Mature Lymphoid Neoplasm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common leukemia in adults in Western countries?
a) AML
b) ALL
c) CLL
d) CML

A

Answer: c) CLL

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2
Q

What is the median age of diagnosis for CLL?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 72
d) 80

A

Answer: c) 72

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3
Q

What is a characteristic morphological finding in CLL?
a) Reed-Sternberg cells
b) Smudge cells
c) Blast cells
d) Starry sky pattern

A

Answer: b) Smudge cells

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4
Q

Which B-cell markers are expressed in CLL?
a) CD3, CD7
b) CD19, CD20, CD23
c) CD34, CD117
d) CD15, CD30

A

Answer: b) CD19, CD20, CD23

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5
Q

What is the worst prognostic indicator in CLL?
a) Del(13q)
b) Del(17p) and TP53 mutation
c) CD5 expression
d) Presence of smudge cells

A

B

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6
Q

What type of cells accumulate in CLL?

A) T-cells
B) B-cells
C) Plasma cells
D) Natural Killer cells

A

B

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7
Q

What percentage of lymphocytes appear small and mature in CLL?

A) 50%
B) 65%
C) 85%
D) 95%

A

C

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8
Q

What is the worst prognostic indicator for CLL?

A) Trisomy 12
B) Del(13q)
C) Del(17p) and TP53 mutation
D) CD20 expression

A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical marker for CLL?

A) CD19
B) CD20
C) CD23
D) CD56

A

Answer: D) CD56

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10
Q

What is the standard approach for asymptomatic CLL patients?

A) Chemotherapy
B) Immediate stem cell transplant
C) Watch and wait
D) Total body irradiation

A

C

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11
Q

Which of the following is a BTK inhibitor used in CLL treatment?
A) Venetoclax
B) Ibrutinib
C) Idelalisib
D) Alemtuzumab

A

B

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12
Q

Which leukemia subtype is characterized by prolymphocytes in peripheral blood?
A) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
B) Prolymphocytic Leukemia (PLL)
C) Hairy Cell Leukemia
D) Large Granular Lymphocytic Leukemia

A

B

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13
Q

What is the primary site of involvement in small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)?
A) Peripheral blood
B) Lymph nodes
C) Bone marrow
D) CNS

A

B

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14
Q

What is the most specific marker for classic hairy cell leukemia (HCL)?
A) CD23
B) CD103
C) Annexin A1
D) CD5

A

C

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15
Q

What is the primary diagnostic method for CLL?
a) Bone marrow biopsy
b) Peripheral blood smear and immunophenotyping
c) MRI scan
d) PET scan

A

B

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16
Q

What staging systems are used in CLL prognosis?
a) FAB and WHO
b) Rai and Binet
c) Ann Arbor
d) TNM

A

B

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17
Q

What is the most powerful prognostic factor in CLL?
a) Age
b) IGHv mutation status
c) WBC count
d) Presence of smudge cells

A

B

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18
Q

What is the approximate annual incidence rate of CLL in the U.S.?
a) 0.5%
b) 1.1%
c) 2.5%
d) 5%

A

B

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19
Q

What is a common first-line treatment for CLL in the past?
a) Imatinib
b) Chlorambucil
c) Methotrexate
d) Hydroxyurea

A

B

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20
Q

What is the preferred treatment for CLL patients with a TP53 mutation?
a) Chemotherapy alone
b) Targeted therapy (BTK, PI3K, BCL2 inhibitors)

A

B

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21
Q

Which of the following is a BCL2 inhibitor used in CLL?
a) Dasatinib
b) Venetoclax
c) Everolimus
d) Pomalidomide

A

B

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22
Q

Which leukemia is characterized by large atypical lymphoid cells?
a) CLL
b) Prolymphocytic Leukemia (PLL)
c) Hairy Cell Leukemia
d) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

A

B

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23
Q

What marker is highly specific for Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL)?
a) CD3
b) Annexin A1
c) CD34
d) MPO

A

B

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24
Q

Which type of leukemia is commonly associated with HTLV-1 infection?
a) CLL
b) Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma (ATLL)
c) Burkitt Lymphoma
d) Follicular Lymphoma

A

B

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25
What cytogenetic abnormality is characteristic of Mantle Cell Lymphoma (MCL)? a) t(11;14) translocation b) t(9;22) c) t(15;17) d) t(8;14)
A
26
What is the median age of diagnosis for Hairy Cell Leukemia? a) 40 years b) 50 years c) 60 years d) 70 years
C
27
Which leukemia typically shows "flower cells" in blood smears? a) Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma (ATLL) b) Burkitt Lymphoma c) Follicular Lymphoma d) Hodgkin Lymphoma
A
28
Which lymphoma is associated with a "Starry Sky" appearance on histology? a) Burkitt Lymphoma b) Mantle Cell Lymphoma c) CLL d) Hodgkin Lymphoma
A
29
What is a hallmark immunophenotypic feature of Sezary Syndrome? a) CD4+ T-cells with cerebriform nuclei b) CD8+ T-cells with convoluted nuclei c) CD10+ B-cells d) CD20+ B-cells
A
30
Which lymphoma is most often associated with Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)? a) Endemic Burkitt Lymphoma b) CLL c) Hairy Cell Leukemia d) Follicular Lymphoma
A
31
Which lymphoma subtype has a high association with Hepatitis C infection? a) Mantle Cell Lymphoma b) Marginal Zone Lymphoma (MZL) c) Hodgkin Lymphoma d) Burkitt Lymphoma
B
32
Which type of Hodgkin Lymphoma is the most common? a) Nodular Sclerosis b) Lymphocyte-Rich c) Mixed Cellularity d) Lymphocyte-Depleted
A
33
What cell type is diagnostic for classic Hodgkin Lymphoma? a) Reed-Sternberg cells b) Smudge cells c) Centrocytes d) Hairy cells
A
34
Which treatment is used for advanced-stage Hodgkin Lymphoma? a) CHOP b) ABVD regimen c) Imatinib d) Rituximab
B
35
36
What is the 5-year survival rate for Hodgkin Lymphoma? a) 86% b) 50% c) 70% d) 30%
A
37
37
Which B-cell lymphoma is considered highly aggressive but potentially curable? a) Burkitt Lymphoma b) Follicular Lymphoma c) Mantle Cell Lymphoma d) Marginal Zone Lymphoma
A
38
What is the median age of diagnosis for Prolymphocytic Leukemia (PLL)? a) 40 years b) 50 years c) 70 years d) 60 years
C
39
Which of the following genetic abnormalities is commonly seen in Follicular Lymphoma (FL)? a) t(9;22) b) t(14;18) c) t(15;17) d) t(8;14)
B
40
What is the primary site of involvement in Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma (SLL)? a) Lymph nodes b) Peripheral blood c) Bone marrow d) Liver
A
41
What staging system is commonly used for Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)? a) Rai staging b) Ann Arbor staging c) Binet staging d) FAB classification
B
42
What is the main clinical feature of Prolymphocytic Leukemia (PLL)? a) Peripheral lymphocytosis with smudge cells b) Aggressive disease with splenomegaly and high WBC count c) Mild cytopenia and indolent course d) Bone marrow fibrosis
B
43
Which of the following lymphomas exhibits centrocytes and centroblasts in lymph node biopsy? a) Hodgkin Lymphoma b) Follicular Lymphoma (FL) c) Mantle Cell Lymphoma (MCL) d) Burkitt Lymphoma
B
44
What histological appearance is seen in Burkitt Lymphoma (BL)? a) Reed-Sternberg cells b) Starry sky pattern c) Prolymphocytes d) Smudge cells
B
45
Which leukemia is associated with villous lymphocytes? a) CLL b) Splenic Marginal Zone Lymphoma (SMZL) c) Hairy Cell Leukemia d) Acute Myeloid Leukemia
B
46
What is a characteristic morphologic finding in Large Granular Lymphocytic (LGL) Leukemia? a) Abundant pale blue cytoplasm with azurophilic granules b) Cells with condensed chromatin and cleaved nuclei c) Giant multinucleated cells d) Cells with high mitotic index
A
47
Which marker is typically negative in Splenic Marginal Zone Lymphoma (SMZL)? a) CD19 b) CD103 c) CD20 d) CD5
B
48
What is the first-line therapy for Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL)? a) Cladribine (2-CDA) b) Rituximab c) Venetoclax d) Imatinib
A
49
What monoclonal antibody is used to treat T-cell Prolymphocytic Leukemia (T-PLL)? a) Rituximab b) Ibrutinib c) Alemtuzumab (anti-CD52) d) Blinatumomab
C
50
What is the preferred treatment for Mantle Cell Lymphoma (MCL) patients who relapse? a) CHOP chemotherapy b) Ibrutinib (BTK inhibitor) c) Rituximab monotherapy d) CAR-T therapy
B
51
Which targeted therapy is used for Waldenström’s Macroglobulinemia? a) Venetoclax b) Ibrutinib c) Methotrexate d) Bortezomib
B
52
What is the standard treatment for aggressive Burkitt Lymphoma (BL)? a) CHOP b) Intensive chemotherapy (Hyper-CVAD, CODOX-M/IVAC) c) Low-dose radiation d) Watchful waiting
B
53
What infection is strongly associated with Extranodal Marginal Zone Lymphoma (MALT type)? a) Helicobacter pylori b) Epstein-Barr virus c) Hepatitis C d) HIV
A
54
Which lymphoma is most commonly associated with profound immunosuppression in HIV patients? a) Mantle Cell Lymphoma b) Burkitt Lymphoma (BL) c) Hodgkin Lymphoma d) Splenic Marginal Zone Lymphoma
B
55
What lymphoma is associated with retroviral infection by HTLV-1? a) Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma (ATLL) b) Follicular Lymphoma c) Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma d) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
A
56
What is the primary site of involvement in Extranodal NK/T-cell Lymphoma? a) Bone marrow b) Nasal cavity c) Peripheral blood d) Lymph nodes
B
57
What is the major complication seen in Waldenström’s Macroglobulinemia? a) Hyperviscosity syndrome b) Tumor lysis syndrome c) Bone marrow fibrosis d) Myelodysplasia
A
58
What is the key difference between Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma? a) Hodgkin Lymphoma primarily involves bone marrow b) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma always follows an indolent course c) Hodgkin Lymphoma has Reed-Sternberg cells d) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma only affects older adults
C
59
Which subtype of Hodgkin Lymphoma is the most aggressive? a) Nodular Lymphocyte Predominant HL b) Lymphocyte-Depleted HL c) Mixed Cellularity HL d) Nodular Sclerosis HL
B
60
Which Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype is most common? a) Lymphocyte-rich HL b) Nodular Sclerosis HL c) Mixed Cellularity HL d) Lymphocyte-Depleted HL
B
61
Which of the following Non-Hodgkin Lymphomas has the highest cure rate with chemotherapy? a) Burkitt Lymphoma b) Follicular Lymphoma c) Marginal Zone Lymphoma d) Mantle Cell Lymphoma
A
63
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