MCQ 1 Flashcards
Below which SpO2percentage requires the practitioner to administer oxygen in a non-COPD patient
Select one:
a.
98
b.
96
c.
94
d.
99
94
You are performing a primary survey on an unresponsive trauma patient involved in an RTA. When evaluating her chest you note unilateral chest rise, you should
Select one:
a.
Count the breathing rate for 60 seconds
b.
administer entonox for pain relief
c.
inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest
d.
note injury and continue to check circulation
inspect, palpate and auscultate the chest
ormal capillary refill results in the blood returning within _______ seconds
Select one:
a.
Four
b.
Three
c.
Five
d.
Two
Two
Which piece of equipment from the list below is required when taking a patient’s blood pressure by auscultation technique
Select one:
a.
A tourniquet
b.
Astethoscope
c.
Apulse oximeter
d.
A cardiac monitor
Astethoscope
A reading of less than 85% when using a pulse oximeter means that the patient is suffering from which of the following
Select one:
a.
Severe hypothermia
b.
Severe hypoxemia
c.
Mild hypoxemia
d.
Mild hyperthermia
Severe hypoxemia
A sphygmomanometer is used in the measurement of
Select one:
a.
Pupil size
b.
Blood glucose levels
c.
Blood pressure
d.
Temperature
Blood pressure
Normal resting heart rate expected for a newborn infant is
Select one:
a.
75 – 130
b.
60 – 100
c.
70 – 110
d.
90 – 180
90 – 180
When inflating a blood pressure cuff to measure blood pressure by palpation, it should be inflated ______ mmHg above where the last pulse was felt
Select one:
a.
20
b.
10
c.
30
d.
15
30
The normal breathing rate for an adult at rest is
Select one:
a.
12-20 breaths per minute
b.
8-10 breaths per minute
c.
28 - 30 breaths per minute
d.
4 - 6 breaths per minute
12-20 breaths per minute
An assessment tool that measures oxygen in the haemoglobin in the capillary bed’s is called _____
Select one:
a.
A pulse oximeter
b.
Stethoscope
c.
A tympanic thermometer
d.
A blood pressure cuff
pulse oximeter
The Normal pulse rate in an adult at rest is appoximately between _____________ per minute
Select one:
a.
100 - 160
b.
60 - 100
c.
70 - 130
d.
40 - 60
60 - 100
The difference between your systolic and diastolic blood pressure should be approximately 40 mmHg. This is called your ________
Select one:
a.
Pulse
b.
Pulse pressure
c.
Point Pressure
d.
Pressure Point
Pulse pressure
When assessing circulation in an unresponsive patient, the pulse should be palpated in the ______
Select one:
a.
Femoral
b.
Posterior tibial
c.
Carotid
d.
Dorsalis pedis
Carotid
The first set of vital signs that you obtain is known as the
Select one:
a.
primary
b.
baseline
c.
main
d.
trending
baseline
The primary survey should be completed in less then ___ seconds
Select one:
a.
60
b.
10
c.
30
d.
90
Feedback
60
Pulse oximeters are used to measure?
Select one:
a.
pulse rate only
b.
The percentage of oxygen in the patient’s finger
c.
The patient’s distal pulse
d.
The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated
The percentage of haemoglobin that is oxygen saturated
Your transport decision should be made after which component of patient assessment
Select one:
a.
vital signs assessment
b.
Secondary survey
c.
ongoing assessment
d.
Primary survey
Primary survey
The maximum on scene time for life threatening trauma should be
Select one:
a.
As soon as the primary survey is complete
b.
less than 20 minutes
c.
less than 3 minutes
d.
less than 10 minutes
10 minutes
When conducting a primary survey on a patient with obvious significant external bleeding which of the following is the priority?
Select one:
a.
Assess responsiveness
b.
Assess airway
c.
C spine control
d.
Control catastrophic bleeding
Control catastrophic bleeding
When managing a trauma patient with mechanism of injury suggestive of spinal injury you should
Select one:
a.
apply C-spine control only if there are obvious neurological symptoms
b.
wait until CSMs are assessed before decided whether c-spine immobilisation is needed
c.
apply a cervical collar immediately
d.
perform manual C-spine control
perform manual C-spine control
The systematic head to toe examination looking for non life threatening injuries in a patient is part of a
Select one:
a.
primary survey
b.
ongoing survey
c.
secondary survey
d.
scene assessment
secondary survey
You are assessing a patient who has an altered level of consciousness. On approach you find the patient who has their eyes closed responds to your voice by opening their eyes but doesn’t speak. What is the patient’s level on the AVPU score
Select one:
a.
