Matching Questions Flashcards
Circulating lymphocytes enter lymph nodes and Peyer’s patches by migrating out of this vessel
high endothelial venule
This term describes the increase in the number of blood eosinophils that occurs in some parasitic infestations:
eosinophilia
Antibody produced to somatic [O] antigen will bind to epitopes on this bacterial structure:
lipopolysaccharide
Enzymes of NK cells and cytolytic T cells that activate cellular apoptotic pathways:
granzymes
Serves as BCR on naive B cells:
monomeric IgM
The subset of CD4+ T cells that secrete cytokines that mostly stimulate B cells to produce antibody
TH2 cells
Germinal centers can be detected in this organ:
Spleen
Individuals or animals that lack this enzyme fail to produce mature T and B cells
DNA-dependent protein kinase
Antigen-binding regions of TCRab and BCR
Complementarity-determining regions
What are the predominant cells in acute inflammation?
neutrophils & macrophages
Group of serum proteins that can lyse antibody-coated Gram-negative bacteria:
Complement
Amino acid differences in the constant regions of these immunoglobulin chains form the basis for the 5 classes of immunoglobulin molecules
Immunoglobulin heavy chains
Mutation in the gene encoding granzymes will impair the effector function of this host immune cell:
NK cell
TAP [transporter associated with antigen processing] proteins play a major role in antigen presentation by this MHC molecule
Class I MHC Molecule
Pus [abscess] is an inflammatory exudate consisting of cell debris, microorganisms, and dead leukocytes [mostly neutrophils] observed at sites of some bacterial infections. This bacterial product is a major contributor to abscess development
Leukocidin
Long-lived plasma cells are found in this lymphoid organ:
Bone Marrow
This inflammatory reaction is characterized by the predominance of mononuclear cell, which include macrophages, epithelioid cells, and lymphocytes:
chronic inflammation
Treatment of choice when attending to a horse presenting with clinical signs of tetanus:
tetanus antitoxin
Cell membrane molecule expressed by both naive T cell and effector T cell:
CD28
A physiologic function of humoral immunity is providing host defense against these bacteria:
extracellular bacteria
Deficiency of *this *antibody may predispose to helminth infestations:
IgE
Phagolysosomes are formed during which phase of phagocytosis?
microbial digestion
ADCC involves the killing of antibody-coated targets by host immune cells. Which cell has no role in ADCC-mediated target killing?
Cytolytic T lymphocyte
What are the predominant lymphocytes in blood?
T lymphocytes
What is the 3rd phase of the antibody immune response?
Plateau phase
Clonal selection occurs when a B cell encounters a:
Clonal selection occurs when a B cell encounters an antigen
*This *chemical can destroy a helminth parasite by extensively damaging its cuticle:
Major basic protein
Protein consisting of immunoglobulin light chains found in the urine of animals or individuals with multiple myelomas
Bence Jones proteins
Antigen presentation by this MHC molecule is affected if the microbial protein inhibits the activity of the cytoplasmic organelle called proteosome:
Class I MHC Molecule
Components of innate immunity provide the first and second lines of host defense against invading microbes. This line of host defense includes the skin epidermis.
First line of defense
Activation and clonal expansion of antigen-specific T cells occur in this lymphoid organ:
Spleen
Leukocyte extravasion from the bloodstream to sites of microbial invasion is a tightly coordinated series of steps. This event is the 3rd step in leukocyte extravasion:
Leukocyte arrest & adhesion
This type of host defense describes the production of IgE in response to helminth infestation
naturally acquired active immunity
Engagement of this T cell membrane receptor and its B7 protein ligand, results in inactivation of the T cell
CTLA-4
Perforins and granzymes are found in the cytoplasic granules of this T cell
Effector cytolytic T lymphocyte
May be used interchangeably with antibody class:
antibody isotype
Bacterial structure that protects the bacterium from phagocytosis:
capsule
FOllowing antigenic stimulation, a primary lymphoid follicle becomes:
a secondary lymphoid follicle
____________ is the term used to describe cellular suicide
apoptosis
Which is more effective in activating the complement system: IgG or IgM?
IgM
The function of the mucociliary escalator is to:
remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract
M cells are antigen transporting cells found in the:
intestinal mucosa
_________ trigger overproduction of cytokines
superantigens
Which immunoglobulin is produced in the highest concentration in the bdy?
IgA
Engagement of which B cell receptro with its ligand will inhibit B cell activation?
CD32b
What are Bacterial H antigens?
flagellar antigens
__________ refers to the antigenic differences in the constant light and constant heavy regions
isotype
__________ refers to the antigenic determinants formed by the amino acids in the hypervariable reigions.
idiotype
Which phase of antibody production is defined by a time period when no antibody in the antigen can be detected in serum
lag
True or False:
Granzymes are pore forming proteins present in the granules of CTLs that attach to target cell membranes
False.
Granzymes are released by CTLs and induce target cell apoptosis. Perforins are pore forming proteins released by CTLs
Which is more desirable in the dairy industry:
High citrate:lactoferrin ratio or low citrate:lactoferrin ratio?
low citrate:lactoferrin ratio
High citrate:lactoferrin ratio encourages bacterial growth since citrate can be broken down by bacteria, releasing iron and encouraging bacterial growth and udder disease.
The Fimbria antigen is also known as:
F antigen
The Capsular antigen is also known as:
K antigen
The Flagellar antigen is also known as:
H antigen
LPS is also known as:
O antigen
True or False:
Many protozoa have thick cuticles that make them resistant to the cytocidal products of neutrophils and macrophages.
False, asshole.
This is true of helminths
Which cytokine is most closely associated with stimulation of development and activation of eosinophils?
IL-5
True or False:
IL-4 stimulates the development and clonal expansion of TH2 subset from naïve CD4 T cells.
True.
…Nice
Binding of B-7 to this cell surface receptor results in functional inactivation of activated T-cells:
CTLA-4
CTLA-4 is only present on effector T cells. When it binds to B7-1 or 2 on APCs the T cell is inactivated.
CTLA-4 and CD28 are NOT expressed at the same time on a T cell
Which Ab accounts for 60-70% of daily total output of antibodies?
IgA
True or False:
Avidity refers to the strength of the binding between one Fab fragment of Ab and an epitope of an Ag.
False, you retard. This is the definition of affinity.
Avidity is the sum total of the strength of binding of all Fabs and available epitopes.
