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Flashcardlet > MCAT Biology Flashcards 2 > Flashcards

MCAT Biology Flashcards 2

1
Q

Which enzyme unwinds the double helix?

A

DNA helicase

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2
Q

saturation kinetics

A

dynamics of enzyme reaction speed… rate limited by enzyme concentation.

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3
Q

Three types of hormones

A

peptide, steroid, tyrosine derivatives

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4
Q

steps in bacterial infection

A

inflammation, macrophages and neutrophils engulf bacteria. Interstitial goes into lympathic system and lymphocytes are in lymph nodes. Macrophages present antigens to B lympocytes. B lymphocytes use helper T cells to differentiate into memory and plasma cells. plasma cells make antibodies which go into blood and attack bacteria. Memory cells are for secondary response.

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5
Q

hemoglobin

A

4 polypeptide subunits, each with a heme group–with iron in the center. Each can combine with one O2, forming oxy hemoglobin. cooperativity, a cascade effect.

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6
Q

MINERALS

A

inorganic elements that exist in the form of ions inside and outside the cell; establish electrochemical gradients, act as co-factors to enable protein function, and form matrix compounds in bone and else where

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7
Q

PROTEINS

A

organic compounds made up of long chains of amino acids

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8
Q

lacteal

A

A capillary network and a lymph vessel where nutrients are absorbed.

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9
Q

Replication Fork

A

Replisome attach on the chromosome at this location

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10
Q

DNA’s four nitrogenous bases

A

Adenine and ThymineGuanine and Cytosine

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11
Q

Noncompetitive inhibitors

A

bond to enzyme at nonactive site, change its shape to make it less effective. Cyanide is example.

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12
Q

human growth hormone (hGH)

A

made: anterior pituitaryeffects: all body cellsaction: stimulates growth, increasing protein production

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13
Q

venules, veins

A

veins contain much more blood by volume than arteries. Blood slowest in capillaries, next slowest in veins. Veins have valves to prevent backflow.

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14
Q

ELECTROSTATIC FORCES

A

the forces between particles that are caused by their electric charges

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15
Q

Promoter

A

A spot on the DNA that tells RNA polymerase where to begin transcription

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16
Q

specific peptide hormones

A
  1. anterior pituitary: FSH, LH, ACTH, hGH, TSH, Prolactin2. posterior pituitary: ADH, oxytocin3. parathyroid: PTH4. pancreatic: glucagon, insulin
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17
Q

NON-COMPETITIVE INHIBITION

A

does not attach to the active site instead it changes the shape of the enzyme so the substrate doesn’t fit as well, cannot be overcome with substrate concentration

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18
Q

ENZYME SPECIFICITY

A

each enzyme must be tailored made for one reaction, which gives the cell more control in regulating chemical reactions

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19
Q

ANAEROBIC RESPIRATION

A

the release of energy from glucose or another organic substrate in the absence of Oxygen

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20
Q

Difference between endocrine and exocrine glands.

A

exocrine release enzymes to external environment through ducts, ie sweat, oil, digestive stuff.endocrine releases directly into body fluid.

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21
Q

UNSATURATED FATTY ACIDS

A

the carbon chain has at least one double bond; lower melting point

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22
Q

oxygen saturation of hemoglobin depends on:

A

lower O2 affinity if high CO2 pressure, low pH (high H+), high temperature, BPG.

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23
Q

What is being removed from a deoxynucleotide triphosphate as each nucleotide is added to the new strand?

A

a removal of a pyrophosphate group

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24
Q

The gene for triose phosphate isomerase from maize (a corn plant) spans over 3400 base pairs of DNA and contains eight introns and nine exons. Which of the following would most likely represent the number of nulceotides found int eh mature mRNA after post

A

A is correct. Introns are remove from the primary trancript during posttransciptional processing. The number of nucleotides in the mature mRNA would have to be less than the number of base pairs of the gene.

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning DNA replication?

A

C is correct. DNA replication is semiconservative, which means that both strands are replicated, and each old strand is combined with a new strand.

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26
Q

Which of the following is found in the RNA but not the DNA of a living cell?a. thymineb. a double helixc. an additional hydroxyl groupd. hydrogen bonds

A

C is correct. DNA is bouble stranded with A, C, G, T, while RNA is single stranded with uracil replacing T. The ‘D’ in DNA stands for deoxy- meaning that DNA is lacking a hydroxyl group possessed by RNA at its second pentose carbon atom.

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27
Q

Mucous Cells

A

Produce mucus

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28
Q

effector

A

target cell of hormone

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29
Q

FERMENTATION

A

energy-yielding anaerobic metabolic breakdown of a nutrient molecule, like glucose, that yields lactic acid, carbon dioxide, ethanol, or some other simple product

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30
Q

Pancreatic Amylase

A

Hydrolyzes polysaccharides to disaccharides and trisaccharides.Very powerful vs. salivary amylase.Degrades nearly all carbohydrates from the chyme into small glucose polymers.

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31
Q

glycerol

A

3 carbon backbone, in triglycerides.

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32
Q

aldosterone

A

made: adrenal cortexeffects: Na+ absorption, K+ secretion in tubule of kidney, also increases blood pressure

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33
Q

pharynx

A

throat, passage way for food/air.

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34
Q

GLYCOGEN

A

carbohydrate chains of glucose molecules attached via alpha-linkages stored in animals

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35
Q

HYDROLYSIS

A
  1. chemical decomposition of macromolecules, disassembly of polymers into monomers by reacting with water2. opposite of dyhydration reactions
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36
Q

rRNA

A

combined the proteins to form ribosomessynthesized in the nucleolus

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37
Q

irreversible inhibitors

A

covalently bonds to enzyme, permenantly disables it

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38
Q

PTH, parathyroid hormone

A

made: parathyroideffects: increase blood calcium, regulated by calcium ion concentration in plasma

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39
Q

Path of blood

A

(Systemic)Left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries. Venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cava right atrium.(Pulminary)Right venticle, pulmonary arteries, arterioles, capillaries of lungs. Venules, veins, pulmonary veins, left atrium.

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40
Q

LOW SOLUBILITY

A

incapable of being dissolved; insoluble

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41
Q

ZYMOGEN/PROENZYME

A

an inactive enzyme precursor that requires a biochemical change (such as a hydrolysis reaction revealing the active site, or changing the configuration to reveal the active site) for it to become an active enzyme

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42
Q

DEHYDRATION/CONDENSATION

A

1.covalent bonding of monomers through the loss of a water molecule that requires energy and enzymes2. opposite of hydrolysis reactions

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43
Q

Transcription: Elongation

A

RNA polymerase transcribes only one strand of the DNA nucleotide sequence into a complementary RNA nucleotide sequence.

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44
Q

krebs cycle

A

pyruvate->acetyl CoA turns cycle 2x. Cycle produces 1ATP, 3NADH, 1FADH2.

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45
Q

blastocyst

A

hallow ball of cells derived from morula implanted in wall of uterus

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46
Q

platelets

A

parts of membrane bound cytoplasm torn from megakaryocytes.. megakaryocytes remain in marrow. Platelets function in clotting.

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47
Q

lymphatic system

A

collects excess interstitial fluid and returns to blood. Also large particles. Flow goes through lymph nodes which fight infection. Lymph system is open. Many lymph nodes contain lymphocytes throughout system.

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48
Q

ATP SYNTHASE

A

enzyme in mitochondria’s nucleus that produces ATP by adding a phosphate group to the molecule ADP by utilizing some form of energy

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49
Q

INTERMOLECULAR BONDS

A

forces of attraction BETWEEN the molecules of a substance or substances; weaker than covalent or ionic bonding

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50
Q

Parietal Cell

A

Uses its many mitochondria to produce the energy needed to establish a proton gradient.Secrete HCl

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51
Q

E Coli

A

Produce vitamin K, B12, thiamin and riboflavin.

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52
Q

Translation: Elongation 2 (translocation)

A

Translocation: ribosome shifts 3 nucleotides along the mRNA toward the 3’ endtRNA with methionine moves to E site to leave ribosome tRNA with nascent dipeptide moves to the P siteanother GTP is used and this step continues until a stop codon reaches the P site

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53
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

production of ATP via proton gradient and ATP synthase.

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54
Q

thyroid hormone properties

A

lipid soluable, use plasma protein carriers. Bind to receptors in nucleus. Latent response, longer duration.

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55
Q

humoral immunity effective vs:

A

bacteria, fungi, parasitic protozoans, viruses, blood toxins.

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56
Q

TERPENES

A

major group of lipids made up of hydrocarbons

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57
Q

ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN

A

group of electron carriers in mitochondria that transport electrons to and from each other in a sequence, in order to generate ATP

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58
Q

PEPTIDE BOND

A

formed between amino acids when the carboxyl group of one molecule reacts with the amino group of the other releasing a molecule of water (H2O)dehydration synthesis reaction, resulting in a CO-NH bond and amide molecule

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59
Q

Translation: Elongation 1

A

tRNA with its corresponding amino acid attaches to the A site (aminoacyl site) at the expense of two GTPs. C-terminus of methionine attach to N-termious of Amino acid. Dehyration reaction catalyzed by peptidyl transferase processed by the ribosome

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60
Q

substrate level phosphorylation

A

formation of ATP from ADP and phosphate, using energy of a favorable reaction.