U
b.
P
c.
V
d.
A
V on the A.V.P.U scale
While assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, the patient only responds to a pinch of the earlobe. They are considered to be ___ on the AVPU scale
Select one:
a.
A
b.
U
c.
P
d.
P on the A.V.P.U scale
The skin pigment of a jaundiced patient may appear
Select one:
a.
red
b.
yellow
c.
White
d.
blue
Yellow
A patient who does not respond to any stimulus is considered to be _______________ on the AVPU scale
Select one:
a.
unable to respond
b.
unstable
c.
unconscious
d.
unresponsive
unresponsive
or a patient to be considered alert on the aVPU scale they should be
Select one:
a.
awake
b.
able to walk in a straight line
c.
alert and oriented
d.
sitting up with their eyes open
alert and oriented
Capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of cardiovascular status in which patient group
Select one:
a.
adults
b.
children
c.
pregnancy
d.
geriatrics
children
The elements of AVPU are
Select one:
a.
Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive
b.
Alone, voice, pain, unresponsive
c.
Alert, verbal, pain, unconscious
d.
Alert, verbal, prone, unresponsive
Alert, verbal, pain, unresponsive
The contraction of the abdominal muscles to palpation is a sign of
Select one:
a.
Muscular strain
b.
Cramps in the abdominal muscles
c.
An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining
d.
diarrhoea
An irritation of the abdominal cavity lining
The normal range of blood glucose in an adult patient is
Select one:
a.
4 - 10 mmol/L
b.
4 - 20 mmol/L
c.
4 - 5 mmol/L
d.
2 - 6 mmol/L
4 - 10 mmol/L
The “Q” in the OPQRST mnemonic best relates to which of the questions below
Select one:
a.
When did the problem begin and what caused it
b.
On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your pain
c.
Does anything make it better or worse
d.
What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing
What is the pain like; is it sharp, dull, crushing
The sections of the spinal cord that are most susceptible to injury are the cervical and
Select one:
a.
Coccyx
b.
Sacrum
c.
Thoracic
d.
Lumbar
Lumbar
The three major parts of the brain are the:
Select one:
a.
midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord
b.
cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem
c.
cerebellum, medulla, and occiput
d.
brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord
cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem
The blood vessels that return blood from the head are the
Select one:
a.
Inferior vena cava
b.
Pulmonary veins
c.
Jugular veins
d.
Carotid arteries
Jugular veins
The kneecap (patella) is an example of a
Select one:
a.
Flat bone
b.
Long bone
c.
Sesamoid bone
d.
Short bone
Sesamoid bone
Which of the following structures is part of the respiratory system?
Select one:
a.
Larynx
b.
oesophagus
c.
hepatic artery
d.
hyoid bone
Larynx
The lower chambers of the heart, which are responsible for the main pumping action of the myocardium, are referred to as ________
elect one:
a.
Ventricles
b.
Atria
c.
Septum
d.
Tricuspids
Ventricles
The human skeleton is made up of
Select one:
a.
385 bones
b.
206 bones
c.
310 bones
d.
106 bones
206 bones
Distal CSM’s means
Select one:
a.
CSM’s near the fracture
b.
CSM’s at the fracture site
c.
CSM’s before the fracture
d.
CSM’s past the fracture
CSM’s past the fracture, CSM’s near the fracture
Bones are classified according to their shape: long, short, flat and irregular. An example of an irregular shaped bone is
elect one:
a.
Femur
b.
Vertebrae
c.
Clavicle
d.
Sternum
Vertebrae
The shoulder girdle consists of?
Select one:
a.
Clavicles and the phalanges
b.
Scapulae and the metacarpals
c.
Clavicles and the scapulae
d.
Phalanges and humerus
Clavicles and the scapulae
An example of the hinged joint can be found at the
Select one:
a.
Sacroiliac
b.
Hip
c.
Knee
d.
