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Patho > Male Reproductive Pathologies > Flashcards

Male Reproductive Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

Anasarca

A

generalized (bodyside) edema with accumulation of serum in connective tissues

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2
Q

Androgens

A

any of several steroids, produced as hormones by the testes or made synthetically, that promote development of male sexual organs and male secondary sexual characteristics

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3
Q

Anorchia

A

congenital absence of the testes

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4
Q

cremaster muscle

A

a muscle with origin from the internal oblique and inguinal ligament, with insertion into the cremasteric fascia and pubic tubercle, with nerve supply from the genitofemoral nerve, and who action raises the testicle. In the male, the muscle envelopes the spermatic cord and the testis; in the female, it envelops the round ligament of the uterus

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5
Q

Chancre

A

the lesion of primary syphillis; a hard, nonsensitive, dull red papule or are of infiltration that begins at the site of treponemal infection after an interval of 10 to 30 days

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6
Q

Endocervicitis

A

inflammation of the lining of the uterine cervix

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7
Q

Endometritis

A

inflammation of the lining of the uterus (the endometrium(

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8
Q

Epispadias

A

a congenital defect in which the urethra opens upon the upper surface of the penis

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9
Q

Filariasis

A

infection by filarial worms in the blood and lymph channels, lymph glands, and other tissues, the various species causing skin swellings, blindness, or elephantiasis if untreated

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10
Q

Germ cells

A

an ovum or a sperm cell or one of their developmental precursors

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11
Q

Gonocyte

A

an oocyte or spermatocyte; a cell that produces gametes

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12
Q

Gynecomastia

A

abnormal overdevelopment of the breast in a make; occurrence of breast tissue (not fat) on a male; boobs on a man

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13
Q

Hematogenous spread

A

dissemination via the blood, as in bacteria spreading around the body in that manner

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14
Q

Hydroureter

A

the distention of the ureter with urine due to blockage

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15
Q

Hydroureteronephrosis

A

the distention of the ureter and kidney with urine due to blockage

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16
Q

Hypogonadism

A

diminished hormonal or reproductive functioning in the tests or the ovaries

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17
Q

Hypospadias

A

a congenital condition in which the opening of the urethra is situated on the underside of the penis (or on the scrotum) instead of at its tip

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18
Q

Indurated

A

having become firm or hard especially by increase of fibrous elements; e.g. indurated tissue, or ulcer with an indurated border

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19
Q

Leydig cells

A

a cell of interstitial tissue of the testis that is usually considered the chief source of testicular androgens and especially testosterone; also called interstitial cell

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20
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

term meaning “disease of the lymph nodes”; it is, however, almost synonymously used with “abnormally swollen/enlarged lymph nodes”. It could be due to infection, auto-immune disease, of malignancy

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21
Q

Macule

A

patch of skin that is altered in color but usually not elevated (i.e. not palpable) and that is a characteristic feature of various diseases (as smallpox); macular is the adjective of this word

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22
Q

Maculopapular

A

combining the characteristics (or containing both) of macule and papule, as in a maculopapular rash

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23
Q

Monorchism

A

a condition in which only one testis is apparent, the other being absent or undescended

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24
Q

Nocturia

A

abnormally excessive urination during the night

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25
Q

Orchiopexy

A

surgical procedure to free an undescended testicle and implant it (i.e. suture it) to the scrotum

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26
Q

Papule

A

a small solid usually conical elevation of the skin (i.e. palpable) caused by inflammation, accumulated secretion, or hypertrophy of tissue elements; papular is the adjective of this word

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27
Q

Perivasculitis

A

inflammation of the adventitia or tissues surrounding a blood vessel or lymphatic vessel

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28
Q

Polyorchidism

A

a condition of having more than two testes

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29
Q

Precocious puberty

A

early puberty; puberty before the typical age

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30
Q

Proteolysis

A

digestion or breakdown of proteins

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31
Q

Pruitic

A

itchy

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32
Q

Salpingitis

A

inflammation of a uterine (Fallopian) tube

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33
Q

Sertoli cells

A

any of the elongated striated cells in the seminiferous tubules of the tests to which the spermatids become attached and from which they apparently derive nourishment; also known as nurse cells

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34
Q

Trophoblastic cells

A

embryonic cells that form a large part of the placenta and which secrete the placental hormone (human) chorionic gonadotropin, or hCG

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35
Q

Tunica vaginalis

A

a double-layered serous membrane the surrounds each testis; while the tunica vaginalis is derived from the peritoneum, it is no longer in communication with it

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36
Q

Uvea

A

the vascular tunic of the eye, comprising the iris, choroid coat, and ciliary body

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37
Q

Uveitis

A

inflammation of the urea (vascular tunic) of the eye, usually including the iris and ciliary body, or both

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38
Q

Vasa vasorum

A

small blood vessels that supply or drain the walls of the larger arteries and veins and connect with a branch of the same vessel or a neighboring vessel

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39
Q

T/F While most urinary tract infections in women are ascending infections, in males descending infections predominate.