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61
Q

types of acquired immunity

A

humoral or B-Cell

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63
Q

OPTIMAL pH

A

enzymes are dependent upon a narrow pH range (near neutrality) and will denature when pH is too far

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64
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine properties

A

water soluable, bind to receptors on target tissue, act through 2nd messenger cAMP

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65
Q

HYDROPHILIC AND HYDROPHOBIC EFFECTS

A

occur between amino acids with the same polar and nonpolar side chains

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66
Q

INDUCE FIT MODEL

A

moulds enzyme to change shape to make substrate fit it

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67
Q

A tRNA molecule attaches to histidine. The anticodon on the tRNA is 5’-AUG-3’. Which of the following nucleotide sequences in an mRNA molecule might contain the codon for histidine?

A

D is correct. The complementary sequence to 5’-AUG-3’ is 5’-CAU-3’. Only D contains this sequence in any order. Remember thymine is only ofund in DNA, not RNA so B and C are wrong.

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68
Q

In PCR amplification, a primer is hybridized to the end of a DNA fragment and acts as the initiation site of replication for a specialized DNA polymerase. The DNA fragment to be amplified is shown below. Assuming that the primer attaches exactly to the en

A

D is correct. This question requires no knowledge of PCR. It requires only that you know that a DNA polymerase replicates from 5’ to 3’, and that you know the complementary bases. DNA polymerase can only read from 3’ to 5’, so it must start at the 3’ end of the DNA fragment.

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69
Q

Proline is not technically an alpha-amino acid. Due to the ring structure of proline, it cannot conform to the geometry of the alpha-helix and creates a bend in the polypeptide chain. This phenomenon assists in the creation of what level of protein struct

A

C is correct. The bending of the polypeptide chain is the tertiary structure of a protein

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70
Q

The large subunit of an 80S ribosome is made from:

A

C is correct. The ribosome is made in the nucleolus from rRNA and protein. It does not have a membrane

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71
Q

estrogen

A

ovary/placentamaintains female secondary sexual characteristics

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72
Q

progesterone

A

ovary/placenta; steroid hormone secreted by corpus luteum during luteal phase. Stimulates development & maintenance of endometrial walls for implantation

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73
Q

Testosterone

A

TESTES: male characteristics; spermatogenesis

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74
Q

somatostatin

A

pancreassuppresses secretion of glucagon and insulin

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75
Q

thymosin

A

thymusstimulates T lyphocyte development

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76
Q

Endorphins

A

anterior pituitary; inhibit the perception of pain in the brain

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77
Q

ACTH

A

anterior pituitary; stimulates adrenal cortex to make and secrete glucocorticoids

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78
Q

Blood Glucose

A

Glucagon (polypeptide derivative), Epinepherine (amino acid derivative), Cortisol (steroid / glucocorticoid) Regulates…

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79
Q

growth hormone

A

anterior pituitarystimulates growth in bones and muscles

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80
Q

glucocorticoids

A

adrenal cortexincreases blood glucose level and decreses protein synthesis

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81
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone

A

anterior pituitarystimulates adrenal cortex to synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids

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82
Q

Prolactin

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> MAMMARY GLAND: milk production

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83
Q

Cortisol

A

ADRENAL CORTEX: results in a longer-term stress response; increased blood [glucose]; increased protein catabolism; decreased inflammation and immunity; many other (glucocorticoid)

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84
Q

Pancreas

A

[Location] Glucagon (alpha) & Insulin (beta) & Somatostatin (sigma)

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85
Q

Sex steroids

A

ADRENAL CORTEX: not normally important, but an adrenal tumor can overproduce these, causing masculinization or feminization.

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86
Q

parathyroid hormone

A

parathyroidincreases the amount of blood calcium level

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87
Q

Regulation of blood [glucose]

A

Insulin and Glucagon

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88
Q

Oxytocin

A

POSTERIOR PITUITARY -> BREAST & UTERUS: milk letdown and uteral contractions

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89
Q

Vasopressin (ADH)

A

made in hypothalamus, stored in posterior pituitary; Increases permeability of nephron’s collecting duct to water -> increased water reabsorption and increased blood volume; Secreted when plasma osmolarity increases (osmoreceptors) or when blood vol decreases (baroreceptors)

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90
Q

Insulin

A

pancreas; Produced & secreted by beta cells of islets of Langerhans; Protein; Secreted in response to high [glucose]; Stimulates uptake of glucose by muscle and adipose cells & storage of glucose as glycogen; Stimulates synthesis of fats from glucose & uptake of amino acids; Regulated by blood glucose levels

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91
Q

Blood Pressure

A

Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) & Aldosterone Regulates….

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92
Q

Antidiuretic hormone

A

POSTERIOR PITUITARY -> KIDNEY: water retention (Vasopressin)

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93
Q

Luteinizing hormone

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> OVARY/ TESTES: ovulation or testosterone synthesis

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94
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> THYROID: increases synthesis and release of thyroid hormone (tropic)

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95
Q

Aldosterone (mineralocorticoid)

A

ADRENAL MEDULLA -> KIDNEY: increased Na+ reabsorption to increase blood pressure

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96
Q

Involved in Pregnancy Prepping

A

Oxytocin, Prolactin, Progesterone, Estrogen, LH, FSH

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97
Q

Releasing and Inhibiting Factors

A

HYPOTHALAMUS -> ANTERIOR PITUITARY: modifies activities

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98
Q

Calcitonin

A

THYROID C CELLS -> BONE, KIDNEY, SMALL INTESTINE: lowers serum [Ca2+]

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99
Q

Somatostatin (SS)

A

SIGMA CELLS OF THE ISLETS OF LANGERHANS IN THE PANCREAS: inhibits many digestive processes

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100
Q

Follicle Stimulating hormone

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> OVARY / TESTES: follicle development or spermatogenesis

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101
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

ANTERIOR PITUITARY -> OVARY / TESTES: follicle development or spermatogenesis

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102
Q

Cyanocobalamin

A

B12

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103
Q

Transcription

A

RNA synthesis

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104
Q

White matter

A

Myelinated axons

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105
Q

Spirilla

A

Non-rigid helical bateria.

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106
Q

Aldosterone

A

The principal mineralocorticoid secreted by teh adrenal cortex. This steroid hormone targets the kidney tubules and increases renal reabsorption of sodium [and excretion of potassium]. (this causes ADH to be secreted & increased water comes out, increasing blood pressure indirectly).

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107
Q

Cartilage

A

Flexible, resilient connective tissue.

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108
Q

Bowman’s capsule

A

Filtration of blood

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109
Q

Chyme

A

Partially digested, semiliquid food mixed with digestive enzymes and acids in the stomach.

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110
Q

liver

A

blood storage, blood filtration, carbohydrate, protein, & fat metabolism, detoxification, erythrocyte destruction, vitamin storage

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111
Q

Chylomicrons

A

Insoluble packages of triglycerides and esterified cholesterol molecules

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112
Q

Lysosomes

A

Spherical sacs of membrane-containing hydrolytic enzymes that function in acidic environments (~4.5-5.0);Function in digestion of material brought into the cell by phagocytosis or in digestion of damaged organelles.

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113
Q

Estrogen

A

In ovary/placenta; maintains female secondary sexual characteristics

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114
Q

Androgen

A

Male sex hormone.Primary is testosterone.

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115
Q

Heterochromatin

A

Tightly coiled chromosomal material that stains deeply during interphase and is believed to be genetically inactive.

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116
Q

cDNA

A

Complementary DNA. DNA produced synthetically by reverse trascribing mRNA. Because of eukaryotic mRNA splicing, cDNA contains no inrons.

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117
Q

Hexokinase

A

The enzymes that catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate in the first step of glycolysis. This is one of the ain regulatory steps of this pathway. Hexokinase is feedback-inhibited by glucose-6-P.

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118
Q

Neuron

A

The basic functional and structural unit of the nervous system. The neuron is a highly specialized cell, designed to transmit action potentials.

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119
Q

Placenta

A

An organ that develops during pregnacy, derived in part from the mother and in part from the zygote. The placenta is the site of exchange of nutrients and gases between the mother’s blood and the fetus’ blood. The placenta is formed during the first three months of pregnancy.

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120
Q

Anabolism

A

The process of bulidng complex structures out of simpler precursors, e.g. synthesizing protiens from amino acids.

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121
Q

Antiparallel orientation

A

The normal configuration of double-stranded DNA in which the 5’ end of oen strand is paired with the 3’ end of the other

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122
Q

oxytocin

A

made in hypothalamus, stored in posterior pituitary; Secreted during childbirth, increases strength & frequency of contractions; Induced by suckling - stimulates milk secretion in mammary glands

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123
Q

parasympathetic nervous system effect on the bladder

A

contracts muscle

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124
Q

Absorption

A

The general process of transporting the products of digestion from digestive tract to circulatory system to distribute to the body’s tissues and cells

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125
Q

T-Cells are concerned with _________ immunity.

A

Cell-mediated.

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126
Q

Simple Diffusion

A

Water, oxygen, carbon dioxide (dissolved gases) and lipid soluble molecules cross easily through the phospholipid bilayer of the membrane.

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127
Q

Chief cells

A

pepsinogen-secreting cells found at the bottom of the gastric glands of the stomach.

