Male Reproductive Pathologies Flashcards
1
Q
Anasarca
A
generalized (bodyside) edema with accumulation of serum in connective tissues
2
Q
Androgens
A
any of several steroids, produced as hormones by the testes or made synthetically, that promote development of male sexual organs and male secondary sexual characteristics
3
Q
Anorchia
A
congenital absence of the testes
4
Q
cremaster muscle
A
a muscle with origin from the internal oblique and inguinal ligament, with insertion into the cremasteric fascia and pubic tubercle, with nerve supply from the genitofemoral nerve, and who action raises the testicle. In the male, the muscle envelopes the spermatic cord and the testis; in the female, it envelops the round ligament of the uterus
5
Q
Chancre
A
the lesion of primary syphillis; a hard, nonsensitive, dull red papule or are of infiltration that begins at the site of treponemal infection after an interval of 10 to 30 days
6
Q
Endocervicitis
A
inflammation of the lining of the uterine cervix
7
Q
Endometritis
A
inflammation of the lining of the uterus (the endometrium(
8
Q
Epispadias
A
a congenital defect in which the urethra opens upon the upper surface of the penis
9
Q
Filariasis
A
infection by filarial worms in the blood and lymph channels, lymph glands, and other tissues, the various species causing skin swellings, blindness, or elephantiasis if untreated
10
Q
Germ cells
A
an ovum or a sperm cell or one of their developmental precursors
11
Q
Gonocyte
A
an oocyte or spermatocyte; a cell that produces gametes
12
Q
Gynecomastia
A
abnormal overdevelopment of the breast in a make; occurrence of breast tissue (not fat) on a male; boobs on a man
13
Q
Hematogenous spread
A
dissemination via the blood, as in bacteria spreading around the body in that manner
14
Q
Hydroureter
A
the distention of the ureter with urine due to blockage
15
Q
Hydroureteronephrosis
A
the distention of the ureter and kidney with urine due to blockage
16
Q
Hypogonadism
A
diminished hormonal or reproductive functioning in the tests or the ovaries
17
Q
Hypospadias
A
a congenital condition in which the opening of the urethra is situated on the underside of the penis (or on the scrotum) instead of at its tip
18
Q
Indurated
A
having become firm or hard especially by increase of fibrous elements; e.g. indurated tissue, or ulcer with an indurated border
19
Q
Leydig cells
A
a cell of interstitial tissue of the testis that is usually considered the chief source of testicular androgens and especially testosterone; also called interstitial cell
20
Q
Lymphadenopathy
A
term meaning “disease of the lymph nodes”; it is, however, almost synonymously used with “abnormally swollen/enlarged lymph nodes”. It could be due to infection, auto-immune disease, of malignancy
21
Q
Macule
A
patch of skin that is altered in color but usually not elevated (i.e. not palpable) and that is a characteristic feature of various diseases (as smallpox); macular is the adjective of this word
22
Q
Maculopapular
A
combining the characteristics (or containing both) of macule and papule, as in a maculopapular rash
23
Q
Monorchism
A
a condition in which only one testis is apparent, the other being absent or undescended
24
Q
Nocturia
A
abnormally excessive urination during the night
25
Orchiopexy
surgical procedure to free an undescended testicle and implant it (i.e. suture it) to the scrotum
26
Papule
a small solid usually conical elevation of the skin (i.e. palpable) caused by inflammation, accumulated secretion, or hypertrophy of tissue elements; papular is the adjective of this word
27
Perivasculitis
inflammation of the adventitia or tissues surrounding a blood vessel or lymphatic vessel
28
Polyorchidism
a condition of having more than two testes
29
Precocious puberty
early puberty; puberty before the typical age
30
Proteolysis
digestion or breakdown of proteins
31
Pruitic
itchy
32
Salpingitis
inflammation of a uterine (Fallopian) tube
33
Sertoli cells
any of the elongated striated cells in the seminiferous tubules of the tests to which the spermatids become attached and from which they apparently derive nourishment; also known as nurse cells
34
Trophoblastic cells
embryonic cells that form a large part of the placenta and which secrete the placental hormone (human) chorionic gonadotropin, or hCG
35
Tunica vaginalis
a double-layered serous membrane the surrounds each testis; while the tunica vaginalis is derived from the peritoneum, it is no longer in communication with it
36
Uvea
the vascular tunic of the eye, comprising the iris, choroid coat, and ciliary body
37
Uveitis
inflammation of the urea (vascular tunic) of the eye, usually including the iris and ciliary body, or both
38
Vasa vasorum
small blood vessels that supply or drain the walls of the larger arteries and veins and connect with a branch of the same vessel or a neighboring vessel
39
T/F While most urinary tract infections in women are ascending infections, in males descending infections predominate.