A

False

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40
Q

T/F Urinary tract infections are typically acute and sexually acquired in younger men, but tend to be more chronic and related to urinary tract obstruction in older men

A

True

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41
Q

In males [LH/FSH/androgens/GnRH/prolactin/oxytocin] stimulate(s) the testes to secrete testosterone.

A

LH

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42
Q

The [corpus spongiosum/corpora cavernosa/dartos muscles/prepuce] is/are primarily responsible for erection of the penis or clitoris.

A

corpora cavernosa

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43
Q

_____ syndrome is due to trisomy of the sex chromosomes; affected individuals are male with a (47/XXY) karyotype, atrophic testes, and are infertile

A

Klinefelter

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44
Q

____ are any of several steroids, produced as hormones by the testes or made synthetically, that promote development of male sexual organs and male secondary sexual characteristics; testosterone is the best-known example

A

Androgens

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45
Q

Which one of the following lists the tubular systems of the male reproductive tract in order of fluid movement, leading up to ejection from the urinary meatus?
A. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - epididymus - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - urethra - urinary meatus
B. (deepest) epididymus - seminiferous tubules - ejaculatory duct - vas deferens - urethra - urinary meatus
C. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - ejaculatory duct - epididymus - vas deferens - urethra - urinary meatus
D. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - vas deferens - epididymus - urethra - ejaculatory duct - urinary meatus

A

A. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - epididymus - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - urethra - urinary meatus

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46
Q

Erectile tissue surrounding the male urethra in the penile shaft

A

Corpus spongiosum

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47
Q

The terminal tube of the male reproductive system; ends with the urinary meatus at the tip of the penis

A

Urethra

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48
Q

Erectile tissue arranged in 2 columns and responsible for most of the effects of erection

A

Corpus cavernosum

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49
Q

Tube of the male reproductive system extending from seminal vesicle to prostate gland

A

Ejaculatory duct

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50
Q

The conical-shaped distal end of the penis

A

Glans

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51
Q

The foreskin; a loose cuff of skin that covers the distal penis

A

Prepuce

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52
Q

Male accessory gland whose clear mucous secretion (1) helps neutralize residual acids in the urethra, and (2) helps lubricate the sex act

A

Cowper’s gland

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53
Q

Male accessory glands whose secretions include the nutrient citrate and several enzymes such as fibrolysin

A

Prostate gland

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54
Q

Male accessory glands who’s secretions include fructose, fibrinogen, and prostaglandins

A

Seminal vesicles

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55
Q

T/F Cryptoorchidism is a medical emergency and must be treated surgically within the first three postnatal weeks

A

False

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56
Q

T/F In the majority of cryptoorchidism cases, both testes are undescended

A

False

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57
Q

T/F The hormone most important in testicular descend is oxytocin

A

False, its testosterone

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58
Q

T/F Normally, testes begin fetal development in the abdomen, pass through the inguinal canal, and then become entrapped in the scrotum.

A

True

59
Q

T/F Rectractile testes occur when the inguinal canal remains open after birth, so that the testes can pass back and forth between the scrotum and the inguinal canal or abdomen.

A

True

60
Q

T/F Although most cryptorchid testes surgically repositioned in the scrotum in early infancy develop normally, signs of atrophy and hypospermatogensis are not uncommon.

A

True

61
Q

T/F For some peculiar reason, cryptorchid testes have a lower rate of malignant transformation (i.e. developing cancer) than normally descended testes.

A

False, they have a 10-fold higher risk

62
Q

_____ refers to the congenital absence of testes.

A

anorchia

63
Q

____ refers to a condition in which only one testis is apparent, the other being absent or undescended.

A

monarchism

64
Q

____ refers to a condition of having more than two testes

A

polyorchidism

65
Q

____ refers to a congenital malpositioning of the testes outside their normal scrotal position

A

Cryptorchidism, a common cause of monorchism

66
Q

A(n) ____ is a surgical procedure to free an undescended testicle and implant it (i.e. suture it) into the scrotum

A

orchiopexy

67
Q

_____ refers to a congenital condition in which the opening of the urethra is situated on the underside (i.e. the ventral side) of the penis (or on the scrotum) instead of at its tip