Shoulder
Knee
Bands of tough, flexible connective tissue which join the articular surfaces of bones are called
Select one:
a.
Muscles
b.
Tendons
c.
Ligaments
d.
Cartilage
Ligaments
The heart is located in
Select one:
a.
The dorsal cavity slightly to the right
b.
The thoracic cavity slightly to the left
c.
The thoracic cavity slightly to the right
d.
The abdominal cavity in the retroperitoneal region
The thoracic cavity slightly to the left
An example of a solid abdominal organ is
Select one:
a.
Small intestine
b.
Bladder
c.
Spleen
d.
Stomach
Spleen
The ______ in your brain is regarded as the control centre for respiration
Select one:
a.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Cerebrum
c.
Midbrain
d.
Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata
The bone distal to the scapula and proximal to the radius and ulna is the
Select one:
a.
Clavicle
b.
Humerus
c.
Carpals
d.
Sternum
Humerus
Which layer forms the outer part of the heart?
Which layer forms the outer part of the heart?
Select one:
a.
Endocardium
b.
Myocardium
c.
Sub endocardium
d.
Pericardium
Pericardium
Electrical impulses that are produced in the spinal cord are transmitted along the ___ nerve to the muscle and cause it to contract
Select one:
a.
Vagal
b.
Motor
c.
Sensory
d.
Phrenic
Motor
The outer most layer of the skin is called
Select one:
a.
Dermis
b.
Subcutaneous
c.
Cutaneous
d.
Epidermis
Epidermis
A pulse, is the transmitted impulse from the contraction of the left ventricle, which can be felt when the artery is
Select one:
a.
passing over a ligament
b.
Midline to a bone and close to a tendon
c.
Anterior to the bone surface and just slightly beneath the muscle
d.
Close to the skin over a bone
Close to the skin over a bone
_______ Blood pressure reflects relaxation of the heart
Select one:
a.
Diastolic
b.
Ejection Fraction
c.
Systolic
d.
Stroke Volume
Diastolic
The elbow is _____ to the shoulder but _____ to the wrist
Select one:
a.
Posterior, Superior
b.
Distal, Proximal
c.
Midline, Lateral
d.
Proximal, Distal
Distal, Proximal
The term used to describe the lower jaw is
Select one:
a.
Maxilla
b.
Mandible
c.
cranium
d.
Zygoma
Mandible
The component of the Central Nervous System which decides how to respond to changing conditions inside and outside of the body is the
Select one:
a.
Peripheral nerves
b.
spinal cord
c.
Sensory nerves
d.
brain
Brain
From the outside layer to the inner, what is the correct sequence of layers of the meninges?
Select one:
a.
Pia mater, Dura mater, Arachnoid mater
b.
Dura mater, Pia mater, Arachnoid
c.
Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater
d.
Pia mater, Arachnoid mater, Dura mater
Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater
The right side of the heart
Select one:
a.
Circulates blood from the heart to the head
b.
Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs
c.
Circulates blood from the head to the lungs
d.
Circulates blood from the heart to the aorta
Circulates blood from the heart to the lungs
The cardio vascular system consists of
Select one:
a.
The heart, liver, arteries, veins, capillaries
b.
The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries
c.
Brain, heart, arteries, veins, blood
d.
Brain, lungs, heart, blood, arteries
The heart, lungs, arteries, veins, capillaries
The largest artery in the body is the
Select one:
a.
femoral artery
b.
carotid artery
c.
hepatic artery
d.
aorta
Aorta
The organs commonly found in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen are
Select one:
a.
Stomach, spleen, large intestine, pancreas
b.
Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas
c.
Liver, spleen, descending colon, small intestine
d.
Liver, stomach, kidney bladder
Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas
The heart is composed of four chambers. They include two atria and two ventricles. The chamber that pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta is the ______ which ejects approximately ___ ml’s of blood per contraction
Select one:
a.
Left ventricle – 70
b.
Right atria – 70
c.
Right ventricle – 120
d.
left atria - 120
Left ventricle – 70
The spine consists of 33 bones, which breaks down into 5 groups. Identify the groups
Select one:
a.
7 cervical; 12 lumbar; 5 thoracic; 4 sacrum; 5 coccyx
b.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar; 6 sacrum; 3 coccyx
c.