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128
Q

The _____ _______ synthesizes lysosome’s membrane and hydrolytic enzymes

A

Rough ER

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129
Q

Gap Junctions

A

Small tunnels connecting cells.Allow small ions and molecules to move between cells.

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130
Q

Norepinephrine

A

NAME?

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131
Q

bacteriophages

A

viruses that can only infect bacteria

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132
Q

Hydroxyapatite

A

Hardy crystals consisting of calcium and phosphate that form the bone matrix.

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133
Q

Monosaccharide

A

The monomer of a carbohydrate. Monosaccharides have the general chemical formula CnH2nOn, and common monosaccharides include glucose, fructose, galactose, and ribose.

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134
Q

Yolk sac

A

An embryonic structure particularly important in egg-laying animals because it contains the yolk, the only source of nutrients for the embryo developing inside the egg. IN humans, the yolk sac is very small (since mammals get their nutrients via the place

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135
Q

Syncytium

A

A large multinucleate cell, typically formed by the fusion of many smaller cells during development (e.g. a skeletal muscle cell), or formed by nuclear division in the absence of cellular division.

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136
Q

Coccus

A

A bacteria having a round shape (plural = cocci)

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137
Q

Determination

A

The point during development at which a cell becomes committed to a particular fate (sensory, other, etc.). Note that the cell is not differentiated at this point; determination comes before differentiation. Determination can be due to cytoplasmic effects or to induction by neighboring cells.

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138
Q

Ejection fraction

A

The fraction of teh end-diastolic volume ejected from the ventricles in a single contraction of teh heart. THe ejection fraction is normally around 60% of the end diastolic volume.

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139
Q

Splicing

A

One type of eukaryotic mRNA processing in which introns are removed from the primary transcript and exons are ligated together. SPlicing of transcripts can be different in different tissues.

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140
Q

Summation

A

(1) The integration of input (EPSPs and IPSPs) from many presynaptic neruons by a single postsynaptic neuron, either temporaly or spatially. Summation of al input can either stimulate the postsynaptic neuron and possibly lead to an action potential, or it can inhibit the neuron, reducing the likelihood of an action potential. (2) The integration of single muscle twitches into a sustained contraction (tetany).

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141
Q

Vasa recta

A

The capillaries that surround the tubules of the nephron. The vasa recta reclaims reabsorbed substances, such as water and sodium ions.

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142
Q

Helicase

A

An enzyme that unwinds the double helix of DNA and separates the DNA strands in preparation for DNA replication.

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143
Q

Hemoglobin

A

A four-subunit protein found in red blood cells that binds oxygen. Each subunit contains a heme group, a large multi-ring molecule with an iron atom at its center. One hemoglobin molecule can bind four oxygen molecules in a cooperative manner.

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144
Q

Amylase

A

An enzyme found in saliva and pancreatic juices that hydrolyzes starch to maltose. Also known as ptyalin, diastase, or amylopsin.

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145
Q

vagus nerve

A

innervates the SA node, slowing contractions

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146
Q

Conjugation

A

A form of genetic recombination in bacteria in which plasmid and/or genomic DNA is transferred from one bacterium to the toher through a conjugation bridge.

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147
Q

Villi

A

Projections which cover the surface of the inner wall of the small intestine

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148
Q

Types of Lipids

A
  1. fatty acids2. triacylglycerols3. phospholipids4. glycolipids5. steroids6. terpenes
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149
Q

A fluid called ________ fills the semicircular canals.

A

endolymph

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150
Q

Resolution

A

the ability to discriminate two points and visualize them as two points, even though they are extremely close together.Dependent on the wavelength of the light source and can be calclated to be about 1/2 the wavelength.

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151
Q

Cholecystokinin

A

A hormone secreted by the small intestine (duodenum) in response to the presences of fats. It promotes release of bile from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas, and reduces stomach motility.

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152
Q

Allosteric Regulation.

A

The modification of the enzyme configuration resulting from the binding of an activator or inhibitor at a specific binding site on the enzyme.

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153
Q

Process of Replication

A

Helicase unzips double strand.RNA Polymerase builds primerDNA Polymerase assembles leading and lagging strandsprimes are removedOkazaki frags are joined

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154
Q

Vitamin C

A

Asorbic Acid- assists synthesis of collagen in connective tissues- scurvy, anemia, slow wound healing

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155
Q

FSH

A

Growth of follicles in the female, production of sperm in the male.

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156
Q

Attachment

A

The first step in viral infection. Attachemen of a
virus to its host is very specific and is also known as
adsorption

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157
Q

Neuronal control of breathing

A

Autonomal control:medulla - ventral(deep inspiration) Dorsal(expiration)rythmicity- 12-15 per/min is under control of pons and medulla via input of afferent vagal stretch receptors in lungParasympathetic stimulation:causes bronchoconstriction and increase in airway resistanceSympathetic stimulation:Bronchodialation

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158
Q

alleles

A

genes coding for alternative forms of a given trait

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159
Q

Thymus

A

An immune organ located near the heart. THe thymus is the site of T cell maturation and is larger in children and adolescents.

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160
Q

Promoter

A

The sequence of nucleotides on a chromosome that activates RNA polymerase so that transcription can take place. The promoter is found upstream of the start site, the location where transcription actually takes place.

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161
Q

Operon

A

A nucleotide sequence on DNA that contians three elemtns: a coding sequence for one or more enzymes, *a coding sequence for a regulatory protein, and upstream regulatory sequences where the regulatory proteins can bind. An example is the lac operon found

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162
Q

Neuralation

A

The formatino of the nervous system during weeks 5-8 of gestation. Neuralation begins when a section of the ectoderm invaginates and pinches off to form the neural groove, which ultimately forms the neural tube, from which the brain and spinal cord develo

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163
Q

Avascular

A

Lacking a blood supply; cartialge is an example of this

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164
Q

Bacilus

A

A bacterium having a rod-like shaped (plural = bacilli).

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165
Q

Capacitation

A

An incrase in the fragility of the membranes of sperm cells when exposed to the female reproductive tract. Capacitation is required sot aht the acrosomal enzymes can be relased to faciliate fertilization.

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166
Q

Proliferative phase

A

The second phase of the uterine (endometrial) cycle, during which the endometrium (shed off during menstration is rebuilt). This phase of the cycle is under the control of estrogen, secreted from the follicle developing in the ovary during this time period. The proliferative phase typically lasts from day 6 to day 14 of the menstrual cycle.

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167
Q

Ligand

A

The specific molecule that binds to a receptor.

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168
Q

Creatine Phosphate

A

An energy storage molecule used by muscle tissue. The phosphate from creatine phosphate can be removed and attached to an ADP to generate ATP quickly.

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169
Q

Z line

A

define boundaries and anchor the thin filaments

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170
Q

Atrioventricular node

A

an area of specialized tissue between the atria and the ventricles of the heart, which conducts the normal electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles.

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171
Q

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

A hormone secreted by the samll intestine (duodenum) in response to the presence of fats. It promotes release of bile from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas,and reduces stomach motility.

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172
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

Requires oxygen and yields ~36 ATP total (including glycolysis). If O₂ present, pyruvate and NADH move into the mitochondrial matrix. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA (producing NADH and CO₂ in the process). Then the Krebs cycle begins …

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173
Q

Creatine Phosphate is a source of ATP. True or False?

A

TRUE!

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174
Q

Urinary System

A

System that remvoes body wastes from bloodstream and helps regulate homeostasis of the internal environment

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175
Q

niche

A

The way in which a species exploits its environment.

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176
Q

Anterior pituitary gland

A

Also known as the adenohypophysis, this is made of glandular tissue. It makes and secretes six different hormones: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, prolactin, and growth hormone. This is controlled by releasing and inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus.

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177
Q

Obligate anaerobes?

A

Cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.

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178
Q

Vitamin B2

A

Riboflavin- Part of FAD, coenzyme in respiration and protein metabolism - inflammation and breakdown of skin

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179
Q

Zygote

A

When the sperm and the ovum fuse during fertilization they become a zygote.

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180
Q

Dihybrid Cross

A

A dihybrid cross is a breeding experiment that is concerned with differences in two traits.

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181
Q

corona radiata

A
  1. outer layer of cells surrounding the oocyte2. these cells are secreted by follicle cells
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182
Q

3*

A

bending of the string into a pretzil shape or glob globular protein has 2+3 structure

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183
Q

Peptide bond

A

The bond formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

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184
Q

Myofiber

A

A skeletal muscle cell, also known as a muscle fiber. Skeletal muscle cells are formed from the fusion of many smaller cells (during development) consequently they are very long and are multinucleate.

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185
Q

Topoisomerase

A

An enzyme that cuts one or both strands of DNa to relieve the excess tension caused by the unwinding of the helix by helicase during replication.

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186
Q

Intercostal muscles

A

Muscles located in between the ribs that play a role in ventilation.

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187
Q

Fluid mosaic model

A

the current understanding of membrane structure, in which teh membrane iscomposed of a mix o lipids and proteins (a mosaic) that are free to move fluidly among themselves.

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188
Q

Venous returns

A

The amount of blood returned to heart by the vena cavae.

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189
Q

Aqueous humor

A

A thin, watery fluid found in teh anterior segment of the eye (between the lens and the cornea). THe aqueous humor is constantly produced and drained, adn helps to bring nutrients to the lesn and corena, as well as to remove metabolic wastes

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190
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

A point mutation in which a condon that specifies an amino acid is mutated into a stop (nonsense) codon.

