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Clinical Microbio > Control and Prevention > Flashcards

Control and Prevention Flashcards

1
Q

Disinfection is the key to what?

A

Limiting fomite transmission

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2
Q

Define disinfection

A
  • Less lethal process than sterilization
  • Eliminates most pathogenic microorganisms (but not necessarily
    bacterial spores) on inanimate objects
  • Lacks the margin of safety achieved by sterilization procedures
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3
Q

The efficacy of disinfection is based on what?

A

the surface, contact time, production, and dilution

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4
Q

What is the most important piece of information that should be included on a disinfectant product label?

A

contact time

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5
Q

Describe the protocol for cleaning and disinfection

A
  • Clean up any grossly visible debris
  • Wash the surface thoroughly with water and detergent
  • Thoroughly rinse the surface to remove any detergent residue
  • Allow the surface to completely dry
  • Select and apply the appropriate, effective disinfectant
  • Allow the proper contact time!!! (> 10 minutes)
  • Thoroughly rinse away any residual disinfectant and allow the surface to dry
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6
Q

Name the 9 classes of chemical disinfectants

A
  • Acids
  • Alcohols
  • Aldehydes
  • Alkalis
  • Biguanides
  • Halogens
  • Oxidizing agents
  • Phenols
  • Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (QAC)
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7
Q

Which microbes are most susceptible to disinfectants?

A
  1. Mycoplasmas
  2. Gram positive bacteria (Staph, Strep)
  3. Gram negative bacteria
  4. Pseudomonads
  5. Rickettsiae
  6. Enveloped viruses (Herpes, Distemper, FIV, FeLV, FIP, Rabies)
  7. Chlamydia
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8
Q

Which microbes are the least susceptible to disinfectants?

A
  1. Prions
  2. Coccidia
  3. Bacterial spores (Bacillus, Clostridium)
  4. Acid fast bacteria (Mycobacterium)
  5. Parvovirus
  6. Picornavirus (ie. FMD)
  7. Fungal spores
  8. Non-enveloped viruses
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9
Q

Trifectant is what kind of disinfecting agent?

A

Oxidizing

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10
Q

Bleach is what kind of disinfecting agent?

A

Halogen

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11
Q

Chlorhexidine is what kind of disinfecting agent?

A

Biguanide

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12
Q

What does a high level of microbial disinfection mean?

A
  • Eliminates all viruses and vegetative bacteria
  • ​Eliminates MOST but not necessarily all of bacterial spores and fungi
  • takes approx. 3 hours (not commonly used in practice)
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13
Q

What does a intermediate level of microbial disinfection mean?

A
  • Eliminates all vegetative bacteria and most but not all viruses and fungi
  • Does NOT eliminate spores
  • Most commonly used in practice
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14
Q

What does a low level of microbial disinfection mean?

A
  • Free of MOST vegetative bacteria, fungi, and enveloped viruses (ie. Sanitization)
  • Does NOT eliminate spores or non-enveloped viruses
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15
Q

True or False:

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds are very effective against a broad spectrum of microbes

A

False, QAC’s have limited efficacy vs. the majority of microbes

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16
Q

What are the main targets of disinfectants?

A
  • Lipids and proteins —> membrane permeability
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17
Q

Which compounds have good efficacy with organic matter?

A

Phenols

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18
Q

True or False: Cats are particularly sensitive to things that are perfectly safe to other species, such as phenol based disinfectants

A

True

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19
Q

Which two forms of disinfection are the most safe in feline environments?

A
  1. Heat and steam
  2. Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
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20
Q

Which disinfectant commonly used in feline environments is ineffective against parvovirus?

A

Alcohols

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21
Q

Ethanol is ____ effective against FCV than isopropanol, but has ____ efficacy against non-enveloped viruses

A

More; poor

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22
Q

Why should hydrogen peroxide not be used in closed wounds?

A

there’s a risk of air embolism

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23
Q

Sodium bicarbonate is not recommend as a disinfectant because of what?

A

Though it is cheap and safe, it is not effective against some bacteria

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24
Q

What is one precaution for using chlorhexidine as a disinfectant?

A

it can be a skin irritant at _>_4% concentration

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25
Q

What happens when iodine/iodophors are used with alcohol?

A

There is synergistic effect

26
Q

Which 3 disinfectants are not recommended in feline environments?

A
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Citric acid
  3. Phenol compounds
27
Q

What are biofilms?

A
  • Surface associated communities with distinct phenotypes that have increased tolerance to antibiotics and increased resistance to host immune response
  • associated w/ IV and urinary catheters, ET tubes, feeding tubes, cardiac pacemakers, prosthetic joints, peritoneal dialysis catheters
28
Q

Name four gram positive bacterial species associated with biofilms

A
  1. Strep viridans
  2. Strep epidermidis
  3. Staph aureus
  4. Enterococcus faecalis
29
Q

Name four gram negative bacterial species associated with biofilms

A
  1. E. Coli
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. Kleb pneumoniae
  4. Proteus mirabilis
30
Q

Gastroenteritis/intra-abdominal infections are typically from what type of bugs?

A

Gram neg & anaerobes

31
Q

Stomatitis/periodontitis are typically from what type of bugs?

A

Gram pos & anaerobes

32
Q

Chronic otitis externa is typically from what type of bugs?

A

Staph, Pseudomonas, Proteus

33
Q

Chronic rhinitis with osteolysis is typically from what type of bugs?