False
40
T/F Urinary tract infections are typically acute and sexually acquired in younger men, but tend to be more chronic and related to urinary tract obstruction in older men
True
41
In males [LH/FSH/androgens/GnRH/prolactin/oxytocin] stimulate(s) the testes to secrete testosterone.
LH
42
The [corpus spongiosum/corpora cavernosa/dartos muscles/prepuce] is/are primarily responsible for erection of the penis or clitoris.
corpora cavernosa
43
_____ syndrome is due to trisomy of the sex chromosomes; affected individuals are male with a (47/XXY) karyotype, atrophic testes, and are infertile
Klinefelter
44
____ are any of several steroids, produced as hormones by the testes or made synthetically, that promote development of male sexual organs and male secondary sexual characteristics; testosterone is the best-known example
Androgens
45
Which one of the following lists the tubular systems of the male reproductive tract in order of fluid movement, leading up to ejection from the urinary meatus?
A. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - epididymus - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - urethra - urinary meatus
B. (deepest) epididymus - seminiferous tubules - ejaculatory duct - vas deferens - urethra - urinary meatus
C. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - ejaculatory duct - epididymus - vas deferens - urethra - urinary meatus
D. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - vas deferens - epididymus - urethra - ejaculatory duct - urinary meatus
A. (deepest) seminiferous tubules - epididymus - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - urethra - urinary meatus
46
Erectile tissue surrounding the male urethra in the penile shaft
Corpus spongiosum
47
The terminal tube of the male reproductive system; ends with the urinary meatus at the tip of the penis
Urethra
48
Erectile tissue arranged in 2 columns and responsible for most of the effects of erection
Corpus cavernosum
49
Tube of the male reproductive system extending from seminal vesicle to prostate gland
Ejaculatory duct
50
The conical-shaped distal end of the penis
Glans
51
The foreskin; a loose cuff of skin that covers the distal penis
Prepuce
52
Male accessory gland whose clear mucous secretion (1) helps neutralize residual acids in the urethra, and (2) helps lubricate the sex act
Cowper's gland
53
Male accessory glands whose secretions include the nutrient citrate and several enzymes such as fibrolysin
Prostate gland
54
Male accessory glands who's secretions include fructose, fibrinogen, and prostaglandins
Seminal vesicles
55
T/F Cryptoorchidism is a medical emergency and must be treated surgically within the first three postnatal weeks
False
56
T/F In the majority of cryptoorchidism cases, both testes are undescended
False
57
T/F The hormone most important in testicular descend is oxytocin
False, its testosterone
58
T/F Normally, testes begin fetal development in the abdomen, pass through the inguinal canal, and then become entrapped in the scrotum.
True
59
T/F Rectractile testes occur when the inguinal canal remains open after birth, so that the testes can pass back and forth between the scrotum and the inguinal canal or abdomen.
True
60
T/F Although most cryptorchid testes surgically repositioned in the scrotum in early infancy develop normally, signs of atrophy and hypospermatogensis are not uncommon.
True
61
T/F For some peculiar reason, cryptorchid testes have a lower rate of malignant transformation (i.e. developing cancer) than normally descended testes.
