Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flashcardlet > MCAT Biology Flashcards > Flashcards

MCAT Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Peptide Hormones of anterior Pituitary (testies of the brain)

A

Porlactin (sparta), hGH (growth, lipid & carb. metabolism), beta-endorphin (nno pain!), Adrenocorticotropic hormone (secretion of the gluco- mineralo- & sex-coticoids),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Glycoprotein Hormones of anterior Pituitary (testies of the brain)

A

TSH (stim. Thyroid hormoes), FSH (Growth of sex, Red Week d3 & primary spermatocytosis, acts with LH), Lutenizing H (Leydig cells - Testosterone, Red week),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

prolactin. (peptide)

A

300 Functions (sparticus!) Pituitary. Peptide hormone. Stim. Milk production & Reg. Immune function. Cell Cycle growth- differentation - antiapoptotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Testosterone. Source?

A

Testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

epinephrine. Function?

A

sympathetic stress response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Prolactin. Source?

A

Anterior Pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glucocorticoids. Source?

A

Adrenal Cortex. Steroid. Metabloism of Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Oxytocin. Action?

A

milk letdown, uteral contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

somatostatin

A

delta cells of pancreas, stomach, intestine. Inhibit hGH, inhibit TSH - suppress gastrointestional hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hGrowth Hormone. Source?

A

Anterior Pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

aldosterone

A

mineralocorticoid, secreted in the adrenal cortex, acts on distal convoluted tubule of kidney to promote sodium-potassium exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

glucagon

A

peptide hormone. Pancreas, alpha cells. More blood glucose!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

progesterone (steroid). Action?

A

Menstration, pregnancy, embryogenesis. Mineralcort. Recept. Antagonist - Sperm homing signal (ca++, CatSper)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T3, T4

A

Tyrosine-based. Follicular cells of thyroid - Iodine required (goitre). Increase basal metabolic rate! Protein sysn. & long bone growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thyroid Hormones (T4, T3). Source?

A

Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Factor

A

Powerful vasodilator (peptide); secreted byatrial myocytes; targets kidney and increases urination to decrease blood pressure. Reduce H20, Na+, K+, Adipose on circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

glycogen

A

multibranched polysaccharide polymer that serves a storage form of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

estrogen (steroid)

A

Secreted in the follicle, prevents maturation of more than one follicle at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

calcitonin (peptide)

A

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid, reduces blood calcium concentration, inhibits the normal process of bone resorption, inhibits renal tubular cell reabsorption of Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what increases blood [glucose]?

A

glucagon, epinepherin, cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ADH

A

Retain and Constrict! Water absorption by kidney - collecting duct & distal convoluted tubule; increased blood pressure (always digging holes aquaporin-CD channels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Oxytocin. (peptide)

A

Stimulates uterine contractions during labor, milk secretion during lactation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mineralocorticoids. (steroid)

A

Salt and Water balanceIncreases water absorption in kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

parathyroid hormone (peptide)

A

produced in parathyroid glands in responce to low blood calcium, increases bone resorption and consequent calcium release, increases intestinal calcium uptake, and promotes calcium reuptake at the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) (peptide)

A

released by hypothalamus. Stress response. Stimulates the pituitary to secrete ACTH - metabolism & parturition (pregancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what regulates [Ca++]?

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hGH

A

Growth of nearly all cells (human growth hormone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Thyroid Hormones (T4, T3). Action?

A

Stimulates metabolic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do peptide hormones act?

A

via secondary messengers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

secreted by the anterior pituitary, stimulates the growth follicle, surge causes ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

epinephrine (amino acid derivative)

A

adrenal medulla. Sympathetic stress response (rapid). Heart rate, blood vessel & air passage diameter, metabolic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Estrogens

A

Growth of mother sex organs; causes LH surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Melatonin. Action?

A

Unclear in humans… thought to have possible roles in circadian rhythms, as antioxidant, in immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PP: oxytocin (peptide)

A

targets the breast to influence milk letdown. Also targets the uterus to influence contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

FLAT PEG?

A

Fsh, Lh, Acth, Tsh, Pro, End, Gh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Source?

A

Anterior Pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

3 effects of aldosterone

A
  1. to increase urinary excretion of potassium 2.to increase interstitial sodium concentration 3. to increase water conservation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

AP: luteinizing hormone (LH) (peptide and gonadotropic)

A

effects ovary and ovulation.effects testes and testosterone synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do steroid hormones act?

A

via a hormone/receptor binding to DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

EP- glucagon (alpha cells secrete) (peptide)

A

increase blood glucose and decrease glycogen and fat storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

melatonin

A

pineal, unclear to humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

thyroid hormone

A

thyroid, stimulates metabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

lutenizing hormone

A

anterior pituitary, stimulates testosterone release in males and ovulation in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

mineralcorticoids

A

adrenal cortex, increase water reabsorption in kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Testosterone

A

TESTES: male characteristics; spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

insulin

A

pancreaslowers blood glucose and storage of glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

erythropoiletin

A

kidneystimulates bone marrow to increase production of erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

atrial natriuretic hormone

A

heartinvolved in osmoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Thymosin

A

THYMUS: is involved in T-cell development during childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Milk production and letdown

A

Oxytocin and Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Regulation of Ca

A

Parathyroid hormone and Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Regulation of blood glucose

A

Insulin and Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

follicle stimulating hormone

A

anterior pituitarystimulates follicle stimulation in femalesspermatogenisis in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

thyroid stimulating hormone

A

anterior pituitarystimulates the release of thyroid hormones from thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Regulation of [Ca2+]

A

Parathyroid hormone and Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Growth hormone

A

anterior pituitary; Promotes bone and muscle growth; inhibits uptake of glucose by some cells; Stimulates breakdown of fatty acids; Stimulated by GHRH and inhibited by somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> ADRENAL GLAND: increases growth and secretory activity of adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Erythropoeitin

A

KIDNEY -> BONE MARROW: increases RBC synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

adrenal medullaincrease blood glucose level and heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Luteinizing hormone

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> OVARY/ TESTES: ovulation or testosterone synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

atrial natriuretic peptide

A

heart; involved in osmoregulation and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor

A

HEART -> KIDNEY: increases urination to decrease blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Hormones that increase blood [glucose]

A

Glucagon (polypeptide derivative), Epinepherine (amino acid derivative), Cortisol (steroid / glucocorticoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> ADRENAL GLAND: increases growth and secretory activity of adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Thyroid hormones (T3, T4)

A

thyroid; Necessary for growth and neurological development in children; Increase rate of cellular respiration and rate of protein and fatty acid synthesis/degradation; High levels inhibit TRH and TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)

A

HEART -> KIDNEY: increases urination to decrease blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Releasing and Inhibiting Factors (peptides)

A

Gland: HypothalamusTarget: Anterior pituitaryEffect: Modify activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Growth Hormone (GH) (peptide)

A

Gland: Anterior pituitaryTarget: N/AEffect: INCREASE bone & muscle growth & cell turnover rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Prolactin (peptide)

A

Gland: Anterior pituitaryTarget: Mammary glandsEffect: Milk production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) (peptide)

A

Gland: Anterior pituitaryTarget: ThyroidEffect: Tropic; INCREASE synthesis & release of TH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) (peptide)

A

Gland: Anterior pituitaryTarget: Adrenal glandEffect: INCREASE growth & secretory activity of adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Luteinizing Hormone (LH) (peptide)

A

Gland: Anterior pituitaryTarget: Ovary / TestesEffect: Ovulation / Testosterone synthesis; gonadotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) (peptide)

A

Gland: Anterior pituitaryTarget: Ovary / TestesEffect: Follicle development / Spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH/vasopressin) (peptide)

A

Gland: Hypothalamus / Posterior pituitaryTarget: KidneyEffect: Water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Oxytocin (peptide)

A

Gland: Posterior pituitaryTarget: Uterus / BreastEffect: Contraction / Milk ejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Thyroid Hormone (TH, thyroxine) (amino acid deriv.)

