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RUSVM Immunology (Semester 2) > Matching Questions > Flashcards

Matching Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Circulating lymphocytes enter lymph nodes and Peyer’s patches by migrating out of this vessel

A

high endothelial venule

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2
Q

This term describes the increase in the number of blood eosinophils that occurs in some parasitic infestations:

A

eosinophilia

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3
Q

Antibody produced to somatic [O] antigen will bind to epitopes on this bacterial structure:

A

lipopolysaccharide

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4
Q

Enzymes of NK cells and cytolytic T cells that activate cellular apoptotic pathways:

A

granzymes

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5
Q

Serves as BCR on naive B cells:

A

monomeric IgM

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6
Q

The subset of CD4+ T cells that secrete cytokines that mostly stimulate B cells to produce antibody

A

TH2 cells

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7
Q

Germinal centers can be detected in this organ:

A

Spleen

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8
Q

Individuals or animals that lack this enzyme fail to produce mature T and B cells

A

DNA-dependent protein kinase

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9
Q

Antigen-binding regions of TCRab and BCR

A

Complementarity-determining regions

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10
Q

What are the predominant cells in acute inflammation?

A

neutrophils & macrophages

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11
Q

Group of serum proteins that can lyse antibody-coated Gram-negative bacteria:

A

Complement

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12
Q

Amino acid differences in the constant regions of these immunoglobulin chains form the basis for the 5 classes of immunoglobulin molecules

A

Immunoglobulin heavy chains

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13
Q

Mutation in the gene encoding granzymes will impair the effector function of this host immune cell:

A

NK cell

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14
Q

TAP [transporter associated with antigen processing] proteins play a major role in antigen presentation by this MHC molecule

A

Class I MHC Molecule

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15
Q

Pus [abscess] is an inflammatory exudate consisting of cell debris, microorganisms, and dead leukocytes [mostly neutrophils] observed at sites of some bacterial infections. This bacterial product is a major contributor to abscess development

A

Leukocidin

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16
Q

Long-lived plasma cells are found in this lymphoid organ:

A

Bone Marrow

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17
Q

This inflammatory reaction is characterized by the predominance of mononuclear cell, which include macrophages, epithelioid cells, and lymphocytes:

A

chronic inflammation

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18
Q

Treatment of choice when attending to a horse presenting with clinical signs of tetanus:

A

tetanus antitoxin

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19
Q

Cell membrane molecule expressed by both naive T cell and effector T cell:

A

CD28

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20
Q

A physiologic function of humoral immunity is providing host defense against these bacteria:

A

extracellular bacteria

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21
Q

Deficiency of *this *antibody may predispose to helminth infestations:

A

IgE

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22
Q

Phagolysosomes are formed during which phase of phagocytosis?

A

microbial digestion

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23
Q

ADCC involves the killing of antibody-coated targets by host immune cells. Which cell has no role in ADCC-mediated target killing?

A

Cytolytic T lymphocyte

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24
Q

What are the predominant lymphocytes in blood?

A

T lymphocytes

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25
Q

What is the 3rd phase of the antibody immune response?

A

Plateau phase

26
Q

Clonal selection occurs when a B cell encounters a:

A

Clonal selection occurs when a B cell encounters an antigen

27
Q

*This *chemical can destroy a helminth parasite by extensively damaging its cuticle:

A

Major basic protein

28
Q

Protein consisting of immunoglobulin light chains found in the urine of animals or individuals with multiple myelomas

A

Bence Jones proteins

29
Q

Antigen presentation by this MHC molecule is affected if the microbial protein inhibits the activity of the cytoplasmic organelle called proteosome:

A

Class I MHC Molecule

30
Q

Components of innate immunity provide the first and second lines of host defense against invading microbes. This line of host defense includes the skin epidermis.

A

First line of defense

31
Q

Activation and clonal expansion of antigen-specific T cells occur in this lymphoid organ:

A

Spleen

32
Q

Leukocyte extravasion from the bloodstream to sites of microbial invasion is a tightly coordinated series of steps. This event is the 3rd step in leukocyte extravasion:

A

Leukocyte arrest & adhesion

33
Q

This type of host defense describes the production of IgE in response to helminth infestation

A

naturally acquired active immunity

34
Q

Engagement of this T cell membrane receptor and its B7 protein ligand, results in inactivation of the T cell

A

CTLA-4

35
Q

Perforins and granzymes are found in the cytoplasic granules of this T cell

A

Effector cytolytic T lymphocyte

36
Q

May be used interchangeably with antibody class:

A

antibody isotype

37
Q

Bacterial structure that protects the bacterium from phagocytosis:

A

capsule

38
Q

FOllowing antigenic stimulation, a primary lymphoid follicle becomes:

A

a secondary lymphoid follicle

39
Q

____________ is the term used to describe cellular suicide

A

apoptosis

40
Q

Which is more effective in activating the complement system: IgG or IgM?

A

IgM

41
Q

The function of the mucociliary escalator is to:

A

remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract

42
Q

M cells are antigen transporting cells found in the:

A

intestinal mucosa

43
Q

_________ trigger overproduction of cytokines

A

superantigens

44
Q

Which immunoglobulin is produced in the highest concentration in the bdy?

A

IgA

45
Q

Engagement of which B cell receptro with its ligand will inhibit B cell activation?

A

CD32b

46
Q

What are Bacterial H antigens?

A

flagellar antigens

47
Q

__________ refers to the antigenic differences in the constant light and constant heavy regions

A

isotype

48
Q

__________ refers to the antigenic determinants formed by the amino acids in the hypervariable reigions.

A

idiotype

49
Q

Which phase of antibody production is defined by a time period when no antibody in the antigen can be detected in serum

A

lag

50
Q

True or False:

Granzymes are pore forming proteins present in the granules of CTLs that attach to target cell membranes

A

False.

Granzymes are released by CTLs and induce target cell apoptosis. Perforins are pore forming proteins released by CTLs

51
Q

Which is more desirable in the dairy industry:

High citrate:lactoferrin ratio or low citrate:lactoferrin ratio?

A

low citrate:lactoferrin ratio

High citrate:lactoferrin ratio encourages bacterial growth since citrate can be broken down by bacteria, releasing iron and encouraging bacterial growth and udder disease.

52
Q

The Fimbria antigen is also known as:

A

F antigen

53
Q

The Capsular antigen is also known as:

A

K antigen

54
Q

The Flagellar antigen is also known as:

A

H antigen

55
Q

LPS is also known as:

A

O antigen

56
Q

True or False:

Many protozoa have thick cuticles that make them resistant to the cytocidal products of neutrophils and macrophages.

A

False, asshole.

This is true of helminths

57
Q

Which cytokine is most closely associated with stimulation of development and activation of eosinophils?

A

IL-5

58
Q

True or False:

IL-4 stimulates the development and clonal expansion of TH2 subset from naïve CD4 T cells.

A

True.

…Nice

59
Q

Binding of B-7 to this cell surface receptor results in functional inactivation of activated T-cells:

A

CTLA-4

CTLA-4 is only present on effector T cells. When it binds to B7-1 or 2 on APCs the T cell is inactivated.

CTLA-4 and CD28 are NOT expressed at the same time on a T cell

60
Q

Which Ab accounts for 60-70% of daily total output of antibodies?

A

IgA

61
Q

True or False:

Avidity refers to the strength of the binding between one Fab fragment of Ab and an epitope of an Ag.

A

False, you retard. This is the definition of affinity.

Avidity is the sum total of the strength of binding of all Fabs and available epitopes.

RUSVM Immunology (Semester 2) (8 decks)

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