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7-Level > Common 7-Level Duties > Flashcards

Common 7-Level Duties Flashcards

1
Q

What does -1 refer to?

A

the flight manual that lists the flight characteristics, parameter of flight, limits of operations, and general operations procedures of different airframes

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2
Q

What is the T.O. for the Flight Manual

A

1A–10C–1

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3
Q

What is listed in the “Operating Limitations” section of the -1 flight manual that is of interest to aircraft armament systems technicians?

A

All approved and authorized air munitions and stores configurations.

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4
Q

What is a standard conventional load?

A

A locally developed code that represents the number, type, and configuration of authorized munitions required for a specific mission and aircraft load.

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5
Q

Who is the weapons expediter responsible to for all armament systems maintenance and munitions loading operations?

A

The weapons section NCOIC

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6
Q

As a weapons expediter, you use the radio to communicate with whom concerning delivery and pick up of equipment and munitions items?

A

With other expediters, MOC, and munitions control.

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7
Q

What are the three main factors in prioritizing your work?

A
  • Aircraft Status
  • Personnel
  • Outside forces
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8
Q

What are the three aircraft status codes and describe each one of them?

A

CODE 1—All systems are functioning properly.
CODE 2—One or more systems have minor discrepancies.
CODE 3—One or more essential systems are not operational.

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9
Q

What is the most difficult factor to account for when you, the weapons expediter, try to make workload decisions?

A

Outside forces

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10
Q

Who is responsible for making sure the WLT aircraft is configured and functioning properly?

A

You, the weapons expediter

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11
Q

What is the desired end state of Total Force Integration?

A

A more capable and a more resource efficient Air Force that leverages the unique strengths of each component and increases Air Force combat capabilities

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12
Q

What does Title 10, United States Code govern?

A

The armed forces of the United States, including the regular AF, the AFR, and the ANGUS when called to active duty

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13
Q

The ANG mobilized in Title 32 status for certain HLD missions continue to report through whom?

A

Report through the governor

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14
Q

Name some of the subjects covered in the MLA?

A
  • Rights and obligations.
  • Discipline and counseling
  • Arbitration
  • Leave, both annual, and sick
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15
Q

Who appoints impoundment officials?

A

Group commanders

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16
Q

Who develops procedures for identifying impounded aircraft or equipment release authority?

A

MAJCOM

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17
Q

Who determines if maintenance analysis support is required?

A

Impoundment official

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18
Q

What maintenance operations can be included in a CSO?

A

Simultaneous loading/unloading of munitions, fueling, aircraft reconfiguration, and may include aircraft -6 inspections, and other aircraft servicing

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19
Q

What prerequisite qualification must someone have before being named a CSS?

A

The CSS must be at least a 7-level with a maintenance (2AXXX or 2WXXX) AFSC with at least one year of experience on the MDS

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20
Q

What specific conditions must be met while performing a DLO?

A

Load crews must conduct independent loading operations and; loading and fueling operations must not be performed simultaneously due to the hazard of the aircraft settling

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21
Q

What document informs you, the weapons expediter, of the aircraft scheduled for training?

A

Flying schedule

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22
Q

What form do you use to submit changes to the flying schedule?

A

AF Form 2407

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23
Q

What form lists all jobs for the day and the technicians who completed them?

A

AF Form 2430

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24
Q

What form is used to track munitions expenditures?

A

AF Form 2434

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25
Q

What information is recorded on the AFTO Form 244?

A

Equipment delayed discrepancies and corrective actions, services, periodic and special inspections, inspection status, and historical data

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26
Q

What form provides a permanent history of significant maintenance actions?

A

AFTO IMT 95/Automated 95

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27
Q

What information is documented in the TBA journal entry?

A

An individual’s training status, counseling, and breaks in training

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28
Q

What document shows the overall training requirement for an AFSC?

A

The STS

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29
Q

What does a Field Evaluation Questionnaire (FEQ) provide and how often are they conducted?

A

This FEQ is used to provide feedback on the quality of formal course graduates. FEQs are normally conducted every 2 years and are sent to supervisors of graduates 4 to 6 months following graduation

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30
Q

Within how many days must a trainee retest after a failed CE?

A

90 days

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31
Q

What are the individual’s safety program responsibilities?

A

Comply with all safety instructions, technical orders, job guides, and operating procedures

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32
Q

Air Force Form 1118 should be posted where once it is received from the investigating office?

A

The form should be only posted at or near as possible to the hazard and be maintained in good condition

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33
Q

What are the six physiological factors that contribute to unsafe attitudes and negatively impact one’s performance?

A
  • Healthy emotions
  • Job or domestic pressures.
  • Distractions.
  • Job knowledge.
  • Shift work.
  • Hurrying or feeling rushed
34
Q

What are supervisors responsible for when emergency showers and eyewash stations are provided?

A

Inspect, test and maintain the emergency shower and eyewash stations

35
Q

What directive establishes the Air Force Risk Management policy and responsibilities necessary to effectively execute Risk Management by Air Force personnel?

A

Air Force Policy Directive

36
Q

Where may you display electrical safety PPE?

A

On a board, stored in an unlocked cabinet or made available in a portable kit, and shall be in a prominent location at each site, well-marked and readily accessible

37
Q

All workers involved in a job on energized circuits require what training?

