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Clinical Microbio > Major Canine & Feline Pathogens > Flashcards

Major Canine & Feline Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

Gram negative bacteria stain what color?

A

Red

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2
Q

Gram positive bacteria stain what color? Why?

A

Blue; due to their thick peptidoglycan walls

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3
Q

Why do Mycoplasma stain red? What is their bacterial classification?

A
  • Because they lack a cell wall and pick up the last stain they’re hit with
  • acid fast (evolved Gram +)
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4
Q

Why is there limitations for antimicrobial that target fungi?

A

Because their cellular makeup is so similar to that of their hosts (ie. Us and animals)

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5
Q

What are some methods for detection of microbial pathogens?

A

Classical culture, molecular PCR, antigen detection agents

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6
Q

What are examples of viral diagnostic procedures?

A
  • Detection of viral antigens
  • detection of viral-specific RNA/DNA
  • antibody response

**these are only helpful if you know what you’re looking for**

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7
Q

What are some potential problems with classical bacterial cultures?

A
  • Slow growing or fastidious microbes

**new molecular techniques are faster to overcome these problems

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8
Q

What is the basis for PCR diagnostics?

A

To detect infectious agents and discriminate non-pathogenic from pathogenic strains

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9
Q

What are the 4 different types of PCR assays?

A
  1. Standard PCR (DNA)
  2. reverse transcription PCR (RNA)
  3. quantitative real time PCR
  4. Pan16S/Microbiome
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10
Q

What is so special about the Pan16S gene?

A

It has several conserved, non variable sequences

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11
Q

What are the advantages to PCR diagnostics?

A
  • Fast and amenable to high throughput
  • can use target gene or “generic” primers followed by sequencing
  • permits ID of non-cultivatable or slow-growing microbes (e.g. mycobacterium, anaerobes, viruses)
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12
Q

What are some disadvantages of PCR?

A
  • You do not get clinical isolates, so you cannot perform sensitivity testing
  • high risk of contamination so requires rigorous quality control
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13
Q

What are four methods of detecting an immune response?

A
  1. ELISA
  2. fluorescent antibody test (FA)
  3. complement fixation (CF)
  4. hemagglutination direct and indirect (HA)
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14
Q

What are three methods of detecting lesions or microbes associated with lesions?

A
  1. Histology/immunohistology
  2. molecular probes
  3. electron microscopy
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15
Q

What is the time interval for seroconversion?

A

Paired sera and 4 fold rise

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16
Q

How do you differentiate acute vs. chronic immune responses using serology?

A
  • Acute: IgM
  • Chronic: IgG
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17
Q

Serology is a good screening tool for what?

A

Negative status of a group of animals and vaccine efficacy

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18
Q

Define sensitivity

A

The percentage of true positives among those truly infected

  • TP/TP + FN
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19
Q

Define specificity

A

The percentage of true negatives among the non-infected

  • TN/TN + FP
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20
Q

Define prevalence

A

Total positives out of all tested

  • TP + FN/total # tested
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21
Q

Define accuracy

A

Total true results out of all tested

  • TP + TN/ total # tested
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22
Q

Define positive predictive value

A

Total amount of positives out of all positives

  • TP/TP + FP
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23
Q

Define negative predictive value

A

Total amount of negatives out of all negatives

  • TN/TN + FN
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24
Q

What is the diagnostic uncertainty range?

A

20% prevalence (more sensitive/TN) < x < 60% prevalence (more specific/TP)

  • if there is < 20% prevalence, don’t believe a positive result
  • if there is >60% prevalence, don’t believe a negative result
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25
Q

Sampling sites without normal microflora include:

A
  • Blood
  • CSF
  • joint fluid
  • urine from the bladder
  • SQ
  • surgically prepped sites
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26
Q

Sampling sites with normal microflora include:

A
  • Skin
  • mucosal sites (minimize contamination)
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27
Q

What are sampling protocols for viral samples?

A
  • Use viral transport medium (keep at 4*C)
    • buffered at physiological pH (protein buffer like BSA) with antibiotics to inhibit bacterial overgrowth
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28
Q

Why should swabs be used with caution for viral sample submission?

A

Some inhibit PCR

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29
Q

What is the sampling protocol for organism isolation, PCR, or Ag detection?

A
  • specimens = tissue, excretions, secretions
  • Aseptic, store cold - DO NOT freeze or fix (some can be frozen at -80 or in liquid nitrogen)
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30
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for serology?

A
  • Specimens: serum, CSF, synovial fluid
  • collection: aseptic, handle gently to prevent hemolysis, remove needle before dispensing, clot at RT and centrifuge, remove serum
  • shipping: refrigerate in MANUAL DEFROST (not frost free!) freezers - double bag and ice pack
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31
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for histology?

