacroiliac

b.
Hip

c.
Knee

d.
Shoulder

A

Knee

43
Q

Bands of tough, flexible connective tissue which join the articular surfaces of bones are called

Select one:

a.
Muscles

b.
Tendons

c.
Ligaments

d.
Cartilage

A

Ligaments

44
Q

The heart is located in

Select one:

a.
The dorsal cavity slightly to the right

b.
The thoracic cavity slightly to the left

c.
The thoracic cavity slightly to the right

d.
The abdominal cavity in the retroperitoneal region

A

The thoracic cavity slightly to the left

45
Q

An example of a solid abdominal organ is
Select one:

a.
Small intestine

b.
Bladder

c.
Spleen

d.
Stomach

A

Spleen

46
Q

The ______ in your brain is regarded as the control centre for respiration

Select one:

a.
Medulla oblongata

b.
Cerebrum

c.
Midbrain

d.
Cerebellum

A

Medulla oblongata

47
Q

The bone distal to the scapula and proximal to the radius and ulna is the

Select one:

a.
Clavicle

b.
Humerus

c.
Carpals

d.
Sternum

A

Humerus

48
Q

Which layer forms the outer part of the heart?

Which layer forms the outer part of the heart?
Select one:

a.
Endocardium

b.
Myocardium

c.
Sub endocardium

d.
Pericardium

A

Pericardium

49
Q

Electrical impulses that are produced in the spinal cord are transmitted along the ___ nerve to the muscle and cause it to contract

Select one:

a.
Vagal

b.
Motor

c.
Sensory

d.
Phrenic

A

Motor

50
Q

The outer most layer of the skin is called

Select one:

a.
Dermis

b.
Subcutaneous

c.
Cutaneous

d.
Epidermis

A

Epidermis

51
Q

A pulse, is the transmitted impulse from the contraction of the left ventricle, which can be felt when the artery is

Select one:

a.
passing over a ligament

b.
Midline to a bone and close to a tendon

c.
Anterior to the bone surface and just slightly beneath the muscle

d.
Close to the skin over a bone

A

Close to the skin over a bone

52
Q

_______ Blood pressure reflects relaxation of the heart

Select one:

a.
Diastolic

b.
Ejection Fraction

c.
Systolic

d.
Stroke Volume

A

Diastolic

53
Q

The elbow is _____ to the shoulder but _____ to the wrist

Select one:

a.
Posterior, Superior

b.
Distal, Proximal

c.
Midline, Lateral

d.
Proximal, Distal

A

Distal, Proximal

54
Q

The term used to describe the lower jaw is

Select one:

a.
Maxilla

b.
Mandible

c.
cranium

d.
Zygoma

A

Mandible

55
Q

The component of the Central Nervous System which decides how to respond to changing conditions inside and outside of the body is the

Select one:

a.
Peripheral nerves

b.
spinal cord

c.
Sensory nerves

d.
brain

A

Brain

56
Q

From the outside layer to the inner, what is the correct sequence of layers of the meninges?

Select one:

a.
Pia mater, Dura mater, Arachnoid mater

b.
Dura mater, Pia mater, Arachnoid

c.
Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater

d.
Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater

A

Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater

57
Q

The right side of the heart

Select one:

a.
Circulates blood from the heart to the head

b.
Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs

c.
Circulates blood from the head to the lungs

d.
Circulates blood from the heart to the aorta

A

Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs

58
Q

The cardio vascular system consists of

Select one:

a.
The heart, liver, arteries, veins, capillaries

b.
The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries

c.
Brain, heart, arteries, veins, blood

d.
Brain, lungs, heart, blood, arteries

A

The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries

59
Q

The largest artery in the body is the

Select one:

a.
femoral artery

b.
carotid artery

c.
hepatic artery

d.
aorta

A

Aorta

60
Q

The organs commonly found in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen are

Select one:

a.
Stomach, spleen, large intestine, pancreas

b.
Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas

c.
Liver, spleen, descending colon, small intestine

d.
Liver, stomach, kidney bladder

A

Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas

61
Q

The heart is composed of four chambers. They include two atria and two ventricles. The chamber that pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta is the ______ which ejects approximately ___ ml’s of blood per contraction

Select one:

a.
Left ventricle – 70

b.
Right atria – 70

c.
Right ventricle – 120

d.
left atria - 120

A

Left ventricle – 70

62
Q

The spine consists of 33 bones, which breaks down into 5 groups. Identify the groups