A

Trained in CPR and equipment shutdown procedures and responsible for immediate assistance in an emergency

38
Q

Which technical order covers ESDs?

A

TO 00−25−234

39
Q

Define what an ESD is?

A

Is any component (primarily electrical) which can be damaged by common static charges which build up on
people, tools, and other nonconductors or semiconductors

40
Q

What is a device that may be partially degraded yet continues to perform its intended functions, but operating life of the device may be reduced dramatically?

A

Latent failure

41
Q

What is one or more insulated conductors with an overall shield, or an overall shield and jacket over the shield?

A

Shielded cable

42
Q

What is a triaxial cable?

A

Is a single insulated center conductor with a metallic inner and outer conductor (shields). Each conductor is
protected/insulated by a dielectric material or a jacket

43
Q

What is a connector?

A

A connector is an electromechanical device that permits circuit elements to be electrically and mechanically separated and reconnected without disturbing other elements

44
Q

Connector system consists of what two mating assemblies?

A

Plug and receptacle

45
Q

What are the most common types of coupling and locking of a plug and receptacle?

A
  • Threaded
  • Bayonet
  • Push-pull
46
Q

Describe how schematics diagrams help the maintainer during troubleshooting.

A

Support the theory of operation and will assist in establishing troubleshooting procedures, and aid in understanding the troubleshooting process

47
Q

What are the three fundamental phases of troubleshooting in order of operation?

A
  • Recognize the problem
  • Analysis.
  • Repair
48
Q

Which technical order (TO) series should you refer to when loading an unfamiliar munitions configuration?

A

−1 Flight manual

49
Q

Who is the weapons expediter directly responsible to for all armament systems maintenance and munitions loading operations?

A

Weapons section non-commissioned officer in charge

50
Q

The benchmark time that is standard for aircraft repairs is

A

8 hours

51
Q

Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) describes the responsibilities for Total Force Integration?

A

90–1001

52
Q

The total force integration concept that gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign tasks, and provide the direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the mission is

A

operational direction

53
Q

When an entire Air National Guard (ANG) unit is performing in a Title 10 status, it must be assigned to which type of organizational structure?

A

Title 10

54
Q

The master labor agreement (MLA) applies to which type of civilian employees?

A

Bargaining unit

55
Q

Who has the authority to grant a “one time” flight of an impounded aircraft according to technical order (TO) 00–20–01?

A

Group Commander

56
Q

Which type of aircraft servicing will not be accomplished during fuel servicing while performing a concurrent servicing operation (CSO)?

A

Oxygen

57
Q

Which concurrent servicing operation (CSO) aircraft maintenance action requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)?

A

Aircraft fueling

58
Q

Which functional area can authorize a fighter unit to conduct dual loading operations (DLO)?

A

Major command (MAJCOM)

59
Q

Which requirement constitutes the recurring annual training requirement for dual loading operations (DLO)?

A

Academic training only

60
Q

Who is the approval authority for locally modified versions of the AF IMT 2430, Specialist Dispatch Control Log?

A

Wing weapons manager

61
Q

In the unlikely event that an aircraft does not return from a mission, which AF IMT provides an accurate record of what type and number of munitions were loaded, and the part/serial numbers of installed alternate mission equipment (AME)?

A

2434

62
Q

The form published as a continuation form for Part 5 of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record is an

A

AFTO Form 245

63
Q

Items such as jammer forks require a periodic serviceability testing with the results documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form

A

244

64
Q

Which document type is sent to the gaining unit when transferring equipment such as missile launchers, bomb racks, and suspension utility units?

A

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data Record or automated AFTO Form 95

65
Q

Who must electronically sign all training business area (TBA) journal entries?

A

Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee

66
Q

Which document serves as a contract between the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) and the user to show the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that the formal schools teach?

A

Specialty training standard (STS)

67
Q

You must evaluate a recent formal school graduate’s military bearing and technical ability within

A

90 days

68
Q

The individual that may grant an extension to a trainee’s 30-day time limit per career development course (CDC) volume completion, due to mission requirements is the

A

Unit Training Manager

69
Q

When a trainee fails their course exam on the first attempt the maximum amount of days allowed for the trainee to retest is

A

90

70
Q

Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) covers the Air Force mishap prevention program to minimize the loss of resources and protect Air Force personnel from death, injury, or illness by managing risks?

A

91−202

71
Q

Who ensures adherence to your work center safety program requirements are part of the measurement of non-supervisory personnel’s performance appraisal?

A

Supervisor

72
Q

The organization that advises commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and workers on all safety matters is

A

installation safety office

73
Q

Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) assigns responsibilities to individuals or functions to help commanders manage their safety and health programs?

A

91−203

74
Q

The three main human factors you should consider when it comes to safety in your work center are

A

physiological, physical, and organizational

75
Q

The Air Force Instruction (AFI) that covers Air Force occupational safety instructions for electrical safety is

A

91−203

76
Q

Who will you contact if you receive an improperly packaged electrostatic sensitive device (ESD)?

A

Base supply

77
Q

The electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) level that is not a classification of damage is

A

Human Error Failure

78
Q

Which type of cable is not classified as a radio frequency cable?

A

Shielded

79
Q

Which component consists of two mating assemblies, the plug and receptacle?

A

Connector system

80
Q

Identify the last phase in the troubleshooting process of technical data once you have located your malfunction.

A

Repair

7-Level (4 decks)

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