False, they have a 10-fold higher risk
62
_____ refers to the congenital absence of testes.
anorchia
63
____ refers to a condition in which only one testis is apparent, the other being absent or undescended.
monarchism
64
____ refers to a condition of having more than two testes
polyorchidism
65
____ refers to a congenital malpositioning of the testes outside their normal scrotal position
Cryptorchidism, a common cause of monorchism
66
A(n) ____ is a surgical procedure to free an undescended testicle and implant it (i.e. suture it) into the scrotum
orchiopexy
67
_____ refers to a congenital condition in which the opening of the urethra is situated on the underside (i.e. the ventral side) of the penis (or on the scrotum) instead of at its tip
Hypospadias
68
_____ refers to a congenital defect in which the urethra opens upon the upper surface (i.e. the dorsal surface) of the penis
Epispadias
69
T/F Prostatis is a disease affecting older men and is usually related to stagnation of urine
True
70
T/F Epididymitis is caused by ascending infections and is usually a complication of urethritis or prostatis
True
71
____ refers to inflammation of the glans penis.
Balanitis
72
A(n) _____ refers to the lesion of primary syphilis; a hard, nonsensitive, dull red papule or area of infiltration that begins at the site of treponemal infection after an interval of 10 to 30 days.
Chancre
73
____ syndrome refers to the triad of urethritis, uveitis, & arthritis, as sometimes occurs with chlamydial urethritis.
Reiter's syndrome
74
A nonbacterial pathogen that typically causes vesicles on the glans penis; these vesicles then rupture, giving rise to shallow ulcers.
Herpesvirus
75
The bacteria responsible for syphilis
Treponema pallidum
76
The bacterium responsible for gonorrhea
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
77
The bacterium responsible for most cases of non-gonorrheal urethritis
Chlamydia trachomatis
78
An example of a uropathogen commonly causing prostatitis
Escherichia coli
79
A pathogen, usually spread via the hematogenous route, which is a common cause of isolated orchitis
Mumps virus
80
T/F Typically herpes simplex virus (HSV) type I causes cold sores with HSV type II causes genital herpes
True
81
T/F Herpes simplex virus type II causes genital herpes but does not - and cannot - cause cold sores in the peritoneal areas
False
82
T/F Herpes simplex virus is only transmitted person-to-person via direct contact with the clear but virus-laden fluid from the herpetic vesicles.
False
83
T/F After the initial infection of herpes simplex virus, the virus typically enters nerves, where it may remain dormant and asymptomatic for years or decades
True
84
T/F Genital herpes is easily resolved after treatment with antibiotics such as doxycycline or tetracycline
False
85
T/F Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection that can cause endocervicitis in women and purulent urethritis in men.
True
86
T/F Gonorrhea is often asymptomatic in both men and women
False
87
T/F In addition to sexual contact, gonorrhea is also spread by unsanitary toilets and bathrooms
False
88
T/F Women have a considerably higher risk of contacting gonococcal infection from a single act of vaginal intercourse than do men
True
89
T/F Gonococcal infections can usually be treated effectively with antibiotics
True
90
T/F Treponemes are very robust bacteria, and simple hand-washing will not kill them
False
91
T/F Primary and secondary syphilis can be treated with penicillin, but tertiary syphilis must be treated with stronger antibiotics such as doxycycline or tetracycline.
False
92
[Yaws/Dengue fever/Bejel/Pinta/Syphilis] is the only disease in the list that is NOT caused by Treponema palladium.
Dengue fever
93
In _____ syphilis, spirochetes (i.e. the treponemal infection) are spread from mother to fetus.
congenital syphilis
94
Which ONE of the following is NOT a typical complication of gonorrhea?
A. In males, prostatitis and epididymis
B. In female, endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Infertility
D. Arthritis
E. Heart valve problems (bacterial endocarditis)
F. (None, all the above are typical complications of gonorrhea)
F. (None, all the above are typical complications of gonorrhea)
95
Which ONE of the following is NOT a typical symptom of genital herpes?
A. In males, lesions on the penis or other genital areas
B. In female, lesions on the mons pubis, labia, clitoris, or vulva
C. Dsyuria and cervicitis in women
D. Pain, itching, or burning sensations in affected areas
E. Penile or vaginal discharges
F. Fever, headaches, malaise
G. Myalgia, lymphadenopathy
H. Herpetic proctitis in those practicing anal intercourse
I. Jaundice
J. (None, all the above are typical symptoms of genital herpes)
I. Jaundice
96
T/F Chancres are seen in secondary syphilis.