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191
Q

DNA polymerase

A

Also called DNA pol, this is the enzyme that replicates DNA. Eukaryotes have a single version of the enzyme, simply called DNA pol (not need to know much detail); prokaryotes have three versions, called DNA pol I, DNA pol II, and DNA pol III.

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192
Q

Erythrocyte

A

A red blood cell; they are filled with hemoglobin, and teh function of the erythrocytes is to carry oxygen in the blood.

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193
Q

Exocrine gland

A

A gland that secretes its product into a duct, which ultimately carries the product to the surface of the body or into a body cavity. Some examples of exocrine gland and their products are sweat glands (sweat), gastric glands (acid, mucus, protease), the liver (bile), sebaceous glands (oil), and lacrimanl glands (tears).

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194
Q

Pancreatic duct

A

The main duct of the pancreas. The pancreatic duct carries the exocrine secretions of the pancreas (enzymes and bicarbonate) to the small intestine (dueodenum).

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195
Q

Upsteam

A

Toward the 5’ end of an Rna transcript (the 5’ end of the DNA coding strand). The promoter and start sites are upstream.

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196
Q

Sertolli cells

A

Cells that form the walls of the seminiferous tubules and help in spermatogenesis Sertoli cells are also called susenacular cells.

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197
Q

brush border enzymes

A

enzymes secreted by the mucosal cells lining the intestine. They are disaccharides and dipeptidases that digest the smallest carbohydrates and peptides.

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198
Q

Downstream

A

Toward the 3’ end of an RNA transcript (the 3’ end of the DNA coding strand). Stop codons and (in eukaryotes) the pol-A tail are found ‘downstream.’

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199
Q

Rxn rate and temperature

A

At first, temperature increases will increase rxn rate, but then the enzyme will denature and rxn rate drops off.

200
Q

Essential substances are reabsorbed into the blood by the kidney. Such as: _________

A

Glucose, Salts, and amino acids.

201
Q

Gene Activator Proteins

A

The proteins that bind to enhancers (which increase transcription of the associated gene)

202
Q

central canal

A

The hollow center of an osteon, also known as a Haversian canal. This contains blood vessels, lumphatic vessels, and nerves. Bone is laid down around this in concentric rings called lamellae.

203
Q

What portions can the diencephalon be divided into?

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

204
Q

Somatic Nervous Sytem

A

Designated to primarily respond to the external environment. Contains sensory and motor function.Acetylcholine is used as a neurotransmitter.Voluntary muscle control.

205
Q

Lower respiratory tract function

A

No ciliated cells present.Removal of foreign particles accomplished via macrophage and leukocytes with drainage into lymphatics.Gas exchange occurs.

206
Q

lock and key theory

A

theory of enzyme catalysis stating that the active site’s structure is complementary to the structure of the substrate

207
Q

Auditory tube

A

The tube that connects the middle ear acity with the pharynx; also known as the Eustachian tube. Its fucntion is to equalize midle ear pressure with atmospheric pressure so that pressure on boths sides of the tympanic membrane is the same.

208
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

The inner region of the adrenal gland. The adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic nervous systme, and releases epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine into the blood when stimuated. These hormones augment and prolon the effects of sympathetic stim

209
Q

Semilunar valves

A

The valves in the heart that separate the ventricles from the arteries. The pulmonary semilunar valve separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery, and the aortic semilunar valve separates left ventricle from the aorta. These valves close at th

210
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

The synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle cell. At the NMJ, the muscle cel lmembrane is invaginated and the axon terminus is elongated so that a greater area of membrane can be depolarized at one time.

211
Q

Frameshift mutation

A

A mutation caused by an insertion or deletion of base pairs in a gene sequence in DNA such that the reading frame of the gene (and thus teh amino acid sequence of the protein) is altered.

212
Q

Loop of Henle

A

The loop of the nephron that dips downward into the renal medulla. The loop of Henle sets up a concentration gradient in the kidney such that from the cortex to the renal pelvis osmolarity increases. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water, but not to sodium whereas the ascending limb is permeable to sodium, but not to water (and in fact, actively transports sodium out of the filtrate).

213
Q

Acrosome

A

A region at the head of a sperm cell that contains digestive enzyems which, when released during the acrosome reaction, can facilitate penetration of the corona radiata of the egg, and subsequently, fertilization

214
Q

Epiphysis

A

One of the two ends of long bone (pl: eiphyses). The epiphyses have an outer shell made of compact bone and inner core of spongy bone. The spongy bone is filled with red bone marrow, the stie of blood cell formation.

215
Q

Specific Bones in the Axial System

A

Skull, Ossicles, Vertebral column, Ribs, Sternum, Hyoid

216
Q

The Pons acts as the _____ center for information going to the ______

A

relay, cerebellum.

217
Q

What are basement membranes?

A

Basement membranes attach the inner surface of epithelial cells to the underlying connective tissue.

218
Q

Name the three classifications of the organization of epithelium (layers).

A

Simple epithelia= single layer of epithelial cellsStratified epithelia= multiple layers of epithelial cells

219
Q

Name the three types of epithelial cell shape.

A

Psuedostratified epithelia= single layer of epithelial cells but looks stratified due to differing heights of the cells.Cuboidal (cube-like shape), columnar (height is at least 4X width), and squamous (scale-like).

220
Q

In the proximal convoluted tubule, what solutes are actively transported out?

A

Sodium, amino acids, vitamins, glucose

221
Q

Ganglion (Nervous system)

A

A cluster of cell bodies OUTSIDE the CNS

222
Q

Diploid organism

A

An organism that has two copies of its genome it each cell. The paired genomes are said to be homologous.

223
Q

Antigen presenting cell

A

Cells that possess MHC II (B cells and macrophages) and are able to display bits of ingested antigen on their surface in order to activate T cells. See also “MHC”

224
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A

Cerebellum= hindbrain structure that helps modulate motor impulses initiated by the motor cortex and is important for maintaining hand-eye coordination, balance, and the timing of rapid movements.

225
Q

What are the functions of the pons?

A

Pons= hindbrain relay structure of communication b/w the cortex and cerebellum.

226
Q

What are the functions of the medulla oblongata?

A

Medulla oblongata= hindbrain structure important for many vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and gastrointestinal activity.

227
Q

What structures make up the brain stem?

A

Brain stem= midbrain, pons, and the medulla oblongata.

228
Q

What type of fungi are molds?

A

Filamentous fungi and some are imperfect and can reproduce only asexually.

229
Q

Atrioventricular bundle (AV) bundle

A

Also known as the Bundle of His, this is the first portion of the cardiac conduction system, after the AV node.

230
Q

What is the difference between nerve inpulses in vertebrates and invertebrates?

A

Vertebrates have myelinated axons to increase impulse speed whereas invertebrates are non-myelinated. In order to increase transmission speed, invertebrates have larger neurons.

231
Q

1 FADH₂ yields how many ATP?

A

2 ATP for every FADH₂(reduces a protein further along in the electron transport chain therefore not so high-energy)

232
Q

Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is made up of…

A

Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is made up of chondrin which is secreted by specialized cells called chondrocytes.

233
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

Parathyroid hormone raises plasma calcium levels by stimulating calcium release from bone.

234
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Calcitonin lowers plasma calcium levels by inhibiting calcium release from bones.

235
Q

Osteoblasts produce…

A

Osteoblasts produce collagen, which when mineralized, forms bone!

236
Q

The ______ consists of a sheath of fibrous cells around a long bone.

A

Periosteum, It connects the bone to muscles.

237
Q

The vagus nerve is a very important nerve in what nervous system?

A

The vagus nerve is a very important nerve in the parasympathetic nervous system…it innervates many of the thoracic and abdominal viscera.

238
Q

What do the pre- and postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release?

A

The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release ACh as well as stimulate the adrenal medulla to release EPI.

239
Q

B/w the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system, which has the shorter preganglionic axo

A

The postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release NE.The sympathetic nervous system has the shorter pregangionic axon (which releases ACh) and a longer postganglionic axon (which releases NE).The parasympathetic nervous system has the longer preganglionic axon (which releases ACh) and a shorter postganglionic axon (which also releases ACh).

240
Q

H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 are examples of _____, which package DNA into ______.

A

Histones….note that each histone is an octamer b/c 2 of each histone protein does the pacaging.Nucleosomes….these are the first level of chromosome packing.

241
Q

Meiosis General Recap

A

Errors in meiosis leads to aneuploid.Remember it includes IPMAT [I played Manny’s atrocious trumpet.)interphase, anaphase, prophase, metaphase then telophase. same as mitosis.

242
Q

True or false - Crossover occurs during Meoisis II.

A

False….occurs in Meosis I before anaphase I

243
Q

Electron Transport Chain (ETS begins)

A

Couples e- donor (i.e. NADH, FADH2) and e- acceptor (O2).

244
Q

True or false -

A

True.

245
Q

Cancer is caused by the failure of normal cellular control.

A

…oh-so-true. failure of normal cellular control –> immortal cell –> clumps of immortal cell –> tumor.

246
Q

HIV Virus Structure

A

Investigate structures on your own. MCAT doesn’t go in deeply.

247
Q

What is the rate of reaction dependent on?