5 cervical; 12 lumbar; 7 thoracic, 5 sacrum; 4 coccyx
d.
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx
7 cervical; 12 thoracic; 5 lumbar;5 sacrum; 4 coccyx
Identify the three types of muscular tissue
Select one:
a.
Voluntary, striated, cardiac
b.
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac
c.
Cardiac, smooth, involuntary
d.
Striated, voluntary, skeletal
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac
The amount of air that passes into and out of the lungs in one breath is called
Select one:
a.
Tidal volume
b.
inspiratory reserve volume
c.
minute volume
d.
vital capacity
Tidal volume
The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of
Select one:
a.
spinal cord and pia mater
b.
brain and spinal cord
c.
spinal cord and dura mater
d.
brain and 12 cranial nerves
brain and spinal cord
Where is the Dorsalis Pedis pulse point found?
Select one:
a.
On top of the foot
b.
at the knee
c.
Behind the ankle
d.
in the groin
On top of the foot
There are a number of factors that provide us with a stimulus to breath, one of them being _______ which are situated in the walls of the Aorta and the Carotid
Select one:
a.
chemoreceptors
b.
Baroreceptors
c.
neurotransmitters
d.
Stretch receptors
chemoreceptors
Skeletal muscle has four characteristics, excitability, contractility, extensibility and _______
Select one:
a.
Osseo integration
b.
Automaticity
c.
Elasticity
d.
Elongation
Elasticity
How many spinal vertebrae are there?
Select one:
a.
33
b.
31
c.
30
d.
12
33
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta for each contraction is called
Select one:
a.
Systolic pump pressure
b.
Cardiac pre-load
c.
Stroke volume
d.
Cardiac output
Stroke volume
Which of the following groups of organs all lie within the abdominal cavity
Select one:
a.
Gall bladder, liver and pancreas
b.
Pancreas, vena cava and lungs
c.
Kidneys, spleen and heart
d.
Oesophagus, aorta and lungs
Gall bladder, liver and pancreas
External respiration is the process of carbon dioxide being exchanged for oxygen in your lungs. This takes place in the _________ of the lungs
Select one:
a.
Alveoli
b.
Bronchi
c.
Pleural Cavity
d.
Trachea
Alveoli
Pathology is the study of
Select one:
a.
Dermatomes
b.
disease
c.
Diplopia
d.
Diets
disease
When you arrive on scene, you find an adult patient in cardiac arrest. You should mobilise how many additional responders?
Select one:
a.
3 – 4
b.
1 – 2
c.
5 – 6
d.
None
3 – 4
What is the fifth link in the chain of survival?
Select one:
a.
Early CPR
b.
Early access
c.
Early defibrillation
d.
Advanced life support and post arrest care
Advanced life support and post arrest care
Prolonged use of _______ in COPD patients may lead to the reduction in ventilation stimulus
Select one:
a.
Entonox
b.
Methoxyflurane
c.
Salbutamol
d.
Oxygen
Oxygen
he term “anoxia” refers to
Select one:
a.
Complete lack of carbon dioxide in the body tissue
b.
Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue
c.
Over saturation of carbon dioxide in the body tissue
d.
Over saturation of oxygen in the body tissue
Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue
When you open an infant’s airway you should
Select one:
a.
use a jaw thrust
b.
Tilt the head back fully
c.
maintain the head in a neutral inline position
d.
Tilt the head forward fully
maintain the head in a neutral inline position
A cerebrovascular accident often referred to as a stroke, can be caused in two ways. One by a ruptured blood vessel within the brain that accounts for 25% of CVA’s and the other is a/an ___________ within the brain that accounts for the remaining 75%
Select one:
a.
Bleed
b.
Aneurysm
c.
Haemorrhagic
d.
Thrombosis
Thrombosis
A noticeable blue/grey colouring to the tongue, lips, and nail beds is a sign that the tissues are not being sufficiently oxygenated. This is called
Select one:
a.
pallor
b.
symbiosis
c.
jaundice
d.
cyanosis
cyanosis
You are attempting to resuscitate a patient in cardiac arrest using a bag-valve-mask and reservoir to provide positive pressure ventilations. With a reservoir bag fitted the BVM will deliverer what oxygen percentage?
Select one:
a.