A

Hypospadias

68
Q

_____ refers to a congenital defect in which the urethra opens upon the upper surface (i.e. the dorsal surface) of the penis

A

Epispadias

69
Q

T/F Prostatis is a disease affecting older men and is usually related to stagnation of urine

A

True

70
Q

T/F Epididymitis is caused by ascending infections and is usually a complication of urethritis or prostatis

A

True

71
Q

____ refers to inflammation of the glans penis.

A

Balanitis

72
Q

A(n) _____ refers to the lesion of primary syphilis; a hard, nonsensitive, dull red papule or area of infiltration that begins at the site of treponemal infection after an interval of 10 to 30 days.

A

Chancre

73
Q

____ syndrome refers to the triad of urethritis, uveitis, & arthritis, as sometimes occurs with chlamydial urethritis.

A

Reiter’s syndrome

74
Q

A nonbacterial pathogen that typically causes vesicles on the glans penis; these vesicles then rupture, giving rise to shallow ulcers.

A

Herpesvirus

75
Q

The bacteria responsible for syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

76
Q

The bacterium responsible for gonorrhea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

77
Q

The bacterium responsible for most cases of non-gonorrheal urethritis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

78
Q

An example of a uropathogen commonly causing prostatitis

A

Escherichia coli

79
Q

A pathogen, usually spread via the hematogenous route, which is a common cause of isolated orchitis

A

Mumps virus

80
Q

T/F Typically herpes simplex virus (HSV) type I causes cold sores with HSV type II causes genital herpes

A

True

81
Q

T/F Herpes simplex virus type II causes genital herpes but does not - and cannot - cause cold sores in the peritoneal areas

A

False

82
Q

T/F Herpes simplex virus is only transmitted person-to-person via direct contact with the clear but virus-laden fluid from the herpetic vesicles.

A

False

83
Q

T/F After the initial infection of herpes simplex virus, the virus typically enters nerves, where it may remain dormant and asymptomatic for years or decades

A

True

84
Q

T/F Genital herpes is easily resolved after treatment with antibiotics such as doxycycline or tetracycline

A

False

85
Q

T/F Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection that can cause endocervicitis in women and purulent urethritis in men.

A

True

86
Q

T/F Gonorrhea is often asymptomatic in both men and women

A

False

87
Q

T/F In addition to sexual contact, gonorrhea is also spread by unsanitary toilets and bathrooms

A

False

88
Q

T/F Women have a considerably higher risk of contacting gonococcal infection from a single act of vaginal intercourse than do men

A

True

89
Q

T/F Gonococcal infections can usually be treated effectively with antibiotics

A

True

90
Q

T/F Treponemes are very robust bacteria, and simple hand-washing will not kill them

A

False

91
Q

T/F Primary and secondary syphilis can be treated with penicillin, but tertiary syphilis must be treated with stronger antibiotics such as doxycycline or tetracycline.

A

False

92
Q

[Yaws/Dengue fever/Bejel/Pinta/Syphilis] is the only disease in the list that is NOT caused by Treponema palladium.

A

Dengue fever

93
Q

In _____ syphilis, spirochetes (i.e. the treponemal infection) are spread from mother to fetus.

A

congenital syphilis

94
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a typical complication of gonorrhea?
A. In males, prostatitis and epididymis
B. In female, endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Infertility
D. Arthritis
E. Heart valve problems (bacterial endocarditis)
F. (None, all the above are typical complications of gonorrhea)

A

F. (None, all the above are typical complications of gonorrhea)

95
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a typical symptom of genital herpes?
A. In males, lesions on the penis or other genital areas
B. In female, lesions on the mons pubis, labia, clitoris, or vulva
C. Dsyuria and cervicitis in women
D. Pain, itching, or burning sensations in affected areas
E. Penile or vaginal discharges
F. Fever, headaches, malaise
G. Myalgia, lymphadenopathy
H. Herpetic proctitis in those practicing anal intercourse
I. Jaundice
J. (None, all the above are typical symptoms of genital herpes)

A

I. Jaundice

96
Q

T/F Chancres are seen in secondary syphilis.

