Malignancies Flashcards

1
Q

Are brain tumours more commonly primary or metastatic in children?

A

Brain tumours in children almost always primary rather than metastatic (contrast to adults)

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2
Q

What are the different types of brain tumour?

A

Astrocytoma (40%) = benign to highly malignant (Pilocytic Astrocytoma most common)

Medulloblastoma (20%) = arises in midline of posterior fossa, associated spinal mets

Ependymoma (8%) = posterior fossa

Brainstem glioma (6%) = malignant tumour, poor prognosis

Craniopharyngioma (4%) = developmental tumour arising from squamous remnant of Rathke pouch, not truly malignant but locally invasive

Atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumour (ATRT) = rare type of aggressive tumour most commonly occurring in young children

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3
Q

What does an MRI and histopathology show in pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

MRI = cerebellar, well circumscribed, cystic, enhancing

Histopathology = piloid (hairy) cell, Rosenthal fibres and grabnular bodies, slow growing with low mitotic activity

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4
Q

What is the most common brain tumour in children?

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

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5
Q

What are RFs for pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

Common in NF1
BRAF mutation in 70%

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6
Q

What are the S/S of a CNS tumour?

A
  • Headaches (worse in morning/coughing)
  • Vomiting (on waking)
  • Gait/coordination problems/clumsy
  • Visual changes
  • Irritability, FTT
  • Behaviour or personality change
  • Raised ICP > papilloedema (disc oedema, obscuration of margins, elevation, venous congestion, haemorrhages) > may take hours-weeks to develop so not always found at presentation
  • Separation of sutures/tense fontanelles, developmental delay or increased head circumference
  • Focal signs (depending on location of tumour)
    Intracranial HTN = headache, vomiting, changed mental state
    Supratentorial = focal neurological deficits, seizures, personality change
    Subtentorial = cerebellar ataxia, long tract signs, cranial nerve palsies
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7
Q

What are the investigations for a CNS tumour?

A

MRI > CT / PET (higher radiation)

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8
Q

What is the management for a CNS tumour?

A

MDT
Paediatrician, neurologist, SN, OT, PT, SALT, psychology, radiologist, oncologist, CLIC Sargent

1st line = surgery
Maximal safe resection to obtain extensive excision with minimal damage to pt

+/- Radiotherapy
Low and high-grade gliomas, mets

+/- Chemotherapy
High-grade gliomas

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9
Q

What is the difference between ALL and AML?

A

ALL (80%) = Malignant clonal disease characterised by proliferation of early B- and T-lymphocyte progenitors

AML (20%) = Malignant clonal disease characterised by a block in differentiation and unregulated proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells

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10
Q

What are the S/S of leukaemia?

A

BM failure

  • Anaemia (lethargy, pallor)
  • Thrombocytopaenia (easy bruising/bleeding, petechiae)
  • Neutropoenia (frequent/severe infection)

Local organ infiltration

  • Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, bone pain, gum hypertrophy, testes, CNS

Systemic

  • Malaise, weakness, pyrexia, B symptoms

Leukaemia cutis > petechial rash on face and trunk

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11
Q

What does ALL present with?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Neutropenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
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12
Q

What are the investigations for leukaemia?

A

Bloods

  • FBC > anaemia, neutropoenia, thrombocytopaenia, +/- DIC, high WCC
  • Clotting studies
  • Peripheral blood film > lymphoblasts (any abnormalities ie Auer Rods)

BM biopsy

  • > 20% blasts in BM or peripheral blood (type of blast – B/T-cell lineage tx differently)

CXR

  • Enlarged thymus

FBC may show tumour lysis syndrome > high K, LDH, PO4, uric acid > can cause renal failure

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13
Q

What is the management of leukaemia?

A

Immediate action:
Reduce Tumour Lysis Syndrome > Allopurinol + hyperhydration

(1) Hyperhydration (0.9% NaCl 5% Dextrose > no K)
(2) Allopurinol
(3) Cross-match for blood transfusion
(4) Platelet transfusion
(5) Transfer to specialist unit
(6) Bone marrow aspirate (from PSIS) > send for morphology, cytogenetics, immunophenotyping, minimal residual disease (MRD)
(7) Chemotherapy (2-3yrs, boys tx longer due to accumulation of lymphoblasts in testes)

Specific therapy:

  • CNS-directed therapy (e.g. intrathecal) > done in all pts even if initial LP is negative (6-8 treatments), can also be done by giving high-dose chemo so it penetrates BBB
  • Molecular treatment > Imatinib, Rituximab
  • Transplantation
  • Abx prophylaxis for PCP infection
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14
Q

What is the management of febrile neutropenia?