A

Dependent on [enzyme] and [substrate].–>rate-limiting factor is amount of enzyme–> unlimited substrate+correct pH+temp = rate of reaction is proportional to [enzyme]

248
Q

In vivo gene cloning -

A

Plasmids! They carry circular DNA, enter bacteria, replicate…cultured cells transformed with a human gene manufa

249
Q

The ____ strand features continuous complimentary strand.

A

leading

250
Q

___ is the removal and replacement of numerous adjacent nucleotides.

A

Nucleotide excision….think of it as multi-base excision.

251
Q

Translation (3)

A

(UAC) moves to P-site where it is broken away from tRNA to start polypeptide chain.Next complimentary tRNA loads into A-site.Process continues until one of three stop codons is reached.

252
Q

Define recombinant DNA.

A

Artificially created or altered DNA….restriction enzyme used to cut DNA at a specific point - sticky ends will hybridize with another DNA.

253
Q

How do we accomplish the central dogma?

A

…Transcription (DNA –> mRNA) in nucleus…Translation (mRNA –> protein) in ribosomes of cytoplasm or ER…in prokaryotes EVERYTHING is done in the cytoplasm, translation occurs before transcription is finished, and the operon controls series genes.

254
Q

The following images compares RNA & DNA -

A

Draw them out for practice.The next slide shows everything together.

256
Q

Typical rxn -

A

E + S <– –> ES –> EP <– –> E + P

258
Q

Sources of damage to DNA can come from ______

A

…gamma rays, X rays, UV light, chemicals, free radicals

259
Q

Prokaryote Cell wall complex

A

Gram (+) = thick peptidoglycansGram (-) = not as much peptid. and ion passage is way regulatedFlagella, pili, slime layer might be present

260
Q

What is double-stranded DNA packaged with protein called?

A

Chromatin.

261
Q

Define ‘inhibitor’.

A

things that decrease/stop catalytic activity by disrupting enzyme’s active site.

262
Q

Transcription visuals - take note that this in nucleus.

A

Be able to name ALL sites involved.

263
Q

Krebs Cycle (3)

A

Two turns of cycle produces -2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 4CO2

264
Q

Meiosis visual for those who want it! Remember youtube is actually a really good source of animated videos for this, mitosis, the krebs cycle etc…

A

Be able to explain why two sets of IPMAT are needed.

265
Q

Translation (1)

A

Begins at 5’ cap of mRNA where initiator tRNA is loaded into P-site of small ribosomal subunit….initiation factors to start!

266
Q

How do eukaryotic infecting viruses get past cell membranes?

A

They are further encased by lipid bilayers with special viral proteins that they stole from host.

267
Q

What do some viruses require to copy themselves?

A

Reverse transcriptase! (HIV requires this)

268
Q

Y chromosome characteristics are -

A

Y chromosome, whose presence always produces testes development.Y linked disorders - color blindness, hemophilia…

269
Q

Structure of Eukaryotic Chromosomes

A

Questions and fill in the blanks about lots different types of chromatin.

270
Q

What is the diff between RNA and DNA?

A

RNA has -OH at 2’ AND 3’.

271
Q

What types of nitrogenous bases?

A

Pyrimidines (small 6 membered rings)- cytosine, uracil (replaces thymine in RNA), thyminePurines (6 membered ring fused to 5 membered ring)- adenine, guanine

272
Q

Prokaryote (1)

A

It’s unicellular but can form colonies and act like a multicellular organism if need be.

273
Q

Define and give an example of ‘anabolic’ rxns.

A

Build up’Amino acid synthesis

274
Q

Mitosis Recap!

A

…DNA packaged into chromosomes must replicate….copies of the chromosomes and organelles must migrate to opposite ends of the cell….the cell must physically split into two separate cells….note some say mitosis starts at the prophase.

275
Q

What is glycolosis?

A

Literally means ‘glucose breaking’!…the first stage of aerobic (and anaerobic) respiration….takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.

276
Q

Virus (1)

A

Outside of a living cell, a virus is dormant, but once inside, it takes over the resources of the host cell and begins the production of more virus particles. Viruses are more similar to mechanized bits of information, or robots, than to animal life.

278
Q

And highly coiled chromatin is called ____.

A

Chromosomes.

279
Q

What reactions help organisms harvest energy?

A

catabolic and anabolic reactions

280
Q

What corrects incorrect pairing of normal bases?

A

Mismatch repair.

281
Q

How many different AAs? and codons?

A

20 different AA64 different codons…start - AUG…stop - UAA, UAG, UGA

282
Q

The lagging strand must be completed in short segments called ____.

A

Okazaki fragments.

283
Q

What happens to a gene to cause Down’s Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21…the homologs didn’t separate on chromosome 21.

284
Q

Recap Glycolosis (1)

A

…part of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration….process that splits glucose, a six-carbon compound, into two pyruvate molecules, each of which has three carbons….a 2 ATP investment results in a 4 ATP payoff.

285
Q

_____ removes the RNA primer laid down by DNA polymerase III

A

DNA polymerase I

286
Q

Talk about Fungi!

A

one of the 5 kingdom of organisms.NO photosynthesis. CHITIN in cell walls.

287
Q

And the F2 generation is ____.

A

The kids/progeny of F1

288
Q

Krebs Cycle Recap (2)

A

…does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen…is therefore an aerobic process.

289
Q

How do enzymes affect rate and equilibrium?

A

Alter rate of reaction, not position of equilibrium

290
Q

Mitosis Rumble

A

Note that this is ONLY in somatic cells. Results in 2 identical daughters.Nuclear division + cytokinesis[I played Manny’s atrocious trumpet.]Interphase - cell growth, DNA synthesis, chromosome replication, G1, S, and G2

291
Q

Krebs Cycle Recap (1)

A

…results in 2 ATP molecules for each glucose molecule run through glycolysis….sends energy-laden NADH and FADH2 molecules on to the next step in respiration, the electron transport chain.

292
Q

How does ETS work?

A

…ATP synthase helps H+ flow back into matrix, producing ATP

293
Q

Specific name for double-helix structure of DNA molecule? Describe, for brownie points.

A

Watson-Crick Model….5’ end of one strand lies to 3’ end of another….the first nucleotide will have the phosphate on it, and the last will have a free OH…hydrogen bonding!

294
Q

Prokaryote (2)

A

…no nuclear envelope…complexed with proteins but not histones…plasmids and episomes can be present…cell wall, ribosomes, plasma membrane can be present

295
Q

____ nicks double helix of DNA and releases coiling.

A

Topoisomerase

296
Q

X chromosome characteristics are -

A

Normal females contain 2…one is active and the other is a barr body.

297
Q

The outer protein ___ surrounds nucleic acid in virus.

A

capsid

298
Q

Inheritance follow-up:

A

“punnet square for a population”

299
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?

A

…based on genetic equilibrium concept

300
Q

More on the Plasma membrane

A

NO glycolipids or cholesterol

301
Q

What is the Wobble hypothesis?

A

…that the first two basses bind tRNA

302
Q

Ribosome in translation

A

Ribosomes are >50 proteins and rRNA. Two units -…small subunit is in charge of joining correct tRNA to mRNA…large subunit catalyzes peptide bond

303
Q

What is linkage?

A

If 2 genes lie close on a chromosome, chances are they’ll be inherited together….far apart genes participate in recombination…linkage is useful for gene mapping

304
Q

Inheritance (2)

A

Incomplete/partial dominance - heterozygous genotype expressed halfway…RR is red…rr is white…but Rr is pinkCodominance - heterozygous individual expresses BOTH phenotypes (blood typing! i.e. ABO)

305
Q

DNA Replication Step-by-Step

A

A set of questions and fill in the blanks to be followed.

306
Q

Meiosis

A

2 stages - MI and MII - and end product of 4 haploid (23N) cells….in males, creates 4 sperm…in females, creates 1 ovum & 3 polar bodiesRemember, XX is girl and XY is boy.

307
Q

True or false -

A

False.

308
Q

Fission is an example of sexual reproduction in fungi.

A

…asexual reproduction includes fission, spores, fragmentation, budding

309
Q

Krebs Cycle (2)

A

Occurs in mitochondrial matrix…2Pyruvate (glycolysis) decarboxylated in mitochondria -> 2acetyl CoA + 2NADH + 2 CO2

310
Q

What is the net yield of ATP?

A

2ATP….cell invests 2ATP but gets out 4ATP which gives us above net yield answer.

311
Q

What does telomerase do?

A

…adds telomeres….it’s so the LAGGING strand doesn’t lose its end bits which are essential

312
Q

Name the four key regions of tRNA.

A

…aminoacyl attachment site (where AAs are joined to tRNA)…anticodon that binds complementary mRNA…T loop…D loop

313
Q

Talking about Viruses!

A

…little moochers!…they contain either DNA or RNA to encode genetic information….their genome can either be circular or linear, double or single stranded.

314
Q

In DNA packaging, coiling is not dynamic.

A

False.

315
Q

Where does the 2NADH go?

A

Mitochondria….energy in them will be converted to ATP.

316
Q

Virus Structure

A

Made up of head and tail!…head has capsid and nuclei acid core…tail has the sheath (bacteriophages), plug and tail fibers.

317
Q

Usually this holds true but a single mutation in an oncogene or tumor suppressor gene can spell cancer for an individual.