A

Gland: ThyroidTarget: N/AEffect: Child: physical & mental developmentAdult: INCREASE metabolic rate & temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Calcitonin (peptide)

A

Gland: Thyroid / Thyroid cellsTarget: Bone / KidneyEffect: LOWERS [Ca2+] via 1) into bone, 2) decrease reabsorb. by gut, 3) excrete in urineInhibits osteoclast activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) (peptide)

A

Gland: ParathyroidsTarget: Bone / Kidney / Small intestineEffect: Raises [Ca2+] via OPPOSITE of calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Thymosin (children only) (peptide)

A

Gland: ThymusTarget: N/AEffect: T cell development during childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Epinephrine (modified amino acid)

A

Gland: Adrenal medullaTarget: N/AEffect: Sympathetic stress response (rapid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Cortisol (“glucocorticoid”) (steroid)

A

Gland: Adrenal cortexTarget: N/AEffect: Long-term stress response; INCREASE blood glucose & protein catabolism; DECREASE inflammation & immunity; etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Aldosterone (“mineralcorticoid”) (steroid)

A

Gland: Adrenal cortexTarget: KidneyEffect: INCREASE [Na+] reabsorption to inc. blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Sex Steroids

A

Gland: Adrenal cortexTarget: N/AEffect: Only impor. when adrenal tumor overproduces these, causing masculinization or feminization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Insulin (via β cells) (peptide)

A

Gland: Endocrine pancrease (islets of Langerhans)Target: N/AEffect: DECREASE blood glucose; INCREASE glycogen & fat storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Glucagon (via α cells) (peptide)

A

Gland: Endocrine pancreas (islets of Langerhans)Target: N/AEffect: INCREASE blood glucose; DECREASE glycogen & fat storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Somatostatin (via SS-δ cells) (peptide)

A

Gland: Endocrine pancreas (islets of Langerhans)Target: N/AEffect: INHIBITS many digestive processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Testosterone (steroid)

A

Glands: TestesTarget: N/AEffect: Male characteristics, spermatogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Estrogen (steroid)

A

Gland: Ovaries / PlacentaTarget: N/AEffect: Female characteristics, endometrial growth, ossify the epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Progesterone (steroid)

A

Gland: Ovaries / PlacentaTarget: N/AEffect: Endometrial maturation, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) (peptide)

A

Gland: HeartTarget: KidneyEffect: INCREASE urination to dec. blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Erythropoietin (peptide)

A

Gland: KidneyTarget: Bone marrowEffect: INCREASE RBC synthesis when blood O2 falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

PTH (hormone)

A

Bone: Stimulate osteoclast activityKidneys: INCREASE reabsorb. of [Ca2+]; stim. vitamin D -> calcitrolGut: Indirectly INCREASE [Ca2+] absorbtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Calcitriol

A

Kidneys: INCREASE reabsorb. of phosphorusGut: INCREASE rabsorb of [Ca2+]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Diastereoisomers

A

Nonidentical sugars within same family (both are ketoses/aldoses and have same number of carbons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Conversion of Fischer projection to Hawthorne projection

A

Any group on right points down; any group on left points up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Reducing sugar

A

Any monosaccharide with hemiacetal ring (-OH on C-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Alpha anomer

A

Has the OH group of the C-1 trans to CH2OH substituent (pointing down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

D configurations

A

Positive rotations; hydroxyl group of the highest number chiral center on the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation

A

pH = pKa + log ((conjugate base) / (conjugate acid))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

pH = pI

A

Titration curve is vertical; added equal amounts of amino acid and base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Prosthetic groups

A

Major roles in determining protein function; lipids in lipoproteins; carbs in glycoproteins; nucleic acids in nucleoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Aldose

A

Aldehyde sugar; gluceraldehyde is simplest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Beta anomer

A

Has the OH group of the C-1 cis to CH2OH substituent (pointing up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Mutarotation

A

Spontaenous opening and reformation of hemiacetal rings when exposed to water; alpha or beta anomer can be formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

pH = pKa

A

Solution is in a buffer zone; titration curve is horizontal; deprotonated and protonated species in equal concentrations; buffering capacity max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Amino acid properties

A

All optically active due to chiral alpha carbon (except glycine); all L-enantiomers; drawn with amino group on left; all have S configurations (except cysteine); exist as internal salts in neutral pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Aldonic acids

A

Oxidized aldoses; when hemiacetal ring is in open chain aldehyde form it is oxidized to carboxylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Amphoteric

A

Species that act as both a base and an acid depending on the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Furanose rings

A

Five membered rings formed from five carbon aldoses or six carbon ketoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Glycoside

A

Acetal formed as a result of alcohol combining with hemiacetal monosaccharide in acidic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Tollen’s reagent

A

Reduction of Ag+ to form metallic silver; detects presence of reducing sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Sugar enantiomers

A

Same sugars in different optical familes (D-glucose and L-glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Pyranose Rings

A

Six membered rings; formed from six carbon aldoses or seven carbon ketoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Anomers

A

Cyclic stereoisomers that differ about the new chiral carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Glycosidic linkage

A

C-O bond between alcohol and hemiacetal monosaccharide formed under acidic conditions; most common glycosidic linkage between two monosaccharides between 1’ and 4’ positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Epimers

A

Diastereomers that differ at only one chiral center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Anomeric carbon

A

Carbon that becomes chiral in a sugar ring; carbon attached both to the oxygen in the ring and a hydroxide group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Polysaccharides

A

Cellulose, starch and glycogen; composition of D-glucose monosaccharides linked by 1,4’-beta-glycosidic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Benedict’s reagent

A

Indicates presence of reducing sugar; red precipitate of Cu2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Alpha carbon in Amino acid

A

Between amine and carbonyl group; chiral except in glycine;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Ketose

A

Ketone sugar; dihydroxyacetone is simplest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Denaturation

A

Melting; destroys tertiary structure of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Conjugated proteins

A

Function from covalently attached molecules called prosthetic groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Enthalpy (H)

A

The sum of the internal energy of the system plus the product of the pressure of the gas in the system and it’s volume: ΔH=ΔΕ-PΔV H=total energy of the system; E= bond energy of products or reactants in a system; P=pressure; V=volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

ATP

A

Adenosine Triphosphate - considered the most important potential energy storage molecule in cells. Stores energy in the ester bonds between it’s phosphate groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Gibbs Free Energy ΔG=ΔH-TΔS

A

This is a practical way to discuss thermodynamics. A change in available energy is equal to the change in enthalpy (total energy of the system) plus the product of absolute temperature (Kelvin) and change in Entropy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Celsius to Kelvin conversion:

A

K=C+273

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Entropy (S)

A

A measure of disorder or randomness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Exergonic Reaction

A

Energy outward, proceeds with a net release of free (available energy). Because chemical mixture loses free energy, G decreases and G is negative for exergonic reactions. These are spontaneous reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Endergonic Reaction

A

Is a reaction that absorbs free energy from it’s surroundings. This reaction essentially stores free energy in molecules (G Increases) ΔG=positive. Endergonic reactions are nonspontaneous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

A cell does 3 main kinds of work:

A

Chemical work - pushing of endergonic reactions that would not occur spontaneously. Transport Work - pumping of substances across membranes against direction of spon. movement. Mechanical Work - beating of cilia, contractions of muscle cells, movement of chromosomes during cellular reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Spontaneous Processes

A

ΔGs own without outside help it must increase the entropy of the universe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Is the trend of the universe more towards entropy or order?

A

Entropy. Think of room of people moving around giving off heat (this adding to the entropy of the universe).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The rate determining step in a reaction sequence is:

A

The step with the highest activation energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

For a system to put out heat:

A

There must be a temperature difference that results in the heat flowing from a warmer location to a cooler one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

ΔG (change in “free”/available energy)

A

G=the portion of a system’s energy that can perform work when temperature and pressure are uniform throughout the system, as in a living cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

First law of thermodynamics

A

States that energy of the universe is constant, energy can only be transferred and transformed, but never created or destroyed. Implies that when energy of a system decreases, the energy of the rest of the universe must increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Second law of thermodynamics

A

States that the entropy of the universe tends to increase. For a process to occur spontaneously it must increase the entropy of the universe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

2 types of energy

A

Heat energy - movement of molecules. Potential Energy - energy stored in chemical bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Exothermic Reactions

A

Reactions with a negative ΔH, these reactions liberate heat. Most metabolic reactions are exothermic (this is how homeothermic organisms such as mammals maintain a constant body temperature.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Endothermic Reactions:

A

Reactions with a positive ΔH require an input of heat and are called endothermic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Equilibrium

A

The point where the rate of reaction in one direction equals the rate of reaction in the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Anaphase

A

sister chromatids separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

apoenzymes

A

enzymes without their cofactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Perioxysomes

A

are ubiquitous organelles in eukaryotes that participate in the metabolism of fatty acids and other metabolites. They have enzymes that rid the cell of toxic peroxides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Genes

A

Coding regions of genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Coarse Adjustment Knob

A

Focuses the image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Chloroplasts

A

Contain chlorophyll and are responsible for the generation of energy using water, carbon dioxide and sunlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

autoradiography

A

2nd technique (among microscopy, &centrifugation to examine cells) uses radioactive molecules to trace. use to study protein synthesis: labeling amino acids with radioactive isotopes. used to study mech of DNA & RNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

hydrogenosomes

A

is a membrane-bound organelle of ciliates, trichomonads and fungi which produces molecular hydrogen and ATP. This organelle is thought to have most likely evolved from mitochondria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

cisterna

A

comprises a flattened membrane disk which makes up the Golgi apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Budding

