Maintenance, Contingency Planning, and Explosive Safety Flashcards

1
Q

What actions are generally covered under organizational maintenance?

A

This level generally includes repair, munitions up/down loading, inspection, testing, servicing and/or calibration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which individuals should all requests for depot-level assistance must be coordinated?

A

The QA office and MOS/MOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the four inspection concepts used in the Air Force?

A
  • Periodic
  • Phased
  • Isochronal
  • PDM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What TO lists the types of inspections?

A

TO 00–20–1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are periodic inspections?

A

Inspections due upon accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the phase-inspection concept involve?

A

A consolidation of the basic postflight and/or hourly postflight and periodic inspection requirements into small packages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the primary objective of the phased-inspection concept?

A

To minimize the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the isochronal inspection concept?

A

A concept to translate flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods, usually expressed in days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The isochronal concept is constructed to allow for what?

A

The time that an aircraft is programmed to be in inspection status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is PDM?

A

An inspection requiring skills, equipment, or facilities not normally possessed by operating locations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

As an armament personnel what are your responsibilities in an EOR inspection?

A

The arming and security of the items suspended or loaded on the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When would you complete a thruflight inspection?

A

When a turnaround sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled and a basic postflight inspection is not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When would you complete a basic postflight inspection?

A

After the last flight of a specified flying period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a postload inspection?

A

The reliability check of a completed loading operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who establishes the guidelines for in process inspections?

A

MAJCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What office is normally the OPR for IPI implementation?

A

QA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are one-time inspections?

A

Inspections that come about due to a defect or are done to inspect an item for a defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What two systems did IMDS replace?

A

CAMS and REMIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the IMDS?

A

It functions as a “single” logical database to accommodate historical and legacy data currently stored in other databases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the NCAA?

A

An analytical process designed to quantitatively identify the most effective mix of conventional air munitions to be programmed for procurement and maintained in the WRM stockpile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What requirements does the NCAA address?

A

Air-to-surface and air-to-air conventional munitions and aircraft fuel TRAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the WCDO?

A

The official MAJCOM document developed that shows the base-by-base munitions or TRAP requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the TAMP?

A

An allocation document for air-to-air missile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the use of the TPFDD?