A

…damaged proto-oncogene; 1 mutation –> malignancy…tumor suppressor NORMALLY prevents cancer; 2 mutations –> cells grow wildly –> malignancy

318
Q

Express the chemical forumal for glycolosis.

A

C6H12O6 + 2ATP + 2NAD+2 YIELDS pyruvate + 4ATP + 2NADH

319
Q

Give the five total examples of spontaneous mutations -

A
  1. unstable nucleotide bases2. chemical reactions change bases3. uncorrected errors by DNA polymerase4. mistakes in meiosis5. transposons
320
Q

HIV and retroviruses

A

HIV is retroviral.maintain their genetic information in the form of ribonucleic acid (RNA). Through the use of an enzyme known as reverse transcriptase, HIV and other retroviruses are capable of producing deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) from RNA, whereas most cells carry out the opposite process, transcribing the genetic material of DNA into RNA. The activity of the enzyme enables the genetic information of HIV to become integrated permanently into the genome (chromosomes) of a host cell.

321
Q

What are heterochromatin?

A

HIGHLY coiled, not expressed areas.

322
Q

Name a differences in EUKARYOTIC from prokaryotic protein synthesis.

A

…1 mRNA makes 1 protein

323
Q

Point mutations are as follows cont’d -

A

Frameshift mutations….insertion/deletion of nucleotide which changes ENTIRE reading frame. definite mutation….usually leads to a useless or nonfunctioning protein.

324
Q

Mendelian Genetics (1)

A

Studied pea plants and derived two laws.a) segregation of characteristics - one allele expressed per gameteb) independent assortment - genes for characteristics are independently inherited

325
Q

How do nucleotides polymerize?

A

3’ to 5’ direction

326
Q

Translation - take note, this is in cytoplasmic or ER ribosomes.

A

Again, be able to name and distinguish between P, A, E site etc.

327
Q

Point mutations are as follows -

A

Base pair substitutions -…transversions: purine –> pyrmidines so thata. no new a.a. (silent mutation)b. new a.a. (missense) may or may not lead to dif.in final protein functionc. premature stop (nonsense)

328
Q

Is ATP used in glycolosis?

A

Yes….ATP is used to split glucose molecules into a three-carbon compound called pyruvate.

330
Q

What are telomeres?

A

It’s what we call the chromosome end of the DNA sequence

331
Q

What does primase make RNA primer for?

A

DNA Polymerase III

332
Q

What are competitive inhibitor?

A

…they compete WITH substrate for enzyme’s active site….addition of more substrate speeds up reaction…do NOT alter site

333
Q

Define and give an example of ‘catabolic’ rxn.

A

Break down’ substrates.Glycolosis

334
Q

Mitosis vs. Meiosis

A

Mitosis –> identical daughter cells. In somatic.Meiosis –> genetically diverse gametes. In ovaries & testes.

335
Q

Inheritance (1)

A

Wild type - typical form of an organism in natural conditionsRecessive trait - produced by homozygous recessive allele (ss)Complete dominance - this allele will always be expresses (S!)Penetrance - proportion of individuals expressing a certain phenotype

336
Q

What makes RNA primer?

A

Primase

337
Q

Translation (2)

A

mRNA binds at start codon (AUG methionine). tRNA with complimentary anticodon (UAC) loads into A-site.

338
Q

The normal cell control path is:

A

disruption of growth factors, receptors, signaling pathways (RAS)…dna repair/damage response through the p53 pathway.All of this should induce apoptosis if the cell feels it can’t save itself.

339
Q

Transcription (1)

A

…start with promoter regions which are “conserved sequences”.

340
Q

What is the Krebs Cycle?

A

…Helps in chemical conversion of carbs, fats, and proteins into CO2 and H2O to make energy!…part two of the energy harvest!

341
Q

DNA Synthesis/Replication

A

Know ALL chemicals involved - DNA polymerase I and III, topoisomerase, RNA primer etc…

342
Q

How can you calculate allele frequency based on the frequency of an autosomal recessive (AR) disease?

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1…p - frequency of dominant allele…q - frequency of recessive allele

343
Q

Enzyme Structure and Function I (ESF begins)

A

Enzymes are highly selective catalysts for biochemical reactions; remain unchanged.

344
Q

What happens while pyruvate is transported to mitochondria?

A

…hree-carbon pyruvate is converted into the two-carbon molecule called acetate…coenzyme A is added on to create one of the reactants of this cycle!

345
Q

Name 2 differences in PROKARYOTIC from eukaryotic protein synthesis.

A

…mRNA is not spliced b/c no introns. polycistronic….because no 5’ cap, ribosome binds at ribosome-binding sequence (upstream to AUG)

346
Q

How do they match up? (complimentary bases)

A

C&G, A&T…rod - bacilli, spiral - spirilli, round - cocci…can be aerobic or anaerobic…usually in symbiotic relationship w/something else…reproduction = binary fission

347
Q

The ___ is the first generation bred from two closely related species.

A

F1

348
Q

Mendelian Genetics (2)

A

Phenotype - external lookGenotype - internal genetic maeupGene - region of DNA that controls hereditary characteristic

349
Q

What unifies all the Okazaki fragments?

A

DNA ligase

350
Q

Name the two types of bases - and relegate the five nitrogenous bases to each type.

A

…Purine - A, G, U…Pyrimidine - C T

351
Q

Fungi structure

A

…differ in level of cellular organism (1 nucleus vs. 1000 nuclei, multicell-vs-unicell)…asexual reproduction, some can choose sexual in addition…generally haploid for most of life cycle

352
Q

Now let’s talk about chromosomes and cancer.

A

…Region of mitotic chromosome holding sister chromosomes together.

353
Q

Define a centromere.

A

…Also is site of kinetochore formation & mitotic spindle binds

354
Q

____ is the removal and replacement of damaged bases.

A

Base excision….note that DNA glycosylase identifies damaged bases and DNA polymerase beta replaces them.

355
Q

Meiosis -

A

Meiosis I results in two independent cells. One cell contains the maternal homologous pair, with a small segment of the paternal chromosome from crossover. The other cell contains the paternal homologous pair, likewise with a small segment of the maternal chromosome.

356
Q

Mitosis Rumble

A

Prophase - chromosomes tighten, nucleoli disappears, centrioles move to opp. ends and mitotic spindle forms.

357
Q

True or false:

A

False.

358
Q

one animo acid can be associated with multiple tRNAs.

A

…specific tRNAs for each AA

359
Q

Transcription (2)

A

…double helix opens so one DNA strand (determined by promoter) can be template for RNA polymerase

360
Q

In vitro gene cloning -

A

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is used for DNA replication for analysis.

361
Q

Viruses - bacteriophages in depth

A

Lytic (virus replicates madly so that bacterial cell wall bursts)Lysogenic (incorporates itself into host genome so that it is replicated with host DNA)

362
Q

Mitosis Rumble cont’d

A

Metaphase - nuclear membrane dissolves, microtubules attach to kinetochores and spindle fibers align chromosomes along metaphase plate

363
Q

Where are transcripts ‘processed’?

A

Nucleus….introns are spliced out while exons are kept…poly-A sequence at 3’ end and 5’‘cap added for stability so it’’s recognized as mature/ready for translation

364
Q

What is the citric acid cycle?

A

The Krebs Cycle!…don’t be fooled or misled. they refer to the same thing and are used interchangeably….it’s because The Krebs cycle begins when acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate interact to form the six-carbon compound citric acid.

365
Q

How does ETS work?

A

H+ ions are transferred across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the inetermembrane space….creates pH gradient

366
Q

How many types of RNA are there?

A

Three….mRNA - messenger. DNA is transcribed to mRNA in nucleus {template for protein!}…rRNA - ribosomal….tRNA - transfer - brings specific amino acids (AA) to ribosome for protein synthesis.

367
Q

Recap Glycolosis (2)

A

…the rest of aerobic respiration takes place in the mitochondria BUT glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell….does NOT require oxygen

368
Q

A ____ is the breeding of the F1 and another pp.

A

Back cross

369
Q

Nucleotide Structure & Function - What are the three components of nucleotides? (NSF)

A

1)Pentose (5 carbon ring) sugar. {DNA or RNA}2)Nitrogenous bases on the 1’ carbon of pentose (C,U,T, A, G)3)One to three phosphate groups attached to 5’ carbon

370
Q

Mitosis Rumble

A

Anaphase - pull apart! chromatids polarize and spindle fibers become indistinctTelophase - the chromatids are on opposite ends, nuclear membrane forms, spindle fibers disappearRemember cytokinesis! {separation of cytoplasm, completes division}

371
Q

True or false - Circular DNA is found only in prokaryotes.

A

True.

372
Q

Chromosomal mutations are serious.

A

Could be brought about by deletion, insertion, duplication OR translocation….human disorders:a. cri du chatb. CML leukemiac. Down syndrome

373
Q

Retroviruses

A

ssRNA…transduction is the act of transfering the viral DNA.

374
Q

Krebs Cycle - Visual!

A

Make sure you know what the end products are.

375
Q

Virus structure - revisiting the REGULAR animal virus

A

Please note that I only described ingredients for bacteriophage prior to this.

377
Q

How to nucleotides polymerize in 3’ to 5’ direction?

A

…3’ carbon attached to a -OH group…5’ carbon attached to phosphate

378
Q

Meiosis -

A

The two cells that move from meiosis I into meiosis II are haploid—each have 23 replicated chromosomes.Separation of sister chromatids YIELDS 4 haploid cells.