A
  • Specimens: tissue
  • Collection: aseptic, 5 mm thick, fix in 10% formalin @ 10x volume
  • shipping: double bag and leak proof container
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32
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for direct FA?

A
  • Specimens: tissue, tissue impression
  • Collection: make impression on clean slide and air dry, fix in alcohol for cytology or acetone for direct FA
  • Shipping: tissue pack on ice and ship as would for microbial isolation, slides can be unrefrigerated
33
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for electron microscopy (usually viral)?

A
  • Specimens: tissue
  • Collection: aseptic, 1x2 mm thick, fix in 2-4% glutaraldehyde at 10x volume
34
Q

What are the sampling collection and shipping protocols for feces or body fluids?

A
  • Collection: Aseptic, fresh, do no freeze or fix
  • Shipping: double bag and wet ice sufficient for 48-72 hr
35
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for aspirates ?

A
  • Sites: joint fluid (may need to collect in syringe w/ small amount of sterile heparin), CSF, abscesses
  • Collection: into syringe, cap tightly, refrigerate, transport on ice
36
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for swabs?

A
  • Sites: EENT, skin; aspirates and biopsies almost ALWAYS preferable to swabs
  • clean and disinfect surface prior to collection
  • general purpose cotton swabs contain substances that inhibitory for some bacteria, PCR rxns, and are NOT SUITABLE for specimen transport
  • Transport: Amies semi-solid transport medium for Mycoplasma and anaerobes, crush ampule to moisten swab
37
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for TTW and BAL?

A
  • Recovery rate for fastidious organisms higher than w/ oropharyngeal or nasal swabs
  • transport and lab set-up ASAP as saline not good preservative
  • refrigerate and use transport medium if mailing
38
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for urine?

A
  • Need to notify when and how urine was collected, collect into sterile container, preferable via cysto or catheter
  • refrigerate <1 hr of collection and process by lab <72 hrs from collection
39
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for blood?

A
  • May need to take multiple samples over time
    • animals not receiving antimicrobials at time of collection —> mix blood collection transport bottle and may hold at room temp for up to 8 hours
    • IF receiving antimicrobials at time of collection —> transport on ice to lab immediately and note usage
40
Q

What are the sampling specimen types and collection protocols for feces?

A
  • Submit 5-10 grams in sterile screw cap container, avoid use of swabs, don’t always contain sufficient numbers of organisms
  • does not protect anaerobic/microaerophilic organisms well, refrigerate
41
Q

What are the sampling methods of choice for anaerobes?

A

Biopsy or needle aspirates

42
Q

Describe necropsy sample submission protocols

A
  • If uncontaminated, survival of pathogens usually good —> use freshest tissues possible (>6 hours after death freq. heavily contaminated)
  • ideal specimen size = 2-4 cm^3 of parenchyma tissue, centered on margin of lesion
  • send ligated intestinal loop 8-10 cm long, NOT contents for culture and list DDX
43
Q

Why are spleen, heart, blood, or bone marrow preferred over liver to detect septicemic infections?

A

Livers are often contaminated by retrograde spread of intestinal flora from from the bile duct

44
Q

What necropsy sites are best for Mycoplasma isolation?

A

Airways

45
Q

What tissues are usually most rewarding for lung cultures?

A

Tissue just ahead of the advancing lesion

46
Q

Mycoplasmas and Ureaplasmas are typically extracellular except for which ones?

A

Hemotrophic mycoplasmas

47
Q

Adenoviridae are what kind of virus? What is an example of this?

A
  • DS linear, non-enveloped, DNA virus
    e. g. Canine adenovirus (Infectious canine hepatitis)
48
Q

Herpesviridae are what kind of virus? Give examples of this.

A
  • DS linear, enveloped, DNA virus

E.g. Canine herpes virus 1 & 2 (hemorrhagic puppy disease); feline viral rhinotracheitis (FHV1)

49
Q

Name some examples of DNA viruses

A
  • Adenoviridae
  • Herpesviridae
  • Parvoviridae
  • Poxviridae
50
Q

Name a few examples of RNA viruses

A
  • Arenaviridae
  • Astroviridae
  • Bunyaviridae
  • Caliciviridae
  • Paramyxoviridae
  • Retroviridae
  • Coronoviridae
  • Rhabdoviridae
51
Q

Describe characteristics of Parvoviridae. What are some examples of these?

A
  • SS linear, non-enveloped, DNA virus
    e. g. Canine parvovirus 1 & 2, feline panleukopenia virus
52
Q

Describe characteristics of Poxviridae. What are some examples of this?

A
  • DS linear, enveloped, DNA virus
    e. g. Feline pox virus, contagious ecthyma/orf/contagious pustular dermatitis (dog, caprine, cervine)
53
Q

Which viruses include Foreign Animal disease agents?

A

Poxviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Paramyxoviridae

54
Q

Describe characteristics of Arenaviridae. What is an example of one?