A

equal replication followed by unequal cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Endocytosis

A

process whereby the cellular membrane invaginates and engulfs material into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Endothermic reaction

A

one that requires energy input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Histones

A

Organizing proteins that wind linear DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Spindle fibers

A

made from microtubules; radiates outward from centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

oxygen

A

final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, resulting in the formation of a water molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Metaphase

A

chromosomes align at the equatorial plate, which is equidistant to the two poles of the spindle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Centrifugation

A

3rd method for examining cells (microscopy&autoradiography) Spinning down test tubes at high speeds to fractionate cells based on density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Prokaryotes

A

-Simplest of all organisms-Include all bacteria-Cell wall does not enclose any membrane-bound organelles-Genetic material is contained in a single circular molecule of DNA reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Cajal body

A

are spherical sub-organelles found in the nucleus of proliferative cells like tumor cells, or metabolically active cells like neurons. In such cells they are bound to the nucleolus by coilin proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

axoneme

A

is the inner cytoskeletal structure of eukaryotic cilia or flagella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

microfilament

A

are the thinnest filaments of the cytoskeleton found in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells. These linear polymers of actin subunits are flexible and relatively strong.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

plastid

A

are major organelles found in plants and algae responsible for photosynthesis, storage of products like starch and for the synthesis of many classes of molecules such as fatty acids and terpenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

38 ATP

A

Prokaryotic ATP production per glucose molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Chymotrypsin

A

Cleaves peptide bonds around the amino acids phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine in a variety of polypeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Enzyme-substrate complex

A

Complex between the enzyme and substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition

A

inhibitor binding to an allosteric site instead of the active site, which induces a change in enzyme conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Diaphragm

A

Controls the amount of light passing through the specimen which is important for image control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Nucleolus

A

Subsection of the nucleus where the ribosomal RNA is synthesized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

nuclear lamina

A

is a dense fibrillar network composed of intermediate filaments made of lamin that lines the inner surface of the nuclear envelope in animal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

actin

A

is the protein which serves as the monomeric subunit of microfilaments, one of the three major components of the cytoskeleton, and of thin filaments which are part of the contractile apparatus in muscle cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Carbohydrates

A

sugar polymers that can be broken down during digestion and then stored in the liver for later use in a polysaccharide form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Cell division

A

Process whereby a cell replicates its DNA, doubles its organelles and cytoplasm and then splits into 2 daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

phase contrast microscope

A

permits the study of living cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

Made of 3 types of proteins: actin filaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Induced fit theory (stress ball)

A

enzyme fits the substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

tubulin

A

is one of several members of a small family of globular proteins. The most common members this family are the proteins which makes up microtubules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

undulipodium

A

is a general term for a 9+2 organelle containing a microtubule array such as eukaryotic flagella and cilia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Interphase

A

Consists of the G1, S, G2 and M phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

G2 phase (postsynthetic gap)

A

final stage before cell division; quality control; make sure that there are enough organelles and cytoplasm to make two new daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Active Transport

A

net movement of a solute against its concentration gradient; requires energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

2 types of cofactors

A

-small metal ions-small organic groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum (shipping department)

A

-Responsible for proper production and sorting of materials from the cell-Two types: smooth and rough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Cell Theory

A
  1. All living things are composed of cells2. The cell is the basic functional unit of life3. Cells arise only from preexisting cells4. Cells carry genetic info in the form of DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Facilitated Diffusion (Passive transport)

A

simple diffusion for molecules that need help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

CoQ10

A

a vitamin that is found in the inner mitochondrial membrane of the cell and helps make ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Effects of pH

A

Enzymes function properly when this is optimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

topogenic sequence

A

is a segment of a protein that ensures it acquires the proper orientation during its insertion into the endoplasmic reticulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Binary Fission

A

seen in bacteria, this is a type of asexual production in which a single DNA molecule attaches itself to the cell membrane and duplicates itself to while the cell itself grows in size; the cell then invaginates or pinches inward to create two identical daughter cells; results in two cells of equal size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Nucleus (city hall and public library)

A

**commonly tested on MCAT-Control center of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Allosteric sites

A

the active site is present as well as at least one other site that can regulate the availability of the active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

nuclear export signal

A

is a short amino acid sequence of 5-6 hydrophobic residues in a protein that targets it for transport from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pore complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

3 key phases in cellular respiration

A
  1. pyruvate decarboxylation2. citric acid cycle3. electron transport chain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Telencephalon

A

The cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Replication

A

The duplication of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

M-line

A

The center of the sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Lipoprotein

A

Large conglomerations of proteins, fats, and cholesterol that transport lipids in the bloodstream. (chylomicrons are a type of lipoprotein).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

MHC

A

Major Histocompatability complex, a set of proteins found on the plasma membranes of cells that help display antigen to T cells. MHC I is found on all cells and displays bits of proteins from within the cell; this allows T cells to monitor cell contents and if abnormal peptides are displayed on the surface, the cell is destroyed by killer T cells. MHC II is found only on macrophages and B cells. This class of MHC allows these cells (known as antigen presenting cells) to display bitts of “eaten” (phagocytosed or internalized) proteins on their surface, allowing the activation of helper Ts –> thus further activating immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

ENZYME-SUBSTRATE COMPLEX

A

enzyme bound to substrate

202
Q

Lamellae

A

Concentric circles of bony matrix which surround the Haversian canal

203
Q

LH

A

stimulates ovulation and estrogen in females and testosterone secretion in males

204
Q

Operator

A

A specific DNA nucleotide sequence where transcriptional regulatory proteins can bind.

205
Q

Phosphofructokinase

A

The enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to form fructose-1-6-bisphosphate in the third step of glycolysis. This is the main regulatory step of glycolysis. PFK is feedback-inhibited by ATP.

206
Q

Submucosa

A

The layer of connective tissue directly under the mucosa of an open body cavity.

207
Q

Each nucleotide contains one nitrogenous base that is either a ______ or _______

A

purine, pyrimidine

208
Q

Macrophage

A

A large, non-sepcific, phagocytic cell of the immune syste. Macrophages frequently leave the bloodstream to crawl around in the tissues and perform ‘clean up’ duties, such as ingesting dead cells or cellular debris at an injury site, or pathogens.

209
Q

Amphipathic

A

The characteristics of amolecule that has both polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar hydrophobic) regions, e.g. phospholipids, bile, etc.

210
Q

FADH2

A

The reduced from (carries electrons) of FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide). this is the other main electron carrier in cellular respiration (NADH is the most common).

211
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

Sperm production; occurs in human males on a daily basis from puberty until death. Spermatogenesis results in the production of four mature gametes (sperm) from a single precursor cell (spermatogonium). For maximum sperm viability, spermatogenesis requires cooler temperatures and adequate testosterone.

212
Q

Serum

A

Plasma with the clotting factors removed. Serum is often used in diagnostic tests because it does not clot.

213
Q

Microfilament

A

The cytoskeleton filaments with the smallest diameter. Microfilaments are composed of the contractile protein actin. They are dynamic filaments, constantly beig made and broken down as needed, and are responsible for events such as pseudopod formation and cytokenesis during mitosis.

214
Q

Kin selection

A

Organisms behave altruistically if they are closely related to successfully reproducing organisms

215
Q

Atria

A

Thin walled chambers of the heart (blood is received in these)

216
Q

Endoskeleton

A

Skeleton which is internal to the organism, supporting framework of animals

217
Q

AUG

A

List the coding sequence for start codon

218
Q

Natural selection

A

The mechanism described by Charles Darwin that drives evolution. Through mutation, some organisms possess genes that make them better adapted to their environment. These organisms survive and reproduce more than those that do not possess the beneficial genes, thus these genes are passed on to offspring, making the offspring better adapted. Over time, these genes (and the organisms that possess them) become more abundant, and the less beneficial genes (and the organisms that possess them) become less abundant.

219
Q

Formed elements

A

The cellular elements of blood; erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

220
Q

Endotoxin

A

A normal component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. Endotoxins produce extreme immune reactions (septic shock), particularly when many of them enter the circulation at once.

221
Q

Prolactin

A

A hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary that tarets the mammary glands stimulating them to produce breastmilk.

222
Q

Krebs cycle

A

The third stage of cellular respiration, in which acetyl-CoA is combined with oxaloacetate to form citric acid. The citric acid is then decarboxylated twice and isomerized to recreate oxaloacetate. In the process, 3 molecules of NADH, 1 molecule of FADH2, and 1 molecule of GTP are formed (per acetyl-CoA)

223
Q

Sister chromatid

A

Identical copies of a chromosome, produced during DNA replication and held together at the centromere Sister chromatids are separated during anaphase of mitosis.