A

= Temp >38, neutrophil <0.5

  • Prone to gram -ve sepsis
  • A to E approach, sepsis 6
  • Need broad spectrum abx > piptazobactam / gentamicin
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15
Q

What are poor prognostic markers for leukaemia?

A
  • Age <2 or >10
  • Non-Caucasian
  • T/B-cell surface markers
  • Male
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16
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Lymphomas are neoplasms of lymphoid cells, originating in lymph nodes or other lymphoid tissues (spleen, MALT), sometimes ‘anywhere’ (skin, CNS, testes, breast)

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17
Q

What are 3 types of paediatric-specific lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin’s (more localised, usually only one nodal site) > more common in adolescence

Non-Hodgkin’s (spreads contiguously to adjacent lymph nodes, involves multiple sites and spreads sporadically) > more common in childhood

Burkitt’s (a type of B-cell NHL)

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18
Q

What are the subtypes of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • Classical (subtypes exist)
  • Nodular Lymphocyte Predominant HL (NLPHL)
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19
Q

What are the S/S of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A
  • Painless lymphadenopathy (in neck) > can be painful when drinking alcohol
  • Fever, night sweats, weight loss
  • Others include pruritus, cough, dyspnoea with intrathoracic disease, SVC obstruction (blackouts, dyspnoea, feeling of fullness in head)

O/E > skin excoriations, non-tender firm lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, facial oedema / raised JVP (SVC obstruction)

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20
Q

What are the investigations for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Bloods > FBC (low Hb, leucocytosis, eosinophilia, lymphopenia), high ESR / CRP, high LDH, high AST/ALT (if liver involved)

LN biopsy > Reed-Sternberg Cells (“Owl eyes”)

Imaging > CXR, CT (thorax, abdo, pelvis), PET scan > Ann Arbor Staging

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21
Q

What is the management for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Good prognosis > 80% cured

  1. Combination chemotherapy (ABVD) +/- radiotherapy
    - Adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine
    - 2-4 cycles in stage 1/2, 6-8 cycles in stage 3
    - PET scanning monitors response and guides therapy
  2. Intensive chemotherapy and autologous SCT
    - Relapsed patients
22
Q

What are the S/S of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • Painless lymphadenopathy +/- compression sx > NO pain after alcohol
  • Fever, night sweats, weight loss

O/E > same as HL

23
Q

What are the investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Bloods > FBC, ESR, LFTs, LDH, Alb (prognostic markers)

LN/BM biopsy > cytology, histology, immunophenotyping

PET or CT staging > Ann Arbor Staging

24
Q

What is the management of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Depends on type of NHL