Select one:

a.
7 cervical; 12 lumbar; 5 thoracic; 4 sacrum; 5 coccyx

b.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar; 6 sacrum; 3 coccyx

c.
5 cervical; 12 lumbar; 7 thoracic, 5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

d.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

A

7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx

63
Q

Identify the three types of muscular tissue

Select one:

a.
Voluntary, striated, cardiac

b.
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

c.
Cardiac, smooth, involuntary

d.
Striated, voluntary, skeletal

A

Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

64
Q

The amount of air that passes into and out of the lungs in one breath is called

Select one:

a.
Tidal volume

b.
inspiratory reserve volume

c.
minute volume

d.
vital capacity

A

Tidal volume

65
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of

Select one:

a.
spinal cord and pia mater

b.
brain and spinal cord

c.
spinal cord and dura mater

d.
brain and 12 cranial nerves

A

brain and spinal cord

66
Q

Where is the Dorsalis Pedis pulse point found?

Select one:

a.
On top of the foot

b.
at the knee

c.
Behind the ankle

d.
in the groin

A

On top of the foot

67
Q

There are a number of factors that provide us with a stimulus to breath, one of them being _______ which are situated in the walls of the Aorta and the Carotid

Select one:

a.
chemoreceptors

b.
Baroreceptors

c.
neurotransmitters

d.
Stretch receptors

A

chemoreceptors

68
Q

Skeletal muscle has four characteristics, excitability, contractility, extensibility and _______

Select one:

a.
Osseo integration

b.
Automaticity

c.
Elasticity

d.
Elongation

A

Elasticity

69
Q

How many spinal vertebrae are there?

Select one:

a.
33

b.
31

c.
30

d.
12

A

33

70
Q

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta for each contraction is called

Select one:

a.
Systolic pump pressure

b.
Cardiac pre-load

c.
Stroke volume

d.
Cardiac output

A

Stroke volume

71
Q

Which of the following groups of organs all lie within the abdominal cavity

Select one:

a.
Gall bladder, liver and pancreas

b.
Pancreas, vena cava and lungs

c.
Kidneys, spleen and heart

d.
Oesophagus, aorta and lungs

A

Gall bladder, liver and pancreas

72
Q

External respiration is the process of carbon dioxide being exchanged for oxygen in your lungs. This takes place in the _________ of the lungs

Select one:

a.
Alveoli

b.
Bronchi

c.
Pleural Cavity

d.
Trachea

A

Alveoli

73
Q

Pathology is the study of

Select one:

a.
Dermatomes

b.
disease

c.
Diplopia

d.
Diets

A

disease

74
Q

When you arrive on scene, you find an adult patient in cardiac arrest. You should mobilise how many additional responders?

Select one:

a.
3 – 4

b.
1 – 2

c.
5 – 6

d.
None

A

3 – 4

75
Q

What is the fifth link in the chain of survival?

Select one:

a.
Early CPR

b.
Early access

c.
Early defibrillation

d.
Advanced life support and post arrest care

A

Advanced life support and post arrest care

76
Q

Prolonged use of _______ in COPD patients may lead to the reduction in ventilation stimulus

Select one:

a.
Entonox

b.
Methoxyflurane

c.
Salbutamol

d.
Oxygen

A

Oxygen

77
Q

he term “anoxia” refers to

Select one:

a.
Complete lack of carbon dioxide in the body tissue

b.
Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue

c.
Over saturation of carbon dioxide in the body tissue

d.
Over saturation of oxygen in the body tissue

A

Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue

78
Q

When you open an infant’s airway you should

Select one:

a.
use a jaw thrust

b.
Tilt the head back fully

c.
maintain the head in a neutral inline position

d.
Tilt the head forward fully

A

maintain the head in a neutral inline position

79
Q

A cerebrovascular accident often referred to as a stroke, can be caused in two ways. One by a ruptured blood vessel within the brain that accounts for 25% of CVA’s and the other is a/an ___________ within the brain that accounts for the remaining 75%

Select one:

a.
Bleed

b.
Aneurysm

c.
Haemorrhagic

d.
Thrombosis

A

Thrombosis

80
Q

A noticeable blue/grey colouring to the tongue, lips, and nail beds is a sign that the tissues are not being sufficiently oxygenated. This is called

Select one:

a.
pallor

b.
symbiosis

c.
jaundice

d.
cyanosis

A

cyanosis

81
Q

You are attempting to resuscitate a patient in cardiac arrest using a bag-valve-mask and reservoir to provide positive pressure ventilations. With a reservoir bag fitted the BVM will deliverer what oxygen percentage?