224
Q

Testcross

A

A genetic cross between an organism displaying a recessive phenotype (homozygous recessive) and an organism displaying a dominant phenotype (for whic the genotype is unknown), done to determine the unknown genotype.

225
Q

Tetanus

A

when the frequency of stimulation is very fast and individual contractions fuse and the muscle smoothly and fully contracts

226
Q

Jejunum

A

The middle (approximtely 40%) of the small intestine.

227
Q

Reflex arc

A

A relatively direct connection between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron that allows an extremely rapid response to a stimulus, often without conscious brain involvement.

228
Q

Orgasm

A

A function of the reproductive system controlled by the sympathetic nervous system. In males, organs includes emission and ejaculation; in females it is mainly a series of rhythmic contraction of the pelvic floor muscles and the uterus.

229
Q

Diffusion

A

The movement of a particle (the solute) in a solution from its region of high concentration to its region of low concentration ( or down it concentration gradient).

230
Q

Centromere

A

A structure near the middle of eukaryotic chromosomes to which the fibers of the mitotic spindle attach during cell division.

231
Q

Chromosome

A

A single piece of double-stranded DNA; part of the genome of an organism. Prokaryotes have circular chromosomes and eukaryotes have linear chromosomes.

232
Q

Acetyl-CoA

A

The first substrate in teh Krebs cycle, produced primarily from the oxidation of pyruvate by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, however acetyl-CoA is also produced during fatty acid oxidation and protein catabolism.

233
Q

5’ cap

A

a methylated guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA. The cap is necessary to initiate translation of mRNA

234
Q

Binary fission

A

An asexual method of bacterial reproduction that serves only to increase the size of the population; ther is no introduciton of gnetic diversity. THe bacterium simply grows in size until it has doubled its cellular components, then it replicates its genone and splits into two.

235
Q

Darwin’s Natural Selection Theory

A

Organisms produce offspring; variations may be inheritable and if have survival advantage will be favorable; increase in these traits through natural selection

236
Q

ZYMOGEN; PROENZYME

A

enzymes in their inactive form; irreversible changed by other enzymes or environmental changes

237
Q

Latent period

A

Initial period of the simple twitch (time between reaching threshold and onset of contraction); followed by contraction period and relaxation period

238
Q

b-glucose

A

a anomer of glucose where the hydroxyl group and the methoxy groups are on the same side (cis). Only bacteria break down beta linkages.

239
Q

Mitosis

A

The phase of the cell cycle during which the replicated genome is divided. Mitosis has four phases (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase) and includes cytokinesis (the physical splitting of the cell into two new cells).

240
Q

Endocrine system

A

A systme of ductless glands taht secrete chemical messengers (into) the blood - has to be into the blood.

241
Q

Oval window

A

The membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear.

242
Q

Loose connective tissue

A

Connective tissue that lacks great amount of collagen or elastic fibers (hence, loose), e.g., adipose tissue and areolar (general connective) tissue.

243
Q

Leukocyte

A

A type of white blood cell; leukocytes are either B or T cells and are involved in disease defense.

244
Q

Secondary immune response

A

A subsequent immune response to previously encountered antigen that results in antibody production and T cell activation. The secondary immune response is mediated by memory cells (produced during the primary immune respone) and is much faster and stronger than the rpimary response, typicaly taking only a dya or less. THis is not long enough for the infection to become established, and symptoms do not appear, thus the person is said to be “immune” to that particular antigen.

245
Q

Testes

A

The primary male sex organ. The testes are suspended outside the body cavity in the scrotum and have two functions (1) produce sperm, and (2) secrete testosterone.

246
Q

At what age do first molars appear?

A

6-7 years

247
Q

Cytosine

A

One of the four aromatic bases found in DNA and RNA. Cytosine is a pyrimidine; it pairs with guanine.

248
Q

Artery

A

A blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart chambers. Arteries have muscular walls to regulate blood flow and are typically high-pressure vessles.

249
Q

Bohr effect

A

The tendency of certain factors to stablize the hemoglobin in the tense conformation, thus reducing its affinity for oxygen and enhancing the relase of oxygen to the tissues. The factors include increased PCO2, increase temperature, increased bisphosphoglycerate (BPG), and decreased pH. Note that the Bohr effect shifts the oxy-hemolobin saturation curve to the right.

250
Q

Crossing over

A

The exchange of DNA between paired homologus chromosomes (tetrads) during prophase I of meiosis.

251
Q

Erythropoietin

A

A hormone produced and released by the kidney that stimulates the production of red blood cells by the bone marrow.

252
Q

Nucleolus

A

A region within the nucleus where rRNA is transribed and ribosomes are partially assembled.

253
Q

Mutualism

A

A form of symbiosis in which both organisms involved benefit from the association.

254
Q

Trophoblast

A

The outer ring of cells of a blastocyst. The trophoblast takes part in the formation of the placenta.

255
Q

Enteric nervous system

A

The nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract. It controls secretion and motility within teh Gi tract, and is linked to the central nervous system.

256
Q

LIPID (6)

A

any biological molecules that has low solubility in water and high solubility in nonpolar organic solvents: Phospholipids, Glycolipids, Fatty Acids, Triacyglycerols, Steroids, Terpenes

257
Q

Citric acid cycle

A

Series of 8 reactions that extracts energy from Acetyl-CoA by combining with oxaloacetate, regenerating oxaloacetate in the process. Produces 6 NADH, 2 ATP, 2 FADH2 from 2 Pyruvate

258
Q

frameshift mutation

A

result of deletion or insertion in the DNA that is not a multiple of 3.

259
Q

Frontal Plane

A

A vertical plane that passes from side to side; it is at right angles to the midsagittal plane and cuts the specimen into anterior and posterior components

260
Q

Gastrulation

A

the division of the inner cell mass of a blastocyst (developing embryo) into the three primary germ layers. Gastrulation occurs during weeks 2-4 of gestation.

261
Q

Plasma cell

A

An activated B cell that is secreting antibody.

262
Q

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

A

A tropic hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland that targets the gonads. In females LH triggers ovulation and the development of a corpus luteum during the menstrual cycle; in males, LH stimulates the production and release of testosteron.

263
Q

Rule of multiplication

A

A statistical rule stating that the probability of two independent events occuring together is the product of their individual probabilities.

264
Q

Transition mutation

A

A point mutation in which a pyrimidine is susbstituted for a pyrimidine, or a purine is substituted for a purine.

265
Q

Upsteam

A

Toward the 5’ end of an Rna transcript (the 5’ end of the DNA coding strand). The promoter and start sites are upstream.

266
Q

Anterioir pituitary gland

A

Also known as the adenohypophysis, the anterior pituitary is made of gland tissue and makes and secretes six different homrones: FSH, LH, ACTH, prolactin, TSH, and growth hormone. The anterior pituitary is controlled b yreleasing and inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus.

267
Q

Tropic hormone

A

A hormone tha tcontrols the release of another hormone.

268
Q

Epididymis

A

A long, coiled duct on the outside of the testis in which sperm mature.

269
Q

Functional synctium

A

A tissue in which the cytoplasms of the cells are connected by gap junctions, allowing the cells to function as a unit. Cardiac and smooth muscle tissues are examples of functional synctiums.

270
Q

Sertolli cells

A

Cells that form the walls of the seminiferous tubules and help in spermatogenesis Sertoli cells are also called susenacular cells.

271
Q

POSITIVE COOPERATIVITY

A

when the first substrate binds to the enzyme and makes a conformational change allowing substrates to bind more easily

272
Q

Macula densa

A

The cells of the distal tubule at the juxtaglomerular apparatus. They are receptors that monitor filtrate osmolarity as a means of regulatin filtration rate. If a drop is osmolarity is sensed, the macula densa dilates the afferent arteriole (to increase the blood pressure in the glomerulus and thus increase filtration) and stimulates the juxtaglomerular cells to secrete renin (to raise systemic blood pressure).

273
Q

Loop of Henle

A

The loop of the nephron that dips downward into the renal medulla. The loop of Henle sets up a concentration gradient in the kidney such that from the cortex to the renal pelvis osmolarity increases. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water, but not to sodium whereas the ascending limb is permeable to sodium, but not to water (and in fact, actively transports sodium out of the filtrate).

274
Q

Which teeth do children lack?

A

premolars and one set of molars

275
Q

Organ of Corti

A

The structure in the cochlea of the inner ear made up of the basilar membrane, the auditory hair cells, and the tectorial membrane. The Organ of Corti is the site where auditory sensation is detected and transduced to action potentials.