A
  • SS linear segments, enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. Canine lymphocytic choriomenigitis virus
55
Q

Describe characteristics of Astroviridae. Give an example of one.

A
  • SS linear, non-enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. Feline astrovirus (gastroenteritis)
56
Q

Describe characteristics of Bunyaviridae. Give an example of one.

A
  • SS linear segments, enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. Rift Valley fever virus, Hantavirus (zoonotic)
57
Q

Describe characteristics of Caliciviridae. Give an example of one.

A
  • SS linear, non-enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. Feline calicivirus (URT), canine calicivirus
58
Q

Describe characteristics of Paramyxoviridae. Give an example.

A
  • SS linear, enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. Canine distemper, canine parainfluenza virus
59
Q

Describe characteristics of Retroviridae. Give an example of one.

A
  • 2 copies SS linear, enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. FIV, FeLV
60
Q

Describe characteristics of Coronaviridae. Give an example of one.

A
  • SS linear, enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. Feline enteric coronavirus, FIP, canine coronavirus
61
Q

Describe characteristics of Rhabdoviridae. Give an example of one.

A
  • SS linear, enveloped, RNA virus
    e. g. RABIES
62
Q

What are some airborne diseases that dogs and cats can both contract?

A
  • Anthrax
  • Aspergillus
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Canine parvovirus 2
  • Cocciodes immitis
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
  • Glanders
  • Histoplasma
  • Meliodiosis
  • Nipah virus
  • Plague virus
  • Pneumocystis carinii
  • Q fever
  • Tuberculosis
63
Q

Name some airborne diseases that only cats get?

A
  • Chlamydophila
  • Hendra virus
  • FRV
  • Calicivirus
  • Panleuk
  • FIP
64
Q

Name some airborne diseases only dogs get?

A
  • Tularemia
  • Blastomyces
  • Parvo
  • Infectious canine hepatitis (CAV-2)
  • Canine distemper virus
65
Q

Which vector-borne diseases are transmitted by only ticks?

A
  • Babesia spp.
  • Cytauxzoon felis
  • Erhlichia spp.
  • Lyme disease
  • Q fever (Coxiella)
  • Haemobartonella canis
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia)
  • Tularemia (Francisella)
66
Q

Which vector-borne diseases are transmitted by flies and ticks?

A
  • Bartonella
  • Tularemia
67
Q

Which vector-borne diseases are transmitted by only fleas?

A
  • Haemobartonella
  • Plague (Yersinia)
68
Q

Which vector-borne diseases are transmitted by only fly larvae?

A
  • Screwworm myiasis
69
Q

Which vector-borne disease is transmitted by only sandflies?

A
  • Leishmaniasis
70
Q

Which vector-borne disease is transmitted by the Triatomine bug?

A
  • Chagas’ disease
71
Q

Which vector-borne diseases are transmitted by only mosquitoes?

A
  • West Nile
  • Rift Valley Fever
72
Q

Name some examples of enveloped viruses

A
  • Herpesviridae
  • Poxviridae
  • Paramyxoviridae
  • Arenaviridae
  • Bunyaviridae
  • Retroviridae
  • Coronaviridae
  • Rhabdoviridae
73
Q

Name some examples of non-enveloped viruses

A
  • Adenoviridae
  • Parvoviridae
  • Astroviridae
  • Caliciviridae
74
Q

Name the gram positive cocci

A
  • Enterococcus
  • Micrococcus
  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus
75
Q

Name the Gram positive rods

A
  • Actinomycetes
  • Bacillus
  • Coryneform
  • Erysipelothrix
  • Listeria
  • Mycobacterium (Acid fast)
  • Nocardia
  • Rhodococcus
  • Streptomyces
76
Q

What are the Gram negative aerobic bacteria we focused on?

A
  • Actinobacillus
  • Bordetella
  • Brucella
  • Enterobacter/Enterobacteriaceae
  • Escherchia
  • Haemophilus
  • Klebsiella
  • Pasteurella
  • Proteus
  • Pseudomonas
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Yersinia
77
Q

What are some examples of Gram negative rods that are curved/spiral-shaped?

A
  • Borrelia
  • Campylobacter
  • Helicobacter
  • Leptonema
  • Leptospira
  • Treponema
78
Q

What are some examples of obligate intracellular bacteria (gram negative)?

A
  • Chlamydia
  • Coxiella
  • Ehrlichia
  • Mycoplasma*
  • Rickettsia
  • Ureaplasma*

*Mycoplasmas and Ureaplasmas are generally extracellular EXCEPT for hemotrophic mycoplasmas

79
Q

Which bacteria are anaerobes?

A
  • Actinomyces - GP
  • Bacteroides - GN
  • Clostridium - GP
  • Fusobacterium - GN
  • Lactobacillus - GP

GP = Gram +

GN = Gran -

Clinical Microbio (11 decks)

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