Select one:

a.
75 to 85

b.
50 to 75

c.
90 to 100

d.
70 to 80

A

90 to 100

82
Q

When inserting a supraglottic airway the EMT has only ____ attempts of placing the airway

Select one:

a.
2

b.
1

c.
5

d.
3

A

2

83
Q

A patient has collapsed suddenly and has an altered LOC. His airway should be opened by using

Select one:

a.
Head-tilt, chin-lift

b.
the recovery position

c.
jaw thrust

d.
an OPA

A

Head-tilt, chin-lift

84
Q

What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air?

Select one:

a.
79

b.
0.4

c.
16

d.
20

A

16

85
Q

A simple face mask at the proper setting on the flow regulator (6 - 10 litres per minute) can deliver a maximum oxygen concentration of

Select one:

a.
35%

b.
80%

c.
44%

d.
60%

A

60%

86
Q

The indications for the use of aspirin are

Select one:

a.
Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction

b.
Apnoea or Cardiac chest pain

c.
Myocardial Ischemia, in a patient less than 16 years of age

d.
Bronchospasm or Cardiac chest pain

A

Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction

87
Q

Scenario: A 50 year old female patient has chronic bronchitis. The initial assessment finds her breathing at 6 times per minute with an altered mental status; her skin is cool and clammy to touch. Your next action should be to

Select one:

a.
Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute

b.
administer oxygen by nasal cannula at the rate of 15 litres per minute

c.
Place the patient in the up-right position to ease breathing

d.
Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen

A

Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen

88
Q

An obstructive airway disease, characterised by a loss of elasticity to the alveoli and the terminal bronchiole is called

Select one:

a.
Bronchitis

b.
Asthma

c.
Pneumonia

d.
Emphysema

A

Emphysema

89
Q

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children

Select one:

a.
seizures

b.
respiratory arrest

c.
Electric shock from appliances

d.
Heart Disease

A

respiratory arrest

90
Q

The oxygen adjunct of choice for a patient who has been involved in a trauma event and is breathing normally is

Select one:

a.
Non rebreather facemask

b.
BVM, 02 and reservoir bag

c.
Nasal cannula

d.
Venturi mask

A

Non rebreather facemask

91
Q

On arrival at the scene of an accident you find a patient with gurgling sounds coming from her throat and inadequate breathing (6 per min). How do you proceed to protect the airway and support breathing?

Select one:

a.
Open airway, suction and apply a non rebreather facemask

b.
Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use simple face mask

c.
Deal with severe bleeding first

d.
Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O2 at 100%

A

Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O2 at 100%

92
Q

What does ROSC stand for?

What does ROSC stand for?
Select one:

a.
Return Of Standard Circulation

b.
Return of Stimulated Contractions

c.
Return of Spontaneous Circulation

d.
Return of systemic circulation

A

Return of Spontaneous Circulation

93
Q

In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of

In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of
Select one:

a.
Carbon dioxide in inspired air

b.
Oxygen in inspired air

c.
Oxygen in the blood

d.
Carbon dioxide in the blood

A

Oxygen in the blood

94
Q

Exchange of gases takes place in the lungs due to the process of

Select one:

a.
Inspiration

b.
Diffusion

c.
Osmosis

d.
Absorption

A

Diffusion

95
Q

The inability to speak or write because of a brain injury is called

Select one:

a.
Diaphoresis

b.
Aphasia

c.
Dysphagia

d.
Dysgeusia

A

Aphasia

96
Q

What is the ratio of compressions to breaths in an adult patient when two rescuers are available?

Select one:

a.
30:2

b.
5:1

c.
3:1

d.
15:2

A

30:2

97
Q

When suctioning an adult patient, suctioning should be for a maximum of ______ seconds,

Select one:

a.
15

b.
5

c.
30

d.
10

A

15

98
Q

The use of accessory muscles when breathing can be described as?

Select one:

a.
normal breathing

b.
shallow breathing

c.
laboured breathing

d.
noisy breathing

A

laboured breathing

99
Q

Chronic Bronchitis and emphysema are examples of a respiratory disorder, which may cause a condition called

Select one:

a.
Jugular vein distension

b.
Deep vein thrombosis

c.
Pulmonary embolism

d.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

100
Q

What do the letters MEWS stand for

Select one:

a.
Medical emergency warning score

b.
Modified early warning scale

c.
Modified early warning score

d.
Modified emergency warning scale

A

Modified earlywarning score