276
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Gaps in the myelin sheath of the axons of peripheral neruons. Action potentials can ‘hump’ from node to node, thus increasing the speed of conduction (saltatory conduction).

277
Q

How can nucleotides be designated?

A

The letter code plus the letter code for the number of phosphates

278
Q

Estrogen

A

SteroidGland: Ovaries/placentaTarget/Effect: female characteristics, endometrial growth

279
Q

anaphase I

A

separates homologues

280
Q

Progesterone

A

SteroidGland: Ovaries/placentaT/E: endometrial secretion, pregnancy

281
Q

The start codon is…

A

AUG

282
Q

Sex Steroids

A

SteroidGland: Adrenal CortexTarget/Effect: not normally important, but an adrenal tumor can overproduce these, causing masculinization or feminization

283
Q

Cortisol

A

The principal glucocorticoid secreted from teh adrenal cortex. This steroid hormone is released ruing stress, causing increased blood glucose levels and reducing inflammation. The latter effect has led to a clinical use of cortisol as an anti-inflammatory agent.

284
Q

Villi

A

(Singular:villus). Folds of the intestinal mucosa that project into the lumen of the intestine; vili serve to increase the surface area of the intestine for absorption.

285
Q

hCG

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone secreted by the trophoblast cells of a blasocyst (i.e. developing embryo) that prolongs the life of the corpus luteum, and thus increases the duration and amount of secreted progesterone. This helps to maintain the uterine lining so that menstruation does not occur. The presence of hCG in the blood or urine of a woman is used as a positive indicator of pregnancy.

286
Q

G0

A

nongrowing state, causes differences in length of cell cycle

287
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

a term for glycogen breakdown.

288
Q

What is a Fillial Generation?

A

Progeny

289
Q

Osteoclast

A

A phagocytic-like bone cell that breaks down bone matrix to release calcium and phosphate into the bloodstream.

290
Q

Operator

A

A specific DNA nucleotide sequence where transcriptional regulatory proteins can bind.

291
Q

Catalase

A

The primary enzyme in peroxisomes; catalse catalyzes the hydrolysis of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into water and oxygen.

292
Q

Sarcomere

A

The unit of muscle contraction. Sarcomeres are bounded by Z lins, to which thin filaments attach. Thick filaments are found in the center of the sarcomere, overlapped by thin filaments over one another during contraction reduces the distance between Z lines, shortening the sarcomere.

293
Q

Intron

A

A nucleotide sequence that intervenes between protein-coding sequences. In DNA, these intervening sequences typically contain **regulatory sequences, however, in RNA they are simply spliced out to form the mature (translated) transcript.

294
Q

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

A

The prokaryotic ribosome-binding site on mRNA, found 10 nucleotides 5’ to the start codon.

295
Q

Regulation of gene expression occurs at the level of…

A

transcription

296
Q

histones

A

dna wrap around these globular proteins

297
Q

lipid

A

biological molecule that has low solubility in water

298
Q

telophase I

A

nuclear envelope may reform, cytokinesis may happen (if happens => secondary spermatocytes/oocytes, in female one of oocytes is first polar body and degenerates)

299
Q

Glycolysis

A

anaerobic splitting of a glucose molecule into 2 pyruvic acid molecules, producing 2 net ATP and 2 NADH molecules. First step in cellular respiration.

300
Q

Follicle Stimuating Hormone (FSH)

A

PeptideGland: Ant. Pit.Target/Effect: ovary/follicle development, testes/spermatogenesis

301
Q

Yeast

A

Asexual reproduction occurs by budding (small cell pinches from larger one)Unicellular fungus

302
Q

tight junctions

A

membranes of neighboring cells are attached and the cells are bound together so tightly that no material can pass between the cells or travel past the junction- forming a total barrier to transport and diffusion

303
Q

Exclusion

A

The removal ( and usually the activation) of a viral genome from its host’s genome.

304
Q

Natural selection

A

The mechanism described by Charles Darwin that drives evolution. Through mutation, some organisms possess genes that make them better adapted to their environment. These organisms survive and reproduce more than those that do not possess the beneficial genes, thus these genes are passed on to offspring, making the offspring better adapted. Over time, these genes (and the organisms that possess them) become more abundant, and the less beneficial genes (and the organisms that possess them) become less abundant.

305
Q

Flagella

A

A long, whip-like filament that helps in cell motility. Many bacteria are flagellated, and sperm are flagellated.

306
Q

Fibrinogen

A

A blood protein essential to blood clotting. The conversion of fibrinogen to its active form (fibrin) is among the final steps in clot formation, and is triggered by thrombin.

307
Q

Cilia

A

A hair-like structure on teh cell surface composed of microtubules ina ‘9+2’ arrangement (nine pairs of microtubles surrounding 2 single microtubules in the center). Teh microtubules are conneted with a contractile protien called dynein. Cilia beat in a repetitive sweeping motion, which helps to move substances along the surface of the cell. They are particularly important in the respiratory system, where they sweep mucus out of the trachea and up to the mouth and nose.

308
Q

Vagal tone

A

The constant inhibition provided to the heart by the vagus nerve. Vagal tone reduces the intrinsic firing rate of teh SA node from 120 beats/minute to around 80 beats/minute.

309
Q

Cecum

A

The first part of the large intestine.

310
Q

Tight junction

A

Also called occluding junctions, tight junctions form a seal between cells that prevents the movement of substances across the cell layer, except by diffusion through the cell membranes themselves. Tight junctions are found between the epithelial cells lining the intestines and between the cells forming the capillaries in the brain (the blood-brain barrier).

311
Q

Tropomyosin

A

A helical protein that winds around actin helices in skeletal and cardiac muscle cells to form the thin filament of the sarcomere. In the absence of Ca2+, tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin and prevents muscle contraction. When calcium is present, a conformation change in tropomyosin occurs so that the myosin-binding sites are exposed and muscle contraction can occur.

312
Q

Induction

A

The process by which neighboring cells can influence the determination (and subsequent differentiation) of a cell.

313
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

A highly specific cellular uptake mechanism. The molecule to be taken up must bind to cell surface receptor found in a clathrin-coated pit.

314
Q

Retina

A

The innermost layer of the eyeball. The retina is made up of a layer of photoreceptors, a layer of bipolar cells, and a layer of ganglion cells.

315
Q

Primase

A

An RNA polymerase that creates a primer (made of RNA) initiate DNa replication. DNA pol binds to the primer and elongates it.

316
Q

Liver

A

The largest organ in the abdominal cavity. The liver has many roles, including procesing of carbohydrates and fats, synthesis of urea, production of blood proteins, production of bile, recycling heme, and storage of vitamins.

317
Q

Prophase

A

The first phase of mitosis. During prophase the replicated chromosomes condense, the spindle is formed, and the nuclear envelope breaks apart into vessicles.

318
Q

Homozygous

A

A genotype in which two identical alleles are possessed for a given gene. The allelles can both be dominant (homozygous dominant) or both be recessive (homozygous recessive)

319
Q

Oxaloacetate

A

A four-carbon molecule that binds with the two-carbon acetyl unit of acetyl-CoA to form citric acid in the first step of the Krebs cycle.

320
Q

Heterozygous

A

A genotype in which two different alleles are possessed for a given gene.

321
Q

Amylase

A

An enzyme that digests starch into disaccharides. Amylase is secreted by salivary glands and by the pancreas.

322
Q

Analogous structures

A

Physical structures in two different organism that have funcitonal similarity due to their evoluntion in a common environment, but have different underlying structure. Analogous structures arise from convergent evolution.

323
Q

5’ cap

A

a methylated guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNA. The cap is necessary to initiate translation of mRNA

324
Q

competitive inhibitors

A

compete with substrate, looks alike, decrease affinity, overcome with more substrate conc

325
Q

nondisjunction

A

when chromosome does not split during anaphase I or II (if does not split in anaphase I, one cell have 2 extra chromatids, and other missing chromosome) (if does not split in anaphase II, one cell have one extra chromatid and one cell lacking one)

326
Q

denatured

A

protein unfolded due to pH or temp

327
Q

NADH

A

the reduced form of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide). Most common electron carrier in cellular respiration.

328
Q

Somatostatin (SS-gamma cells secrete

A

PeptideGland: Endocrine Pancreas (SS-gamma cells)Target/Effect: Inhibits many digestive processes

329
Q

What is penetrance?

A

Percentage of individuals in population carrying allele and actually express its associated phenotype.

330
Q

Division

A

Plants and Fungi are separated into divisions, not phyla

331
Q

Thermoreceptor

A

A receptor that responds to changes in temperature.

332
Q

Myofibril

A

A string of sarcomeres with a skeletal muscle cell (hence smaller than myofiber). Each muscle cell contains hundreds of myofibirils.