A

False

97
Q

T/F Chancres are indurated and painless lesions

A

True

98
Q

T/F Chancres typically develop 1-12 weeks after exposure to the T. pallidum bacterium

A

True

99
Q

T/F Chancres typically occur in clusters of 12-15 individual lesions

A

False

100
Q

T/F Chancres are pruritic lesions

A

False

101
Q

T/F Chancres are often accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy

A

True

102
Q

T/F Chancres are confined to the genital area of the body

A

False

103
Q

T/F The principal signs of primary syphilis are chancres and inguinal lymphadenopathy

A

True

104
Q

T/F Signs of secondary syphilis include lymphadenopathy, truncal rashes, and condyloma lata

A

True

105
Q

T/F All the signs of secondary syphilis are self-limited and will disappear spontaneously even without antibiotic treatment

A

True

106
Q

T/F Another typical development of second syphilis are syphilitic granulomas known as gammas, which may occur in any organ

A

False

107
Q

T/F Typical complications of tertiary syphilis affecting the CNS (neurosyphilis) are tabes dorasalis, paralysis, and dementia

A

True

108
Q

T/F Gummas are most common in skin, bones, and joints

A

True

109
Q

T/F Tertiary syphilitic often manifests with perivasculitis, particularly aortic vasculitis

A

True

110
Q

T/F Most testicular tumors are found in elderly men over age 70

A

False

111
Q

T/F Most testicular tumors are germ cell tumors

A

True

112
Q

T/F Tumors develop more frequently in cryptoorchoid testes

A

True

113
Q

T/F Most testicular tumors are benign

A

False

114
Q

T/F Seminomas are easily detected by testing for the presence of the serologic markers hCG and AFP

A

False

115
Q

T/F Seminomas are aggressive tumors with an abysmal prognosis

A

False

116
Q

T/F NSGCT’s are more malignant than seminomas and tend to metastasize early (usually before they are even diagnosed)

A

True

117
Q

T/F Leydig cell tumors may cause gynecomastia and feminization in a male

A

True

118
Q

____ and non-seminomatous germ cell tumors are the two broad categories of testicular germ cell tumors recognized today

A

Seminomas

119
Q

By far, ____ and _____ (sometimes occurring together as a mixed tumor) form the majority of testicular tumors

A

Seminomas and NSGCTs

120
Q

T/F By far, most primary prostatic tumors are adenocarinomas

A

True

121
Q

T/F Adenocarcinoma of the prostate originates in the peripheral (posterior lobe) of the gland

A

True

122
Q

T/F Usually with a digital rectal exam (DRE), benign prostatic hyperplasia is more posterior (close to rectum) and thus easily palpable, whereas prostatic adenocarcinoma is more anterior and therefore harder to detect

A

False

123
Q

T/F In a patient with prostatic adenocarcinoma, elevated serum levels of alkaline phosphate typically indicate that the tumor has spread into the nearby rectum

A

False

124
Q

T/F Benign prostatic hyperplasia is believed to have a hormonal basis, with the sex hormones playing a central role

A

True

125
Q

T/F Nocturia and pain on urination are both common complaints in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

A

False

126
Q

____ provides a serologic marker for prostatic adenocarcinoma; this protein is elevated in the plasma in over half of the cases of prostatic cancer

A

PSA, or prostate specific antigen

127
Q

___ and ____ are the two common causes leading to most of the clinical symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia.

A

Urethral compression and retention of urine

128
Q

Both the corpora _____ and the _____ must be adequately filled with blood in order to achieve erection.

A

cavernosa, spongiosum

129
Q

Inflammation of the glans penis

A

Balanitis

130
Q

Inflammation of one of both testes

A

Orchitis

131
Q

The absence of a testes in a male

A

Anorchia

132
Q

A benign NSGCT which contains various mature tissues such as hair, skin, or brain

A

Teratoma

133
Q

A malignant NSGCT which contains various mature tissues such as hair, skin, or brain

A

Tertatocarcinoma

134
Q

The presence of only one testis in a male

A

Monorchism

135
Q

A congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the underside of the penis

A

Hypospadias

136
Q

A congenital malpositioning of the testes outside their normal scrotal position

A

Cryptorchidism

137
Q

The presence of three or more testes in a male

A

Polyorchidism

138
Q

A reactive enlargement of the periurethral portion of the prostate and the so-called median lobe (a part of the prostate located at the neck of the urinary bladder)

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

139
Q

T/F A chronic, systemic, sexually-acquired infectious disease caused by the spirochete Treponema palladium subs. pallidum

A

Syphilis

140
Q

A sexually-acquired infectious disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae; in makes, it produces purulent urethritis

A

Gonorrhea

141
Q

The inability of a male to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance

A

Erectile dysfunction

142
Q

A neoplasm likely to secrete significant levels of sex hormones due to estrogen secretion, these neoplasm may cause feminization in a man

A

Leydig cell tumor

143
Q

The “clap”

A

Gonorrhea

Patho (6 decks)

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