379
Q

What are euchromatin?

A

Areas of chromosome-expressing genes; LESS tightly packed during interphase.

380
Q

____ is the breeding of a PP with a pp individual.

A

Test cross

381
Q

How do enzymes work?

A

Enzyme’s active site specifically binds substrate.Enzyme-Substrate complex changes shape

382
Q

What are mutations? Where do they occur? Why do they occur?

A

…heritable changes in DNA. They can be advantageous or deleterious….in both germ and somatic cells….either induced by mutagens or spontaneous.

383
Q

DNA Synthesis!

A

DNA –> RNA –> protein

384
Q

What proofreads each added nucleotide?

A

Exonuclease

385
Q

What are noncompetitive inhibitor?

A

…alter the enzyme site by binding to another portion of it (NOT active site)…substrate can ‘no longer fit’…addition of more substrate WILL NOT speed reaction

386
Q

What is the direction?

A

5’ to 3’…until terminator sequence is reached.

387
Q

How many binding sites does a ribosome have?

A

Four….one for the mRNA codon…three for the tRNAs: the A site (where tRNA binds), P site(break AA-tRNA bond and make AA-AA bond), the E site (easy to remember as EXIT site for tRNA)

388
Q

What’s an extremely famous and detrimental virus that doubles as an STD?

A

HIV.

389
Q

Bacilli

A

Rod Shaped

390
Q

Folic Acid

A

No letter

391
Q

Centriole

A

centriole /cen·tri·ole/ (sen´tre-ol) either of the two cylindrical organelles located in the centrosome and containing nine triplets of microtubules arrayed around their edges; centrioles migrate to opposite poles of the cell during cell division and serve to organize the spindles. They are capable of independent replication and of migrating to form basal bodies.

392
Q

When did Redi live

A

1627-1697

393
Q

Nucleolus

A

Site of ribosome assembly.

394
Q

Villi

A

(Singular:villus). Folds of the intestinal mucosa that project into the lumen of the intestine; vili serve to increase the surface area of the intestine for absorption.

395
Q

Adaptation

A

The development of characteristics that enable an organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.

396
Q

Hypothalamus

A

involved in maintaining body homeostasis. also controls the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.

397
Q

Delta Pancreatic Cells produce ________ which regulates its glucagon and insulin secretions

A

Somatostatin

398
Q

Aerobic Respiration

A

Respiration that requires oxygen.Pyruvate and NADH pass through the outter membrane via facilitated diffusion.Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA producing NADH nad CO2.Location: Mitochondrial Matrix

399
Q

Thyroid

A

T3, T4 and Calcitonin productionRegulated by TSH

400
Q

Anaphase II

A

Separation of chromatids (n)

401
Q

Phenotype

A

The physical characterisitcs resulting from the genotype. Phenotypes are usually described as dominant or recessive.

402
Q

Hemophilia

A

An X-linked recessive disorder in which blood fails to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding if injured.

403
Q

Platelets

A

Extremely small pseudo-cells in the blood, important for clotting. They are not true cells, but are broken-off bits of a larger cell (a megakaryocyte).

404
Q

Submucosa

A

The layer of connective tissue directly under the mucosa of an open body cavity.

405
Q

Z lines

A

The ends of a saromere.

406
Q

Aldosterone

A

Adrenal cortex; Reabsorption of Na+ and passive reabsorption of water into nephron; Rise in blood volume & blood pressure; Stimulates secretion of K+ and H+ into nephron -> excreted into urine; Regulated by renin-angiotensin system

407
Q

Glial cell

A

commonly called neuroglia, are non-neuronal cells that provide support and nutrition, maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and participate in signal transmission in the nervous system.

408
Q

Pelvic Girdle Bones

A

Pubic, ileum, and ischium

409
Q

The cochlea and the semicircular canals make up the _______ ear.

A

Inner.

410
Q

Peroxisomes

A

Organelles that consist of a membrane-lined vesicle that typically contains catalase which generates hydrogen peroxide used to detoxify various organi molecules;Involved in beta oxidation of fatty acids and are involved in photresperation and the glyoxylate cycle in plant cells

411
Q

Vertebrata

A

A subphylum in the phylum chrodata.

412
Q

Structural Proteins

A

Made from long polymers.Maintain and add strength to the cellular and matrix structure.

413
Q

Transduction

A

When the capsid of bacteriophage mistakenly encapsulate a DNA frag of a host cell and then these virions infect the new bacterium injecting harmless bacterial DNA frags in stead of virulent viral DNA fragments.Transfer of DNA via a virus.

414
Q

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

A

thyroitropinStimulates the thyroid to release T3, T4 using cAMP.T3 and T4 have a negative feedback effect on TSH release.

415
Q

Expiration

A

Relaxation of diaphram and external intercostalsStabilaztion of rib cage by internal intercostals and contraction of abdominal muscles, plus elasticity of lung, returns the organ to normal pre-repiratory resting phase.Generally speaking normal respiration does not involve much utilization of abdominal muscles untill ventilation exceeds 40L/minute. By contracting the abdominal muscles the contents of the abdomen are pushed upwards exerting force on the diaphram helping to force exhalation.

416
Q

Resolution

A

A function the reproductive system (conrolled by the sympathetic nervous system) that returns the body to its normal resting state after sexual arousal and orgasm.

417
Q

Phagocytosis

A

The non-specific uptake of solid material by a cell accomplished by englufing the particle with plasma membrane and drawing it into the cell.

418
Q

Diencephalon

A

The portion of theforebrain that includes the thalamus and hypothalamus.

419
Q

Gonadotropins

A

Anterior pituitary topic hormones FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing homeon) that stimulates the gonads (testes and ovaries) to produce gametes and to secrete sex steroids.

420
Q

Chemoreceptor

A

A sensory receptor that responds to specific chemicals. Some examples are gustatory (taste) receptors, olfactory (smell) receptors, and central chemoreceptors (responds to pH changes in teh cerebrospinal fluid).

421
Q

Autotroph

A

An organism that makes its own, typically using CO2 as a carbon source.

422
Q

Sister chromatid

A

Identical copies of a chromosome, produced during DNA replication and held together at the centromere Sister chromatids are separated during anaphase of mitosis.

423
Q

Prosthetic group

A

A non-protein, but organic, molecule (such as vitamin) that is covalently bound to an enzyme as part of the active site.

424
Q

Interneuron

A

A neuron found completely within the central nervous system. Interneous typically connect sensory and motor neurons, especially in reflex arcs.

425
Q

electrical synapses

A

uncommon, composed of gap junctions between cells. in cardiac muscle, visceral smooth muscle, and very few neurons in the CNS. transmit chemicals much faster than chemical synapses and in both directions.

426
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Movement that is directed by chemical gradients, such as nutrients or toxins. (seen in some bacteria)

427
Q

Number of bones in the Appendicular skeleton

A

126

428
Q

Jejunum

A

Second part of the small intestine, about equally concerned with digestion and absorption

429
Q

The Ductus Venosus shunts blood away from the ________.

A

LIVER.

430
Q

Gastric Glands and Pyloric Glands are in the ______

A

Stomach

431
Q

Mitochondria

A

Organelle composed of a smooth outer membrane and a folded finger-like inner membrane.Space inside the inner membrane is called the matrix.Synthesizes most of the cell’s ATP.

432
Q

Type II B Fibers

A

Fast-twitch B (White)Fatiue quickly.Contain large amounts of glycogen and low amounts of myogloboin.

433
Q

amphipathic

A

The characteristic of a molecule that has both polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar (hydrophobic) regions.

434
Q

Proteins

A

Amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.Polypeptides.Only major nutrient containing Nitrogen.

435
Q

Ribosomes

A

The cellular complexes that direct the synthesis of proteins.

436
Q

Phospholipid

A

Composed of a phosphate group, two fatty acid chains, and a glycerol backbone.Phosphate is polar, fatty acids are nonpolar.

437
Q

Cerebrum (Cerebral Cortex)

A

Stores memories and processes thoughts

438
Q

Arousal

A

A function in the reproductive system, controlled by
the parasympathetic nervous system, that includes
erection (via dilation of erectile arteries) and
lubrication.

439
Q

Telophase II

A

Four daughter cells result from original parent cell. Cytokinesis. (n)

440
Q

Pleural pressure

A

The pressure in the (theoretical) space between the lung surface and the inner wall of the chest cavity.

441
Q

Vein

A

A blood vessel that carries blood toward the heart chambers. Veins do not have muscular walls, have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only, and are typically low-pressure vessels.

442
Q

Spermatid

A

A haploid but immature cell resulting from the second meiotic division f spermatogenesis. Spermatids undergo significant physical changes to become mature sperm (spermatozoa).

443
Q

Iris

A

A pigmented membrane found just in from the lens of the eye. In the center of iris is the pupil, a hole through which light enters the eyeball. The iris regulates the diameter of the pupil in response to the brightness of light.

444
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

Cytoskeletal filaments with a diameter in between that of the microtubule and the microfilament. Intermediate filaments are composed of many different proteins and tend to play structural roles in cells.

445
Q

Antiporter

A

A carrier protein that transports two molecules acrss the plasma membrane in opposite directions.