333
Q

Myofiber

A

A skeletal muscle cell, also known as a muscle fiber. Skeletal muscle cells are formed from the fusion of many smaller cells (during development) consequently they are very long and are multinucleate.

334
Q

Lactic acid

A

Produced in muscle cells from the reduction of pyruvate (under anaerobic conditions) to regenerate NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue. A rise in lactic acid usually accompanies an increase in physical activity.

335
Q

Ligand

A

The specific molecule that binds to a receptor.

336
Q

Large intestine

A

The final phase of the digestive tract, also called the colon. The primary funcion of the large intestine is to reabsorb water and to store the feces.

337
Q

Signal sequence

A

A short sequence of amino aids, usually found at the N-terminus of a protein being translated, that directs the ribosome and its associated mRNa to the membranes of the rough ER where trasnlation will be completed. Signal sequences are found on membrane-boudn proteins, secreted proteins, and proteins destined for other organelles.

338
Q

Secretory phase

A

The third phase of the uterin (endometrial) cycle, during which the rebuilt endometrium is enhanced with glycogen and lipid stores. The secretory phase is primarily under the controll of progestone and estrogen (secreted from the copus luteum during this time period), adn typically lasts from day 15 to day 28 of the menstrual cycle.

339
Q

Systolic pressure

A

The pressure measured in the arteries during contraction of the ventricles (during systole).

340
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors

A

Receptors in the carotid arteries and the aorta that monitor blood pH to help regulate ventilation rate.

341
Q

Aorta

A

The largest artery in teh body; the aorta carries oxygenated blood away from the left ventricle of the heart.

342
Q

F1 generation

A

The first generation of offspring from a given genetic cross.

343
Q

Creatine Phosphate

A

An energy storage molecule used by muscle tissue. The phosphate from creatine phosphate can be removed and attached to an ADP to generate ATP quickly.

344
Q

Basement membrane

A

A layer of collagen fibers that separates epithelial tissue from connective tisse (example of epithelial cells in digestive tract) - they are actual connective tissue.

345
Q

Gram-positive bacteria

A

Bacteria that have a thick peptido glycan cell wall, and no outer membrane. They stain very darkly (purple) in Gram stain.

346
Q

primary transcript

A

RNA right after transcription from DNA => modified in 3 ways 1) addition of 5’ GTP cap 2) removal of introns via snRNPs 3) addition of poly A tail

347
Q

Reduction

A

to remove oxygen, add hydrogen, or add electrons to a molecule.

348
Q

In pedigrees, how are affected individuals represented? Carriers?

A

Shaded, half shaded

349
Q

Electrical Synapse

A

Found in cardiac and visceral smooth muscle cell - composed of gap junctions

350
Q

Is exhalation active?

A

exhalation is usually PASSIVE but it can be ACTIVE (during strenuous activity, internal intercostal muscle contract)

351
Q

Aqueous humor

A

A thin, watery fluid found in teh anterior segment of the eye (between the lens and the cornea). THe aqueous humor is constantly produced and drained, adn helps to bring nutrients to the lesn and corena, as well as to remove metabolic wastes

352
Q

Law of Segregation

A

Mendels’ first law. The Law of Segregation states that the two alleles of a given gene will be separate from one another during gamete formation (meiosis).

353
Q

Portal systems

A

A system of blood vessels where the blood passes from arteries to capillaries to veins, then through a second set of capillaries, and then through a final set of veins. THere are two portal systems in the body, the hepatic portal system and the hypothalamic portal system.

354
Q

A band

A

The band of the sarcomere that extends the full length of the thick filament. The A band includes regions of thick and thin filament overlap, as well as a region of thick filament only. A bands alternate with I bands to give skeletal and cardiac muscle a striated apperance. The A band does not shorten during muscle contraction.

355
Q

Seondary active transport

A

Active transport that releies on an established concentration gradient, typically set up by a primary active transporter. Secondary active transport relies on ATP indirectly.

356
Q

Haploid organism

A

An organism that has only a single copy of its genome in each of its cells. Haploid organisms possess no homolous chromosomes.

357
Q

Distal convoluted tubule

A

The portion of the nephron tubule after the loop of Henle, but before teh collecting duct. Selective reabsorption and secretion occur here, most notably regulated reabsorption of water and sodium.

358
Q

Anterioir pituitary gland

A

Also known as the adenohypophysis, the anterior pituitary is made of gland tissue and makes and secretes six different homrones: FSH, LH, ACTH, prolactin, TSH, and growth hormone. The anterior pituitary is controlled b yreleasing and inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus.

359
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

An enzyme that polymerizes a strand of DNA by reading an RNA template (an RNA dependent DNa polymerase); used by retrovirus in order to integrate their genome with the host cell genome.

360
Q

Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

A region of specialized cardiac muscle cells in the right atrium of the heart that initiate the impules of heart contraction; for this reason the SA node is knownas the ‘pacemaker’ of the heart.

361
Q

Obligate anaerobe

A

An organism that can only survive in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic metabolism); oxygen is toxic to obligate anaerobes.

362
Q

Fertilization

A

The fusion of a sperm with an ovum during sexual reproduction. Fertilization typically occurs in the uterine tubes and requires capacitation of the sperm and relase of the acrosomal enzymes. Fertilization is a species-specific process, requiring binding of a sperm protein to an egg receptor.

363
Q

Optic nerve

A

The nerve extending from the back of teh eyeball to teh brain that carries visual information. The ptic nerve is made up of the axons of the ganglion cells of the retina.

364
Q

Maternal inheritance

A

Genes that are inherited only from the mother, such as mitochondrial genes (all organelles come only from the ovum).

365
Q

Northern blotting is…

A

the same as Southern blotting except with RNA

366
Q

primary spermatocyte/oocyte

A

right after S phase of interphase (in females, division arrested here until puberty) => just before ovulation, primary oocyte undergoes first mitotic division to become secondary oocyte => sperm compels into anaphase II

367
Q

Iris

A

Colored CirclePortion of the eye that circle opening called pupil - made of circular and radial muscleIn dark environment, sympathetic nervous system contracts the iris which dilate the pupil and allow more light to enterin bright environment, parasympathetic nervous system contracts the circular muscle of the iris, constricting pupil and screening out light

368
Q

Nodes of Raveir

A

Tiny gap between myelin - action potentials jumps from one node to next and is called saltatory conduction

369
Q

Common bile duct

A

The duct that carries bile from the gallbladder and liver to the small intestine (duodenum).

370
Q

Diploid organism

A

An organism that has two copies of its genome it each cell. The paired genomes are said to be homologous.

371
Q

Sex-linked rait

A

A triat determined by a gen on either the X or Y chromosomes (the sex chromosomes).

372
Q

Slow block to polyspermy

A

Also known as the cortical reaction, the slow block invovles an increase in intracellular [Ca2+] in the egg, which causes the release of cortical granules near the egg plasma membrane. This results in the hardening of the zona pellucida and its separation from the surface of the egg, preventing the entry of more than one sperm into the egg.

373
Q

Fast block to polyspermy

A

The depolarization of the egg plasma membrane upon fertilization, designed to prevent the entry of more than one sperm into the egg.

374
Q

function of an enzyme

A

globular protein that acts as a catalyst by lowering the activation energy and increasing the rate of the reaction; they are not consumed nor permanently altered by the reaction; they do not alter the equilibrium of the reaction

375
Q

Motor (efferent) neurons

A

signal to muscle or gland – located ventrally – abdomen side of spinal cord

376
Q

Long bones grow by which type of ossification?

A

endochondroal- (legs, arms)Cartilage first, then bone replaces the cartilage. vs intra= directly from cells NO cartilage template

377
Q

When should a sex-linked gene be suspected in a pedigree?

A

When only males are affected

378
Q

Cellular respiration equation

A

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 –> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

379
Q

During inhalation what are the events the occur?

A
  1. the DIAPHRAM contracts and flattens out, increasing the side of the chest cavity.2. the EXTERNAL INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES contract… moving the rib cage UP and OUT
380
Q

What are the units of recombination frequency?

A

1 map unit, which = 1% recombinant frequency

381
Q

How are blood types an example of codominance?

A

IaIa or Iai give Type AIbIb or Ibi give Type Bii gives Type OBUTIaIb gives Type AB, which is a combination (NOT blend) or characteristics of A&B

382
Q

Hypophysis

A

The pituitary gland.

383
Q

recombinant DNA

A

spliced DNA

384
Q

Chondrocyte

A

A mature, cartilage cell.

385
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

respiration without oxygen

386
Q

Erythropoietin

A

PeptideGland: KidneyT/E: Bone marrow/ Increase RBC synthesis

387
Q

Semen

A

An alkaline, fructose-rich fluid produced by three different glands in the male reproductive tract and released during ejaculation. Semen is very nourishing for sperm.