A

To deploy forces to any contingency operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Typically, what is an OPLAN?
A plan for all US military services to mobilize, bed-down, and wage war in a specific theater of operation
26
What does the BSP do?
It supports the OPLAN
27
What information do you find in the two parts of the BSP?
Part 1 identifies the total base resources and capabilities without assessing the impact of wartime or contingency tasking. Part 2 assesses the ability of the installation to support contingency operations with the total resources identified in Part 1
28
What does the DOC contain?
It contains unit identification, mission tasking, narration, mission specifications, and personnel resources
29
What is an ITO?
Information on the number and type of missions to be flown and what munitions will be carried
30
What is an ATO?
The same information as the ITO, but it also provides all-inclusive tasking
31
What is contained in the generation flow plan?
This plan identifies the aircraft, by line number and munitions configuration, to be flown based on the capability of the aircraft
32
Who bears the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all material is properly prepared for deployments?
Unit commanders
33
What two kinds of wood are appropriate core materials for a 463L pallet?
- Redwood | - Balsa wood
34
What three conditions disqualify a 463L pallet as being unserviceable?
- Separation of the skin form the wooden core center. - Damaged and/or missing D-rings. - Visible wooden core or missing skin material.
35
What qualifications should full-time weapons safety personnel have?
Be qualified in their AFSC or Civil Service equivalent in the maintenance or operation of nuclear weapons, missile, or nonnuclear munitions and have completed the AETC weapons safety course
36
Why do weapons safety personnel monitor operations involving weapons?
To make sure those units understand and follow all safety standards
37
On what are the requirements for storing explosives based?
Amount of explosives or NEW
38
What sets the guidelines for safely storing explosives?
AFMAN 91–201
39
What plan contains all necessary information to properly site and construct either a PES or an ES?
ESP
40
Who prepares and submit ESPs for facilities or operations requiring explosives?
Weapons safety office
41
On what is the amount of explosive stored in an area based?
The type of explosive
42
Do shelters for arm/de-arm crews need to be sited?
Yes
43
How does the civil engineer help weapons safety personnel during site planning?
By supplying current maps and facility design
44
What does preliminary site planning approval authorize CE to do?
Continue with planning activities
45
Who keeps a list of all qualified personnel for a SIB?
Wing/base commander (or higher)
46
On what does the size and membership of a SIB depend?
The kind of mishap being investigated
47
Normally what rank is the SIB president for all nuclear accidents?
Colonel
48
Personnel performing a physical demilitarization must be?
Technically qualified and trained appropriately for processes and equipment
49
What DOD manual would you refer to if you wanted additional demilitarization information on weapons related equipment?
DOD Manual 4160.28
50
The level of your maintenance system primarily concerned with testing and repair, replacement of component parts, line replaceable units, and alternate mission equipment (AME) is called
Intermediate
51
Which level of your maintenance system includes centralized intermediate repair facilities (CIRF)?
Intermediate
52
The level of maintenance performed on or off-equipment at a major repair facility is called
Depot
53
In addition to the maintenance operation squadron/maintenance operation flight (MOS/MOF) which other organization must you request depot-level assistance through?
Quality Assurance
54
How many authorized inspection concepts are used for aircraft?
Four
55
Which inspection concept is based upon accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable –6 scheduled inspection, and maintenance requirements manual?
Periodic
56
The primary objective of the phased inspection concept is to
Minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for any given scheduled inspection
57
Which inspection concept is designed to translate flying hour utilization rates into calendar periods expressed in days?
Isochronal
58
Which inspection concept is used to inspect individual areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements listed in the –6?
Programmed Depot Maintenance (PDM)
59
The flightline inspection that must be accomplished after each flight when a turnaround sortie is scheduled is the
thruflight
60
Which flightline inspection is completed after the last flight of a specified flying period?
Basic postflight
61
The flightline inspection that is an integral part of any loading operation is
postload
62
Who establishes the guidelines for the flightline in process inspection (IPI)?
Major command (MAJCOM)
63
Which kind of flightline inspection is usually initiated after a high failure rate of an item occurs, which is followed by a safety supplement or a one-time inspection being issued?
In process inspection (IPI)
64
The type of flightline inspection that is done because of a defect or to inspect a particular item or system for a defect is called a/an
one-time inspection
65
The integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) replaced the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS) and the
Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS)
66
Which document reflects the munitions required to meet unit operational and training needs?
Unit Committed Munitions List (UCML)
67
The document that is used to determine which munitions your load crews are required to be trained and hold a certification is the
Unit Committed Munitions List (UCML)
68
How many combined munitions and munitions family groups (MFG) can a non-test unit’s load crew hold a certification?
15
69
Each base assigned as a bed down location or assigned the responsibility to support forces for the operation plan (OPLAN) must develop a
base support plan (BSP)
70
Which type of information is contained in the designed operations capability (DOC) statement?
Mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources required
71
The document that provides an all-inclusive tasking for aircraft and munitions is the
Air Tasking Order (ATO)
72
How many D-rings are on the 463L pallet rail?
22
73
The usable dimensions of the 436L pallet is
84” x 104”
74
Which feature would prevent a 436L pallet from being used?
Skin separated from the wood core center
75
Who authorizes flightline locations for conducting explosive operations such as explosive cargo on- or off- loading and combat aircraft explosives loading?
Wing weapons safety
76
Who is responsible for preparing and submitting all explosives site plans (ESP)?
Wing weapons safety office
77
The term “quantity-distance (Q-D)” refers to the
protection requirements from potential explosive sites (PES) to different kinds of exposed sites (ES)
78
Which situation would be a reason to submit a request for a new explosive site plan?
A munitions with increased or more hazardous class/division is introduced
79
Which area requires an explosive site plan (ESP)?
Shelters for arm/de-arm crews
80
Who determines the need for an explosive site plan (ESP)?
Weapons safety personnel
81
Who must keep a current list of personnel qualified for a safety investigation board (SIB)?
Base and wing commander
82
Identify the minimum rank of the president of a safety investigation board (SIB) involving ground, explosive, or aircraft safety in a Class-A on-duty mishap.
Colonel or GM–15
83
Historically, who ensures the independence and integrity of safety investigation boards (SIB)?
Congress
84
Identify the qualifications you must have to perform a physical demilitarization function?
Technically qualified personnel trained appropriately for processes and equipment use