False
97
T/F Chancres are indurated and painless lesions
True
98
T/F Chancres typically develop 1-12 weeks after exposure to the T. pallidum bacterium
True
99
T/F Chancres typically occur in clusters of 12-15 individual lesions
False
100
T/F Chancres are pruritic lesions
False
101
T/F Chancres are often accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy
True
102
T/F Chancres are confined to the genital area of the body
False
103
T/F The principal signs of primary syphilis are chancres and inguinal lymphadenopathy
True
104
T/F Signs of secondary syphilis include lymphadenopathy, truncal rashes, and condyloma lata
True
105
T/F All the signs of secondary syphilis are self-limited and will disappear spontaneously even without antibiotic treatment
True
106
T/F Another typical development of second syphilis are syphilitic granulomas known as gammas, which may occur in any organ
False
107
T/F Typical complications of tertiary syphilis affecting the CNS (neurosyphilis) are tabes dorasalis, paralysis, and dementia
True
108
T/F Gummas are most common in skin, bones, and joints
True
109
T/F Tertiary syphilitic often manifests with perivasculitis, particularly aortic vasculitis
True
110
T/F Most testicular tumors are found in elderly men over age 70
False
111
T/F Most testicular tumors are germ cell tumors
True
112
T/F Tumors develop more frequently in cryptoorchoid testes
True
113
T/F Most testicular tumors are benign
False
114
T/F Seminomas are easily detected by testing for the presence of the serologic markers hCG and AFP
False
115
T/F Seminomas are aggressive tumors with an abysmal prognosis
False
116
T/F NSGCT's are more malignant than seminomas and tend to metastasize early (usually before they are even diagnosed)
True
117
T/F Leydig cell tumors may cause gynecomastia and feminization in a male
True
118
____ and non-seminomatous germ cell tumors are the two broad categories of testicular germ cell tumors recognized today
Seminomas
119
By far, ____ and _____ (sometimes occurring together as a mixed tumor) form the majority of testicular tumors
Seminomas and NSGCTs
120
T/F By far, most primary prostatic tumors are adenocarinomas
True
121
T/F Adenocarcinoma of the prostate originates in the peripheral (posterior lobe) of the gland
True
122
T/F Usually with a digital rectal exam (DRE), benign prostatic hyperplasia is more posterior (close to rectum) and thus easily palpable, whereas prostatic adenocarcinoma is more anterior and therefore harder to detect
False
123
T/F In a patient with prostatic adenocarcinoma, elevated serum levels of alkaline phosphate typically indicate that the tumor has spread into the nearby rectum
False
124
T/F Benign prostatic hyperplasia is believed to have a hormonal basis, with the sex hormones playing a central role
True
125
T/F Nocturia and pain on urination are both common complaints in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
False
126
____ provides a serologic marker for prostatic adenocarcinoma; this protein is elevated in the plasma in over half of the cases of prostatic cancer
PSA, or prostate specific antigen
127
___ and ____ are the two common causes leading to most of the clinical symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Urethral compression and retention of urine
128
Both the corpora _____ and the _____ must be adequately filled with blood in order to achieve erection.
cavernosa, spongiosum
129
Inflammation of the glans penis
Balanitis
130
Inflammation of one of both testes
Orchitis
131
The absence of a testes in a male
Anorchia
132
A benign NSGCT which contains various mature tissues such as hair, skin, or brain
Teratoma
133
A malignant NSGCT which contains various mature tissues such as hair, skin, or brain
Tertatocarcinoma
134
The presence of only one testis in a male
Monorchism
135
A congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the underside of the penis
Hypospadias
136
A congenital malpositioning of the testes outside their normal scrotal position
Cryptorchidism
137
The presence of three or more testes in a male
Polyorchidism
138
A reactive enlargement of the periurethral portion of the prostate and the so-called median lobe (a part of the prostate located at the neck of the urinary bladder)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
139
T/F A chronic, systemic, sexually-acquired infectious disease caused by the spirochete Treponema palladium subs. pallidum
Syphilis
140
A sexually-acquired infectious disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae; in makes, it produces purulent urethritis
Gonorrhea
141
The inability of a male to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance
Erectile dysfunction
142
A neoplasm likely to secrete significant levels of sex hormones due to estrogen secretion, these neoplasm may cause feminization in a man
Leydig cell tumor
143
The "clap"
Gonorrhea