446
Q

Bicarbonate

A

HCO3-. THis ion results from the dissociation of carbonic acid, together wiht carbonic acid forms the the major blood buffer system. Bicarbonate is also secreted by teh pancreas to neutralize stomach acid in the intestines.

447
Q

Poly-A tail

A

A string of several hundred adenine nucletodies added to the 3’ end of the eukaryotic mRNA.

448
Q

Metaphase II

A

The second phase of meiosis II. Metaphase II is identical to mitotic metaphase, except that the number of chromosomes was reduced by half during meiosis I.

449
Q

Bohr effect

A

The tendency of certain factors to stablize the hemoglobin in the tense conformation, thus reducing its affinity for oxygen and enhancing the relase of oxygen to the tissues. The factors include increased PCO2, increase temperature, increased bisphosphoglycerate (BPG), and decreased pH. Note that the Bohr effect shifts the oxy-hemolobin saturation curve to the right.

450
Q

Genetic code

A

The ‘language’ of a molecular biology that specifies which amino acid corresponds to which three-nucleotide group (codon).

451
Q

Endocrine gland

A

A ductless gland that secretes a hormone into the blood

452
Q

F (fertility) factor

A

A bacterial extrachromosal elent that allows the bacterium to initati conjugation. Bacteria that possess teh F factor are known as F+ ‘males’.

453
Q

Partial pressure

A

The contribution of an individual gas to the total ppressure of a mixture of gases. Partial pressures are used to describe the amounts of the various gases carried in the bloodstream.

454
Q

Gram-positive bacteria

A

Bacteria that have a thick peptido glycan cell wall, and no outer membrane. They stain very darkly (purple) in Gram stain.

455
Q

Cytosine

A

One of the four aromatic bases found in DNA and RNA. Cytosine is a pyrimidine; it pairs with guanine.

456
Q

Action potential

A

a spike of electrical discharge that travels along the membrane of a cell.

457
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

a special type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum found in smooth and striated muscle. lumen is filled with Ca2+ ions

458
Q

Dense connective tissue

A

Connective tissue with large amounts of either collagen fibers (making them strong) or elastic fibers, or both. Dense tissues are typically strong (e.g. bone, cartilage, tendons, etc.)

459
Q

Colon

A

Part of the large intestine which is responsible for absorbing water and salts

460
Q

The higher the pressure of O2 the _____ the hemoglobin will be willing to give up its O2.

A

MORE.

461
Q

TATA Binding Protein

A

Protein involved in eukaryotes for intiationof transcripitonof at least some genes

462
Q

Glycerophospholipids

A

Contain a glycerol linked to two fatty acyl groups and one phosphate group

463
Q

B cell

A

A type of lymphocyte that can recognize (bind to) an antigen and secrete an antibody specific for that antigen. When activated by binding an antigen, these mature into plasma cells (that secrete antibody) and memory cells (that patrol the body for future encounters with that antigen).

464
Q

Unsaturated Fatty Acids

A

Contain one or more carbon-carbon double bonds.

465
Q

Gram staining

A

Used to prepare bacteria for viewing under a microscope.Stains gram positive (purple)and negative (pink) differently.

466
Q

Central Nervous System

A

Consists of the interneuron and support tissue within the brain and spinal cord.Function is to integrate nervous signals between sensory and motor neurons.Interneurons

467
Q

Comparative Anatomy

A

Evidence of the descent of separate species from a common ancestor can be found by comparing anatomical structures (as well as by other means such as examining DNA and the fossil record). Homologous structures are ones that are anatomically similar but may not serve similar functions. For instance, the forelimbs of all mammals are homologous structures since they are constructed from the same skeletal elements even though they may serve vastly different functions in different species.

468
Q

Nucleotide functions in cells

A
  1. Nucleotide triphosphates transport energy2. Nucleotide triphosphates serve as monomers for the synthesis of RNA and DNA3. Nucleotides may be modified into chemical signals for use within a cell(cyclic AMP)
469
Q

noncompetitive inhibitor

A
  1. molecule that inhibits the activity of an enzyme by binding to a regulatory site on the enzyme, thereby changing the conformation of the enzyme.2. because these inhibitors do not directly compete with the substrate, increasing the substrate concentration usually has little effect on the catalytic rate
470
Q

Nucleosome

A

A structure composed of two coils of DNA wrapped around an octet of histone proteins. The nucleosome is the primary form of packagin of eukaryotic DNA.

471
Q

Log phase

A

The period of exponential growth of bacterial population.

472
Q

Pulmonary edema

A

The collection of fluid in the alveoli, particularly dangerous because it impedes gas exchange. Common causes of pulmonary edema are increased pulmonary blood pressure or infection of the respiratory system.

473
Q

Local autoregulation

A

The ability of tissues to regulate their own blood flow in the absence of neural stiulation. THis is generally accomplished via metabolic wastes (such as CO2) that act as vasodilators.

474
Q

Facultative anaerobe

A

An organism that will use oxygen (aerobic metabolism) if it is available, and that can ferment (anaerobic metabolism) if it is not.

475
Q

Ciliary muscles

A

Muscles that help focus light on teh retin by controlling the curvature of the lens of the eye.

476
Q

Brush border enzymes

A

Enzymes secreted by the mucosal cells lining the intestine. The brush border enzymes are disaccharides adn dipeptidases taht digest the smallest peptides and carbohydrates into their respective monomers.

477
Q

Functional synctium

A

A tissue in which the cytoplasms of the cells are connected by gap junctions, allowing the cells to function as a unit. Cardiac and smooth muscle tissues are examples of functional synctiums.

478
Q

Urinary sphincter

A

The valve that controls the release of urine from the bladder. It has an internal part made of smooth muscle (thus involuntary) and an external part made of skeletal muscle (thus voluntary).

479
Q

Adductor

A

A muscle that moves a limb toward the center of a body.

480
Q

Ductus arteriorsus & foramen ovale

A

shunt blood from the lungs

481
Q

Complement system

A

A group of blood proteins that bind non-specifically to the surface proteins of foreign cells (such as bacteria), ultimately leading to the destruction of the foreign cell - part of the innate immunity.

482
Q

The Ectoderm layer includes: _____

A

Integument, hair/nails/skin. The Lens of the Eye, and the nervous system.

483
Q

Osteoblasts are regulated by…

A

Osteoblasts are regulated by parathyroid hormone

484
Q

and osteoclasts are regulated by…

A

osteoclasts are regulated by osteoblasts.The 3 kinds of joints:

485
Q

Name the 3 kinds of joints and describe them.

A

1.Immovable joints connect bones that do not move relative to each other, such as bones of the skull.2.Partly movable joints connect bones that exhibit some flexibility of movement and usually have cartilage b/w them, such as bones of the vertebral column.3.Synovial joints allow a wide range of movement and are lubricated by synovial fluid.

486
Q

Anal sphincter

A

The valve that controls the release of feces from the rectum. It has an internal part made of smooth muscle (thus involuntary) and an external part made of skeletal muscle (thus voluntary).

487
Q

Phosphodiester Bond

A

The bond formed between C3 of one deoxyribose and C5 of the other which creates a sugar-phosphate backbone of a single strand of DNA with 5’->3’ directionality.

488
Q

Anterioir pituitary gland

A

Also known as the adenohypophysis, the anterior
pituitary is made of gland tissue and makes and
secretes six different homrones: FSH, LH, ACTH,
prolactin, TSH, and growth hormone. The anterior
pituitary is controlled b yreleasing and inhibiting
factors from the hypothalamus

489
Q

Mutations

A

A mutation is a change in the sequence of nucleotides in a gene. Mutations can occur spontaneously as a result of errors during DNA replication, repair, or recombination. Ionizing radiation and certain chemicals can also cause mutations.

490
Q

A site

A

Amino-acyl tRNA site; the site on a ribosome where a new amino acid is added to a growing peptide.

491
Q

Secondary sex characteristics

A

The set of adult characteristics that develop during puberty under the control of the sex steroids. In males the secondary sex characteristics include enlargement and maturation of the genitalia, growth of facial, body, and pubic hair, increased muscle ma

492
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

The division of the autonomic nervous system known as the ‘resting and digesting’ system. It causes a general decrease in body activities such as heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure, and an increase in blood flow to the GI tract and

493
Q

Venous returns

A

The amount of blood returned to heart by the vena cavae.

494
Q

Posterior pituitary gland

A

Also known as the neurohyophysis, the posterior pituitary is made of nervous tisssue and stores and secretes two hormones made by the hypothlamus; oxtytocin and ADH. The posterior pituitary is controlled by action potentials from the hypothalamus.

495
Q

Epididymis

A

A long, coiled duct on the outside of the testis in which sperm mature.

496
Q

Convergent evolution

A

A form of evolution in which different organisms are placed into the same environment and exposed to teh same selection pressures. This causes the organisms to evolve along similar lines. As a result, they may share functional, but not structural similari

497
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

The second major node of the cardiac conduction system (after the SA node). The cardiac impulse is delayed slightly at teh AV node, allowing the ventricles to contract just after the atria contract.

498
Q

Left atrium

A

one of the four chambers in the human heart, receiving oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins and pumping it into the left ventricle.

499
Q

Pyridoxine (B6) Physiological Role

A

Coenzyme in amino acid and fat metabolism

500
Q

Gases move from areas of ____ partial pressure to areas of ______ partial pressure.

A

Higher to LOWER

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