388
Q

Meninges

A

The protective, connective tissue wrapping of the central nervous system (the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater).

389
Q

EPSP

A

Excitatory postsynaptic potential; a slight depolarization of a postsynaptic cell, bringing the membrane potential of that cell closer to the threshold for an action potential.

390
Q

Phospholipid

A

The primary membrane lipid. Phospholipids consist of a glycerol molecule esterified to two fatty acid chains and a phosphate molecule. Additional, highly hyrohpilic groups are attached to the phosphate, making this molecule extremely amphipathic.

391
Q

Kinase

A

An enzyme that phosphorylates something else. Kinases are frequently used in regulatory pathways, phosphorylating other enzymes.

392
Q

Phenotype

A

The physical characterisitcs resulting from the genotype. Phenotypes are usually described as dominant or recessive.

393
Q

operon

A

operator, promoter, genes => prokaryote

394
Q

Enzyme

A

A physiological catalyst. Usually proteins although some RNAs have catalytic activity.

395
Q

Glycoproteins

A

Carbohydrate portions protrude toward outside of cells

396
Q

Microfilament

A

The cytoskeleton filaments with the smallest diameter. Microfilaments are composed of the contractile protein actin. They are dynamic filaments, constantly beig made and broken down as needed, and are responsible for events such as pseudopod formation and cytokenesis during mitosis.

397
Q

Plasmid

A

A small, extrachromosomal (outside the genome), circular DNA molecule found in prokaryotes.

398
Q

Edema

A

Swelling of tissues, sometimes caused by inflammation letting into many white blood cells (decreasing oncotic pressure at the end of the capillaries & not letting as much water back into capillaries & staying in tissues).

399
Q

Intercalcated discs

A

The division between neighboring cardiac muscle cells. Intercalcated discs include gap junctions, which allow the cells to function as a unit.

400
Q

Insulin

A

A peptide hormone produced and secreted by the Beta cells of the pancreas. Insulin targets cells in the body, especially the liver and muscle, and allows them to take glucose out of gthe blood (thus lowering blood glucose levels).

401
Q

Innate immunity

A

General, non-specific protection to the body, including the skin (barrier), gastric acid, phagocytes, lysozyme, and complement.

402
Q

Gametogenesis

A

The formation of haploid gametes (sperm or ova) via meiosis.

403
Q

Submucosa

A

The layer of connective tissue directly under the mucosa of an open body cavity.

404
Q

Substrate(s)

A

The reactants in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme.

405
Q

Acetylcholine (Ach)

A

The neurotransmitter used throughout the parasympathetic nervous system as well as the neuromuscular junction.

406
Q

gene mutation

A

alteration of DNA nucleotide sequence

407
Q

Krebs

A

before starting, pyruvate => acetyl CoA; produces 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2 (substrate level phosphorylation)

408
Q

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

A

enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to form fructose-1-6-biphosphate in third stepp of glycolysis. Main regulatory step in glycolysis. Feedback inhibited by ATP.

409
Q

Endospore

A

Formed by some gram positive bacteria

410
Q

Cell membrane is ______ly charged compared to the cytosol

A

positively

411
Q

Tendon

A

Strong bands of connective tissue that connect skeletal muscle to bone.

412
Q

Formed elements

A

The cellular elements of blood; erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

413
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

Movement of a hydrophilic molecuel across the plasma membrane of a cell, down its concentration gradient, through a channel, pore, or carrier molecule in the membrane. Because the hydrophilic nature of the molecule, it requires a special path through the lipid bilayer.

414
Q

Urea

A

A waste product of protein dbreakdown, produced by the liver and relased into the bloodstream to be eliminated by the kidney.

415
Q

Choroid

A

The darkly pigmented middle layer of the eyeball, found between teh sclera (outer layer) and the retina (inner layer).

416
Q

Channel protein

A

An integral protein that selectively allows molecules across the plasma membrane. See also entries under ‘ion channel’, ‘voltage-gated channel’, and ‘ligand-gated channel’.

417
Q

Coccus

A

A bacteria having a round shape (plural = cocci)

418
Q

Nucleus

A

An organelle bounded by a double membrane (double lipid bilayer) called the nuclear envelope. The nucleus contains the genome and is the site of replication and transcription.

419
Q

T tubules

A

Also called transverse tubules, these are deep invaginations of the plasma membrane found in skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. These invaginations allow depolarization of the membrane to quickly penetrate to the interior of the cell.

420
Q

Conjugation

A

A form of genetic recombination in bacteria in which plasmid and/or genomic DNA is transferred from one bacterium to the toher through a conjugation bridge.

421
Q

Rectum

A

The final portion of the large intestine.

422
Q

Repolarization

A

The return of membrane potential to normal resting values after a depolarization of hyperpolarization.

423
Q

Lysozyme

A

An enzyme that lyses bacterial cell walls. Lysozyme is produced in the end stages of the lytic cycle so that new viral particles can escape their hosst; it is also found in human tears and human saliva.

424
Q

Homologous structures

A

Physical structures in two different organisms that have structural similarity due to a common ancestor, but may have different functions. Homologous structures arise from divergent evolution.

425
Q

Hematocrit

A

The percentage of wholeblood made up of erythrocytes The typical hematocrit value is between 40-45%.

426
Q

Microvilli

A

Microscopic outward folds of the cells lining the small intestine; microvilli serve to increase the surface area of the small intestine for absorption.

427
Q

Spleen

A

An abdominal organ that is considered part of the immune system. THe spleen has four functions: (1) it filters antigen from the blood (2) it is the site of B cell maturation, (3) it stors blood, and (4) it destroys old red blood cells.

428
Q

Splicing

A

One type of eukaryotic mRNA processing in which introns are removed from the primary transcript and exons are ligated together. SPlicing of transcripts can be different in different tissues.

429
Q

Spirochete

A

A bacterium having a spiral shape (plural = spirochetes)

430
Q

Metaphase

A

The secon phase of mitosis. During metaphase chromosomes align at the center of the ell (the metaphase plate).

431
Q

Oxidation

A

To attach oxygen, to remove hydrogen, or to remove electrons from a molecule.

432
Q

Autosome

A

A chromosome that does not determine gender (is not a sex chromosome). Humans have two sex chromsomes and 22 autosomes.

433
Q

glycolipids

A

same as phospholipids except have one or more carbohydrates attached to glycerol backbone

434
Q

lyase

A

addition of one substrate to double bond

435
Q

secondary structure

A

motifs like a-helix and b-pleated sheet

436
Q

Releasing and Inhibiting Factors (Peptides)

A

Gland: HypothalamusTarget/Effect: anterior pituitary/modify activity

437
Q

Bacterial Flagella

A

Long hollow rigid helical cylinder made from globular proteins called flagellin and is used for motion

438
Q

All preganglion neurons of ANS and post ganglionic neurons of parasympathetic system – use _________ as a nerotransmiter

A

Acetyacholine

439
Q

Thecal cells

A

A layer of cells surroudning the granulosa cells of the follicles in an ovary. Thecal cells help produce the estrogen secreted from the follicle during the first phase of the ovarian cycle.

440
Q

Loose connective tissue

A

Connective tissue that lacks great amount of collagen or elastic fibers (hence, loose), e.g., adipose tissue and areolar (general connective) tissue.

441
Q

Uterus

A

The muscular femal organ, in which a baby develops during pregnancy.

442
Q

Thrombus

A

A blood clot that forms in an unbrokened blood vessel. Thrombi are dangerous they can break free and begin travelin in the bloodstream (become an embolus). Emboli ultimately become stuck in a small vessel and prevent adequate blood delivery to tissues beyond the sticking point, leading to tissue death. A brain embolism cna lead to stroke, a heart embolism to a heart attack, and a pulmonary embolism to respiratory failure.

443
Q

Thin filament

A

In skeleta and cardiac muscle tissue, a filament composed of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin. Thin filaments are attached to teh Z lines of the sarcomers and slide over thick filaments during muscle contraction.

444
Q

Leak channel

A

An ion channel that is constitutively open, allowing the movement of teh ion across the plasma membrane according to its concentration gradient.

445
Q

Proprioreceptor

A

A receptor that responds to changes in body position, such as stretch on a tendon, or contraction of a muscle. These receptor allow us to be consciously aware of the position of our body parts.

446
Q

Restriction endonuclease

A

A bacterial enzyme that recognizes a specific DNA nucleotide sequence and that cuts the double helix at a specific site within the sequence.

447
Q

Replication bubbles

A

Multiple sites of replication found on large, linear eukaryotic linear eukaryotie chromosomes.