75 to 85
b.
50 to 75
c.
90 to 100
d.
70 to 80
90 to 100
When inserting a supraglottic airway the EMT has only ____ attempts of placing the airway
Select one:
a.
2
b.
1
c.
5
d.
3
2
A patient has collapsed suddenly and has an altered LOC. His airway should be opened by using
Select one:
a.
Head-tilt, chin-lift
b.
the recovery position
c.
jaw thrust
d.
an OPA
Head-tilt, chin-lift
What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air?
Select one:
a.
79
b.
0.4
c.
16
d.
20
16
A simple face mask at the proper setting on the flow regulator (6 - 10 litres per minute) can deliver a maximum oxygen concentration of
Select one:
a.
35%
b.
80%
c.
44%
d.
60%
60%
The indications for the use of aspirin are
Select one:
a.
Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction
b.
Apnoea or Cardiac chest pain
c.
Myocardial Ischemia, in a patient less than 16 years of age
d.
Bronchospasm or Cardiac chest pain
Cardiac chest pain or suspected Myocardial infarction
Scenario: A 50 year old female patient has chronic bronchitis. The initial assessment finds her breathing at 6 times per minute with an altered mental status; her skin is cool and clammy to touch. Your next action should be to
Select one:
a.
Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute
b.
administer oxygen by nasal cannula at the rate of 15 litres per minute
c.
Place the patient in the up-right position to ease breathing
d.
Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen
Assist respirations with artificial ventilations and supplemental oxygen
An obstructive airway disease, characterised by a loss of elasticity to the alveoli and the terminal bronchiole is called
Select one:
a.
Bronchitis
b.
Asthma
c.
Pneumonia
d.
Emphysema
Emphysema
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children
Select one:
a.
seizures
b.
respiratory arrest
c.
Electric shock from appliances
d.
Heart Disease
respiratory arrest
The oxygen adjunct of choice for a patient who has been involved in a trauma event and is breathing normally is
Select one:
a.
Non rebreather facemask
b.
BVM, 02 and reservoir bag
c.
Nasal cannula
d.
Venturi mask
Non rebreather facemask
On arrival at the scene of an accident you find a patient with gurgling sounds coming from her throat and inadequate breathing (6 per min). How do you proceed to protect the airway and support breathing?
Select one:
a.
Open airway, suction and apply a non rebreather facemask
b.
Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use simple face mask
c.
Deal with severe bleeding first
d.
Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O2 at 100%
Open airway, suction, insert OPA, use BVM with O2 at 100%
What does ROSC stand for?
What does ROSC stand for?
Select one:
a.
Return Of Standard Circulation
b.
Return of Stimulated Contractions
c.
Return of Spontaneous Circulation
d.
Return of systemic circulation
Return of Spontaneous Circulation
In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of
In a condition known as hypoxic drive the patients breathing mechanism is triggered by the low amount of
Select one:
a.
Carbon dioxide in inspired air
b.
Oxygen in inspired air
c.
Oxygen in the blood
d.
Carbon dioxide in the blood
Oxygen in the blood
Exchange of gases takes place in the lungs due to the process of
Select one:
a.
Inspiration
b.
Diffusion
c.
Osmosis
d.
Absorption
Diffusion
The inability to speak or write because of a brain injury is called
Select one:
a.
Diaphoresis
b.
Aphasia
c.
Dysphagia
d.
Dysgeusia
Aphasia
What is the ratio of compressions to breaths in an adult patient when two rescuers are available?
Select one:
a.
30:2
b.
5:1
c.
3:1
d.
15:2
30:2
When suctioning an adult patient, suctioning should be for a maximum of ______ seconds,
Select one:
a.
15
b.
5
c.
30
d.
10
15
The use of accessory muscles when breathing can be described as?
Select one:
a.
normal breathing
b.
shallow breathing
c.
laboured breathing
d.
noisy breathing
laboured breathing
Chronic Bronchitis and emphysema are examples of a respiratory disorder, which may cause a condition called
Select one:
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Deep vein thrombosis
c.
Pulmonary embolism
d.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
What do the letters MEWS stand for
Select one:
a.
Medical emergency warning score
b.
Modified early warning scale
c.
Modified early warning score
d.
Modified emergency warning scale
Modified earlywarning score