  • Urgent chemo
  • Monitor only
  • Abx eradication (H. pylori gastric MALToma)
  • T-cell NHL = chemo and CNS prophylaxis as for ALL
  • B-cell NHL = aggressive pulsed chemo regimen for stage IV disease using alkylating agents and methotrexate is improving survival
  • Surgery only indicated for emergency tumour obstruction of airways, bowel, or bladder
25
What are the 3 variants of Burkitt's lymphoma?
**Endemic** = EBV infection, most commonly in children living in malaria endemic regions, involves JAW or facial bones **Sporadic** = EBV infection, western world **Immunodeficiency** = HIV infection, pts immunocompromised post-transplant
26
What does the histopathology and molecular analysis of Burkitt's lymphoma show?
**Histopathology** - Arises from germinal centre cells - Starry-sky appearance **Molecular** - C-myc translocation
27
What is the prognosis of Burkitt's lymphoma?
Fastest growing human tumour known Decent cure rates
28
Where does osteosarcoma most commonly occur?
- Occurs at the end of lone bones (mainly KNEE) - Frequently develops in mandible (lower jaw) so caught on XRs during dental visits
29
What are the S/S of osteosarcoma?
- Relatively painless mass/swelling - Restricted movement - Bone pain > may come and go initially then becomes more persistent > may be worse at night - Fracture may occur after minor injury at site of weakened bone - RAPID metastasis to lung
30
What are the investigations for osteosarcoma?
- Bloods - Imaging > XR shows Codman triangle (elevated periosteum) and ‘sunburst’ pattern (soft tissue calcification), CT/MRI/PET - Biopsy > only definitive method to determine whether tumour malignant or benign
31
What is the management of osteosarcoma?
> Specialised sarcoma team (London) mx - Surgery (limb sparing surgery +/- amputation) + chemo - Post-treatment > OT, PT, dietician, orthotics/prosthetics, support (Sarcoma UK) > Poor prognosis
32
What is Ewing's sarcoma?
Primitive Neuroendocrine Tumour (PNET) / Malignant, small round blue-cell tumour A rare type of cancer that affects bones or the soft tissue around bones
33
Where does Ewing's sarcoma most commonly occur?
Occurs most frequently in pelvis and long bones of arms, legs, chest, skull and trunk
34
What age group does Ewing's sarcoma most commonly affect?
Mainly seen in children and adolescents (median age 15)
35
What are the S/S of Ewing's sarcoma?
- Mass or swelling - Severe bone pain - Malaise, fever, paralysis (may precipitate osteomyelitis) - FLAWS
36
What are the investigations for Ewing's sarcoma?
- XR > bone destruction with overlying ‘onion skin’ layers of periosteal bone formation - Biopsy > small round blue cells - CT / PET / MRI
37
What is Ewing's sarcoma associated with?
Associated with t(11;22) translocation which results in an EWS-FLI1 gene product
38
What is the management for Ewing's sarcoma?
> Specialised sarcoma team (London) mx - Surgery (limb-sparing +/- amputation) + chemo (VIDE) + radiotherapy - Post-treatment > OT, PT, dietician, orthotics/prosthetics, support > Prognosis = 5yr survival at 75%
39
What is the difference between osteosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma?
OSTEOSARCOMA > forms bone EWING”S SARCOMA > forms mesenchymal tissue
40
What is retinoblastoma?
Primary malignant tumour of the immature cells of the retina
41
What are the features of retinoblastoma?
- Rare - Unilateral (80% spontaneous, 20% hereditary), bilateral (100% hereditary) - Autosomal dominant, chromosome 13, encodes pRB - Average age of dx > 18m
42
What are the S/S of retinoblastoma?
- Absence of red-reflex > replaced by white pupil (leukocoria) - Strabismus - Squint - Visual problems
43
What are the investigations for retinoblastoma?
- Fundoscopy - MRI may be needed - Genetic testing
44
What is the management of retinoblastoma?
>>Aim is to cure but preserve vision - 1st line = Chemotherapy - Some patients require enucleation - gross anterior chamber involvement, glaucoma, orbital inflammation - Laser treatment of the retina - Radiotherapy may be used in more advanced cases MOST PATIENTS ARE CURED (90%) >Many will be visually impaired
45
What are the complications of retinoblastoma?
Significant risk of secondary malignancy
46
What is a neuroblastoma?
Tumour arises from neural crest tissue of adrenal medulla and SNS
47
When does neuroblastoma present?
Most common <5yrs Median onset = 20m
48
How severe is neuroblastoma?
Spectrum of disease = benign (ganglioneuroma) > malignant (neuroblastoma)
49
What are the S/S of neuroblastoma?
- Abdominal mass (tumour can be anywhere on sympathetic chain) - Systemic sx = WL, pallor, hepatomegaly, bone pain, limp - Sx of spinal cord compression = paraplegia - Proptosis - If >2yrs = sx of metastatic disease (bone pain, BM suppression, WL, malaise)
50
What are the investigations for neuroblastoma?
- Radiological findings > calcification may be seen on AXR - Raised urinary catecholamine metabolites > vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA) - Biopsy = confirmatory from BM and MIBG sampling
51
What is the management of neuroblastoma?
- Localised primaries without metastatic disease > surgery - Metastatic disease > chemo + radiotherapy + surgery (high risk of relapse) - Spontaneous regression can occur in very young infants Prognosis > cure rates in metastatic disease ~40%