448
Q

Osteon

A

The unit of combact bone, also called a Haversian system. Osteons are essentially long cylinders of bone; the hollow center is called the central canal, and is where blood vessels, nervs, and lymphatic vessels are found. Compact bone is laid down around the central canal in rings (lamellae).

449
Q

Oval window

A

The membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear.

450
Q

Parietal cells

A

Cells found in gastric glands that secrete hydrochloric acid (for hydrolysis of ingested food) and gastric intrinsic factor (for absorption of vitamin B-12).

451
Q

Peptide bond

A

The bond formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

452
Q

Polyspermy

A

The fertilization of an oocyte by more than one sperm. This occurs in some animals, but in humans, blocks to polyspermy exist (the fast block and the slow block) so that only a single sperm can penetrate the oocyte.

453
Q

Appendix

A

A mass of lymphatic tissue at the befenning of the large intestine that helps trap ingested pathogens.

454
Q

Follicle

A

A developing oocyte and all of its surrounding (supporting) cells.

455
Q

Cell surface receptor

A

An integral membrane proteint hat binds extracellular signaling molecules, suchas hormones and peptides.

456
Q

Active transport

A

The movement of molecules through the plasma membrane against their concentration gradients. Active transport requires input of cellular energy, often in the form of ATP. An example is the Na+/K+ ATPase in the plasma membrane of all cells.

457
Q

insertion/deletion

A

if not multiple of 3 causes frameshift mutation

458
Q

Competitive Inhibitor

A

an enzyme inhibitor that competes with substrate for binding at the active site of enzyme. When inhibitor is bound, no product can be made.

459
Q

Define codominance.

A

When multiple alleles exist for a given gene and more than 1 is dominant.When 2 dominant alleles present, phenotype is result of simultaneous expression of both alleles.

460
Q

somatic nervous system

A

primarily respond to external environment (sensory and motor functions)its motor only innervates muscletheir cell bodies are located on ventral horns of spinal cord and use acetylcholine to synapse directly on effectors (muscle)

461
Q

Microtubules

A

Contain protein tubulin13 of the filaments (tubulin is normally globular but is straightend to form microtubules) lie alongside each other to form a tubule (spiral appearance is due to two types of tubulin used (alpha and beta))Forms mitotic spindle, flagellum and cilium

462
Q

Renal tubule

A

The portion of the nephron after the glomerulus and apsule; the region of the nephron where the filtrate is modified along its path to becoming urine.

463
Q

Productive cycle

A

A life cycle of animal viruses in which the mature viral particles bud from the host cell, acquiring an envelope (a coating of lipid bilayer) in the process.

464
Q

Proximal convoluted tubuel

A

The first portion of the nephron tubuel after the glomerulus. THe PCT is the site of most reabsorption; all filtered nutrients are reabsorbed here as well as most of the filtered water.

465
Q

Prophase I

A

The first phase of meiosis I. During prophase I the replicated chromosomes condense, homologous chromsomes pair up, crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes, the spindle is formed, and the nuclear envelope breaks apart into vesicles. Prophase I is the longest phase of meiosis.

466
Q

Cortex

A

The outer layer of an organ, e.g. the renal cortex, the ovarian cortex, the adrenal cortex, etc.

467
Q

Sertolli cells

A

Cells that form the walls of the seminiferous tubules and help in spermatogenesis Sertoli cells are also called susenacular cells.

468
Q

Skeletal muscle

A

Muscle tissue that is attached to the bones. SKeletal muscle is striated multinucleate, and under voluntary control.

469
Q

Auditory tube

A

The tube that connects the middle ear acity with the pharynx; also known as the Eustachian tube. Its fucntion is to equalize midle ear pressure with atmospheric pressure so that pressure on boths sides of the tympanic membrane is the same.

470
Q

Retrovirus

A

A virus with an RNA genome (e.g. HIV) that undergoes a lysogenic life cycle in a host with a double stranded DNA genome. In order to integrate its genome with the host cell genome, the virus must first reverse trasncribe its RNA genome to DNA.

471
Q

Allele

A

A version of a gene. For example, the gene may be for eye color, and the allels include those for brown eyes, those for blu e eyes, those green eyes, etc. At most, dploid organsims can posses only two alleles for a given gene, one on each of the two homologous chromosomes.

472
Q

Vagus nerves

A

Cranial nerve pair X. The vagus nerves are very large mixed nerves (They carry both sensory input and motor input) that innervate virtually every visceral organ. They are especially important in transmitting parasympathetic input to the heart and digestive smooth muscle.

473
Q

Integral membrane protein

A

A protein embedded in the lipid bilayer of a cell. These are typicallly cell surface receptors, channels, or pumps.

474
Q

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

A

a group of three anzymes that decarboxylates pyruvate, creating an acetyl group and carbon dioxide. The acetyl group is then attached to coenzyme A to produce acetyl-CoA, a substrate in Krebs cycle. In the process, NAD+ is reduced to NADH. The second stage of cellular respication.

475
Q

Fungal Growth Phase

A

Consists of tangled mass (called mycelium) of multiple branched threadlike structures called hyphaeHaploid life cycle predominates most of the timeHaploid spores give rise to new mycelia in sexual reproduction

476
Q

Connective tissue

A

One of the four basic tissue types in the body (epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous). Connective tissue is a supportive tissue consisting of a relatively few cells scattered among a great deal of extracellular material (matrix), and includes adipose tissue (fat), bone, cartilage, the dermis of teh skin, tendons, ligaments, and blood.

477
Q

Long bone

A

The most common class of bone in the body, long bones have a well-defined shaft (the diaphysis) and two well-defined ends (the epiphyses).

478
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

The 28 days of the menstrual cycle as they apply to events in the ovary. The ovarian cycle has three subphases: the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase.

479
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

One of the four basic tissue types in the body (epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous). Epithelial tissue is a lining and covering tissue (e.g. skin, the lining of the stomach and intestines, the lining of the urinary tract, etc. ) or a glandular tissue (e.g. the liver, the pancreas, the ovaries, etc.)

480
Q

triacylglycerols (triglycerids, fats, oils)

A

have 3 carbon backbone called glycerol attached to three fatty acids

481
Q

Ribosomes:

A

Prokaryotes - 30S and 50S - 70S combined

482
Q

of subunits

A

Eukaryotes - 40S and 60S - 80S combined

483
Q

Lymphatic system

A

A set of vessels in the body that runs alongside the vessels of the circulatory system. It is a one-way system, with lymphatic capillaries beginning at the tissues and ultimately emptying into the large veins near the heart. It serves to return excess tissue fluid (lymph) to the circulatory system, and filters the fluid through millions of white blood cells on its way back to the heart.

484
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

Cross where parents differ in 2 traits

485
Q

If the F1 generation of a PP x pp cross is self-crossed, what will be the F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios?

A

Genotype: 1:2:1 (1PP:2Pp:1pp)Phenotype: 3:1 (3 purple:1 white)

486
Q

If gene X and gene Y have a recombinant frequency of 8%, and gene X and gene Z recombine 12% of the time, what are the possible distances between genes Y & Z?

A

4 or 20 map units

487
Q

G Cell

A

Secretes gastrin

488
Q

DNA polymerase

A

Removes nucleotidesautomatic proofreaderrepairs mismatch nucleotidesTherefore, DNA replication is fast and accurate

489
Q

cortisol

A

made: adrenal cortexeffects: stimulates gluconeogenesis in liver, degrades adipose tissue for energy, diminishes immune response

490
Q

NUCLEIC ACID

A

complex, high-molecular-weight biochemical macromolecule composed of nucleotide chains that convey genetic information like DNA and RNA

491
Q

cellulose

A

glucose polymer w/beta linkages, found in plants. not digestable by animals.

492
Q

glucagon

A

made: pancreaseffects: raise blood glucose levels, by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in liver. Also breaks down adipose tissue. (fat)

493
Q

Progesterone

A

made: ovarieseffect: prepares and maintaines uterus for pregnancy

494
Q

CONTROL PROTEINS

A

activate or inactivate enzymes

495
Q

CONJUGATED PROTEINS

A

proteins with non-proteinaceous groups

496
Q

Translation

A

Process of protein synthesis directed by mRNAnucleus -> cytosol (mRNA)anticodon (tRNA)makes ribosome (rRNA)

497
Q

phospholipids

A

glycerol backbone, 2 fatty acids, phosphate group. Amphipathic and used to build membranes.

498
Q

Placenta hormones

A

HCG, (Estrogens, Progesterone… in addition to ovaries).

499
Q

pancreas

A

located near kidneyboth endo and exocrine gland.releases insulin and glucagon.

500
Q

inflammation

A

dilation of blood vessels, increased capillary permeability, swelling of tissue cells, migration of macrophages and granulocytes to inflamed area. Impedes spread of infection.

Flashcardlet (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions