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A&P - General > Materials and Processes and Ground Operations and Servicing > Flashcards

Materials and Processes and Ground Operations and Servicing Flashcards

1
Q

Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect

A

flaws on or near the surface

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2
Q

What are the visual indications when identifying stress fractures with magnetic particles testing?

A

Very fine, sharp lines will not buildup as a result of flaw depth

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3
Q

Liquid penetrant inspection method may be used on which of the following?
2. Ferrous metals
3. Non-ferrous metals
5. Non-porous plastics

A

2, 3, 5

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4
Q

Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most petals, plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?

A

Ultrasonic inspection

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5
Q

Which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines?

A

Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter

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6
Q

What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat treat conditions?

A

Eddy current inspection

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7
Q

What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?

A

Continuous

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8
Q

How many of these factors are considered essential knowledge for x ray exposure?

A

Material thickness and density and the type of defect being detected

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9
Q

The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilities ferromagnetic material that has

A

high permeability and low retentivity

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10
Q

Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?

A

It may be used only with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications

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11
Q

A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?

A

Metallic ring test

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12
Q

What two types of indicating medium are available for magnetic particle inspection?

A

Wet and dry process materials

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13
Q

Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?

A

Iron alloys

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14
Q

One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by

A

slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength

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15
Q

Which type of crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization?

A

45 degrees

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16
Q

Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface in aluminum forgings and castings?

A

Dye penetrant inspection and eddy current inspection

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17
Q

To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires

A

a longer-than-normal penetrating time

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18
Q

Which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when conducting a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection?

A

The size and shape of discontinuities being looked for

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19
Q

When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to

A

reveal all possible defects

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20
Q

In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux generally causes

A

a large disruption in the magnetic field

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21
Q

If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part

A

was not thoroughly was before developer was applied

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22
Q
  1. An aircraft part may be demagnetizing by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength.
  2. An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength
A

Both No.1 and No.2 are true

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23
Q

The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming

A

parallel lines

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24
Q

A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned with

A

a volatile petroleum base solvent

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25
Q

Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?

A

The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part

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26
Q

In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer

A

acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication

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27
Q

What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable?

A

Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part

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28
Q

Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects?

A

Defects parallel to the long axis of the part

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29
Q
  1. In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part
  2. A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part
A

Both No.1 and No.2 are true

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30
Q

What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished?

A

Intergranular

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31
Q

Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?

A

Decreases internal stresses and softening the metal

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32
Q

Which heat treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core?

A

Case hardening

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33
Q

Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?

A

Case hardening

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34
Q

Normalizing is a process of heat treating

A

Iron-base metals only

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35
Q

Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force, such as rolling, hammering, or bending is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature?

A

The metals become strain or work hardened or cold worked

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36
Q

The reheating of a heat treated metal such with a welding torch

A

can significantly alter a metals properties in the reheated area

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37
Q

Why is steel tempered after being hardened?

A

To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness

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38
Q

What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment?

A

3003-F

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39
Q

Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?

A

Clad aluminum alloy

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40
Q

What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed?

A

Slow cooling; low strength

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41
Q

Torque values for aircraft bolts normally consider

A

the threads to be clean and dry

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42
Q

What is generally used in construction of aircraft exhaust collectors, stacks and manifolds?

A

Stainless steel

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43
Q

What metal has special short time heat properties and is sued in the construction of aircraft firewalls?

A

Titanium alloys

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44
Q

Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is

A

upward or in a forward direction

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45
Q

Alclad is a metal consisting of

A

pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core

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46
Q

A fibre type, self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is

A

subject to rotation

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47
Q

Self-locking nut may be used on aircraft provided that

A

the bolt or nut is not subject to rotation

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48
Q

The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number ‘4130’ designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the

A

basic alloying element

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49
Q

Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt head are

A

standard steel bolts

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50
Q

Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?

A

In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness

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51
Q

Generally speaking, bolt grip length should be

A

equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together

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52
Q

When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the recommended torque values be found?

A

AC 43.13-1B

53
Q

A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to

A

change washers and try again

54
Q

A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an

A

AN corrosion resistant steel bolt

55
Q

How is a clevis bolt used with a fork end cable terminal secured?

A

With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin

56
Q

Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?

A

Only for shear load application

57
Q

A bolt with an X inside a triangle in the head is classified as an

A

NAS close tolerance bolt

58
Q

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

A

heat treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum

59
Q

The aluminum code 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?

A

99 percent commercially pure aluminum

60
Q

Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a

A

Class 3 fit for the threads

61
Q

In the four digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates

A

The majoring alloying element

62
Q

How is the locking feature of the fibre type locknut obtained?

A

By the use of an unthreaded locking insert

63
Q

Why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld nomenclature?

A

In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used

64
Q

Why is it considered good practice to normalise a part after welding?

A

To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal

65
Q

What materials do you normalize?

A

Ferrous

66
Q

Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken?

A

Remove all the old weld and reweld the joint

67
Q

What would leftover weld be called?

A

Leg

68
Q

Which condition indicated a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?

A

Cracking adjacent to the weld

69
Q

Select a characteristic of a good gas weld

A

The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal

70
Q

One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than

A

1/2 inch

71
Q

In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a mechanic should be familiar with

A

likely ambient exposure conditions and intended use of the part, along with the type of weld and original part material composition

72
Q

On a fillet weld, penetration requirement include what percentage of the base thickness?

A

25 to 50 percent

73
Q

Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk?

A

Dial indicator

74
Q

Identify the correct statement

A

Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measuring device

75
Q

Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness?

A

Thickness gauge

76
Q

Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer?

A

.0001

77
Q

What numerican weight does the number 5 represent in 64,592?

A

100

78
Q

Which tool is used to find the centre of a shaft or other cylindrical work?

A

Combination set

79
Q

If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 in diameter, the mechanic should use a

A

small hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge

80
Q

What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension?

A

Machinist scale

81
Q

What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy?

A

Gauge block

82
Q

What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crank pin and main bearing journals for out of round wear?

A

Micrometer caliper

83
Q

The side clearances of piston rings are measured with a

A

thickness gauge

84
Q

How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?

A

Telescopic gauge and micrometer

85
Q

The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a

A

thickness gauge

86
Q

The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a

A

Thickness gauge

87
Q

What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-type valve for stretch?

A

Micrometer

88
Q

What tool can be used to determine piston pin out-of-round wear?

A

Micrometer caliper

89
Q

During starting of a turbine powerplant using a compressed air start, a hung start occured. Select the proper procedure

A

Shut off the fuel

90
Q

A hung start in a get engine is often caused by

A

the start cutting off too soon

91
Q

Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some aircraft?

A

If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the torque-link should be set to full swivel

92
Q

Which statement is/are true regarding tiedown of small aircraft?

A

Nylon or dacron rope is preferred over manilla rope

93
Q

When approaching the front of a idling engine, the hazards area extends forward of the engine approximately?

A

25 feet

94
Q

Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on carburetor or intake fire?

A

Carbon dioxide

95
Q

If a radial engine has been shutdown for more than 30 mins, the propellor should be rotated through at least two revolutions to

A

check for hydraulic lock

96
Q

The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in the

A

FULL-RICH position

97
Q

The most important condition to be monitored during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the

A

EGT, TIT or ITT

98
Q

Which of the following conditions has the most potential for causing engine damage when starting or attempting to start a turbine engine?

A

Hot start

99
Q

How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel?

A

Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge has been cleared

100
Q

Generally when an induction fire occurs during starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of action should be to

A

continue cranking to start the engine if possible

101
Q

If a fire develops in an engine during the start procedure, you should

A

continue cranking to start the engine and extinguish the fire

102
Q

When starting and ground operating an aircraft’s engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily

A

For engine cooling purposes

103
Q

When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet engine, the hazard are extends aft of the engine approximately?

A

100 feet

104
Q

If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbojet power plant, what is the likely cause?

A

The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich

105
Q

What effect will aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel have on turbine engine?

A

The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposit on the turbine blades

106
Q
  1. Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation gasoline and therefore holds contaminants better
A

Only No.1 is true

107
Q

When towing a large aircraft

A

a person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes

108
Q

Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing

A

a tail-wheel-type airplane in a direct crosswind

109
Q

When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind, the elevators and

A

upwind aileron should be held in the down position

110
Q

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing red light from the control tower means

A

move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately

111
Q

A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the pilot field of vision whenever the engine is running to avoid

A

the tail rotor

112
Q

In the fully articulated rotor system, the blades are attached to the hub with multiple hinges. How are the blades hinged?

A

They are hinged in a way that allows them to move up or down, and fore and aft

113
Q

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing white light from the control tower means

A

return to starting point

114
Q

When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a alternating red and green light from the control tower means

A

OK to proceed but use extreme caution

115
Q

When stopping a nose-wheel type airplane after taxiing, the nosewheel should be left

A

pointed straight ahead

116
Q

When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing, it is important to

A

Test the brakes

117
Q

The color of 1100L fuel is

A

Blue

118
Q

How are aviation fuels, which possess greater antiknock quantities than 100 octane, classified?

A

By performance numbers

119
Q

Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation gasoline?

A

To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers

120
Q

Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each?

A

Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume than gasoline

121
Q

What must accompany fuel vaporization?

A

An absorption of heat

122
Q

Characteristics of detonations are

A

rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power

123
Q

A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause

A

Vapor lock

124
Q

A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

A

hard starting

125
Q

Jet fuel number identifiers are

A

type numbers and have no relation to the fuels performance in the aircrafts engine

126
Q

The main differences between grades 100 and 100LL are

A

lead content and color

127
Q

Characteristics of aviation gasoline are

A

high heat value, high volatility

128
Q

Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to

A

improve the gasoline’s performance in the engine

129
Q

A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

A

hard starting

A&P - General (11 decks)

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