A

Variety of opportunistic nasal flora, including Aspergillus

34
Q

Nosocomial respiratory infections are typically from what type of bugs?

A

Viruses w/wo bacteria, Chlamydia, or Mycoplasma

35
Q

Aspiration pneumonia is typically from what type of bugs?

A

Anaerobic and aerobic bacteria

36
Q

UTIs are typically from what type of bugs?

A

Gram neg most common

37
Q

Pyothorax is typically from what type of bugs?

A

Variety of anaerobes, some facultative anaerobes

38
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is typically from what type of bugs?

A

Gram pos (Strep or Staph); anaerobes

39
Q

IV cath or tube related/bacteremias are typically from what type of bugs?

A

Variety of commensalism/saprophytic microbes in biofilms

40
Q

Abscess/soft tissue necrosis is typically from what type of bugs?

A

Variety of microbes, including anaerobes

41
Q

Osteomyelitis is typically from what type of bugs?

A

variety of microbes, esp. if compound fracture

42
Q

Burns are typically associated with what type of bugs?

A

Variety of environmental microbes

43
Q

Which infection types require drainage?

A
  • Pyothorax
  • Necrotizing fasciitis
  • Abscess/soft tissue necrosis
  • Osteomyelitis
44
Q

What are the core vaccines for canines?

A
  • Rabies
    • killed, 1 or 3 year, SC or IM
  • Combo vax: Distemper, Adenovirus 2, Parvo, +/- Parainfluenza
    • Modified live, 1 or 3 year, SC
45
Q

What are the noncore vaccines for canines?

A
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica +/- Parainfluenza
    • avirulent live
  • Lepto
    • killed, 4 serovar
  • Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme)
    • killed whole bacterin or recombinant
  • Influenza (H3N8 and H3N2)
    • monovalent or bivalent
  • Crotalus atrox (Western Diamondback Rattlesnake)
    • venom components
46
Q

Which vaccines are NOT recommended in canines?

A
  • Attenuated Measles or Canine Distemper-Measles Combo vax
  • Canine Coronavirus
    • self-limiting and subclinical virus
  • Canine Adenovirus-1
47
Q

You should vaccinate a cat ONLY if…

A
  • realistic risk of exposure
  • agent causes significant disease
  • potential benefits outweigh potential risks
  • no more frequently than necessary
  • greatest # possible in at risk population
  • appropriate to protect human health
48
Q

What are the core vaccines for felines?

A
  • Combo vaccine - Panleukopenia, calicivirus, and herpesvirus-1
    • MLV SC
    • MLV non-adjuvanted IN
  • Rabies
49
Q

What are the noncore vaccines for felines?

A
  • FeLV (SC; only FeLV negative cats)
    • canary pox virus- vectored recombinant, non-adjuvanted
    • killed, adjuvanted
  • FIV (SC)
    • killed, adjuvanted
  • Chlamydophila felis (SC)
    • Avirulent live or killed adjuvanted
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica (IN)
    • Avirulent live
50
Q

Which vaccine is not recommended for felines?

A

FIP (IN) - MLV

51
Q

What does the claim that a vaccine ‘prevents infection’ mean?

A
  • ONLY if prevents ALL colonization or replication of challenge microbe it vaccinates
  • Very difficult to achieve
52
Q

What does the claim that a vaccine ‘prevents disease’ mean?

A
  • Highly effective in preventing clinical disease in vaccinates; 85% CI must be at least 80%
  • Very difficult to achieve
53
Q

What does the claim that a vaccine ‘aids in disease prevention’ mean?

A
  • Prevent disease by clinically significant amount (< than Prevention claim)
54
Q

What does the claim that a vaccine ‘aids in disease control’ mean?

A
  • Alleviate disease severity, reduce disease duration, or delay disease onset
55
Q

How does the response to a modified live (replicating) vaccine differ from that to an inactivated (nonreplicating) vaccine?

A

With a MLV, you get a much stronger antibody response earlier on (<1 week compared to one week) and it remains stronger throughout than that in response to an inactivated vaccine

56
Q

What are some host factors that would cause a vaccine to fail?

A
  • Immunodeficiencies (failure to respond/recognize vaccinal Ag)
  • Maternal Ab interference (does not affect oral immunization)
  • Age (very young or very old)
  • Pregnancy (avoid modified live)
  • Stress, concurrent illness
  • Pyrexia, hypothermia
  • Incubating disease at time of infection
  • Immunosuppressed: glucocorticoids or cytotoxic drugs
57
Q

Why do we continue to give vaccine boosters until at least 14-16 weeks?

A

because maternal immunity/antibodies prevents the production of host antibodies until approximately 12-14 weeks of age

58
Q

List some vaccine factors that could cause vaccine failure

A
  • Vaccine is poorly immunogenic
    • manufacturing or viral strain/passage errors
    • excessive attenuation
  • Post-manufacture factors (e.g. incorrect storage, transportation and handling)
  • Disinfectant used on needles & syringes
  • Overwhelming exposure
59
Q

What are some human errors that could cause vaccine failure?

A
  • improper mixing
  • exposed at time of vaccination visit
  • concurrent use of antimicrobials or immunosuppressive drugs
  • simultaneous use of antisera
  • too frequent administration (<2 wk intervals)
  • wrong route of admin
60
Q

Testing for Ab is the only practical way to ensure that a puppy’s immune system has what?

A

Recognized the vaccinal antigen

Clinical Microbio (11 decks)

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