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MA > MA Test 2 > Flashcards

MA Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Purpose of a Physical Exam

A
  1. to examine healthy patient
  2. to confirm overall health status and provide baseline values
  3. to diagnose a medical problem
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2
Q

Role of MA in Physical Exam (5)

A
  • makes sure all materials are available.
  • all lighted equipment checked in advance
  • stock all supplies like drapes and gowns
  • help pt into exam positions and drape as needed
  • give pre-op and post-op instructions.
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3
Q

Penlight (PE equipment)

A

lighted instrument used to examine the pupil

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4
Q

Opthalmoscope (PE Equipment)

A

lighted instrument used to examine entire eye

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5
Q

Otoscope

A

lighted instrument used to examine the ear

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6
Q

audiometer

A

used to test hearing

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7
Q

Diagnosis definition

A

the process of determining which disease/condition explains a patient’s Signs and symptoms

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8
Q

clinical diagnosis vs differential diagnosis

A

clinical: based on S&S and lab findings
differential: rules out S&S of similar diseased to determine actual disease

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9
Q

prognosis definition

A

the forecast of a probable cause of a disorder

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10
Q

Describe sitting position and what can be examined?

A

pt. sits at edge of table without back support
- can examine head, back, chest, and arms

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11
Q

Describe standing position, uses, and what can be examined?

A

pt standing with upper body resting on exam table
- used for injections and examining rectal and back ares.

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12
Q

Describe supine position and what can be examined.

A

pt. is laying flat on back
- can examine head, neck, chest, abdomen, and arms

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13
Q

Describe dorsal recumbent and what can be examined?

A

pt is laying flat on his back, knees bent, and feet flat on table.
- can examine head, neck, chest, cervix, and genital area

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14
Q

What exam position is the alternative to lithotomy for the elderly?

A

dorsal recumbent

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15
Q

Describe lithotomy and what can be examined.

A

pt. laying on back, knees bent, and feet in stirrups
- used for exam of female genitals
- used to exam perineal area

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16
Q

Describe Trendelenburg and it’s use.

A

Pt. supine with head lower than feet
used to treat hypotension

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17
Q

Which exam position is used if patient experiences hypotension?

A

Trendelenburg

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18
Q

Describe Reverse Trendelenburg and its use.

A

pt. supine with legs lower than head
used to treat hypertension.

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19
Q

Which exam position is used if patient experiences hypertension?

A

Reverse Trendelenburg

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20
Q

Describe prone position and what can be examined.

A

pt. lying on table facedown head turned to the side
- can examine back, head, neck, and legs

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21
Q

Describes Fowler’s position and it’s use.

A

pt. sitting at a 90 degree angle
used for SOB

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22
Q

Describe Semi-Fowler’s position and it’s use.

A

pt. sitting at a 45 degree angle
used for SOB

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23
Q

Describe Sim’s position and it’s uses (3)

A

pt. laying on left side with right leg slightly bent
used for enemas, rectal temperatures, and suppositories

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24
Q

Describe Knee-Chest position and what is examined.

A

pt. facedown resting on forearms, weight on knees and chest, hips are at a 90 degree angle and thighs are separated.
- used to examine perineal area for proctologic procedures

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25
Q

Describe Proctologic (Jack-Knife) position

A

pt. facedown, ben t at the hips at a 90 degree angle. middle of table is bent and both sides are positioned downward.

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26
Q

What are the 6 exam methods?

A
  1. inspection
  2. palpation
  3. Auscultation
  4. Mensuration
  5. Manipulation
  6. Percussion.
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27
Q

Describe Inspection exam method

A

visual exam of patient’s body

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28
Q

Describe palpation exam method

A

MD assesses temperature, shape, and presence

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29
Q

Describe Auscultation exam method

A

process of listening to body sounds with a stethoscope

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30
Q

Describe Mensuration exam method (AKA___)

A

measuring body parts(height, weight, and head/chest circumference)
AKA anthropometric

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31
Q

Describe Manipulation exam method.

A

systematic movement of patient’s body parts using force
checking ROM

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32
Q

Describe percussion exam method.

A

involves striking of the body.

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33
Q

What is the most common visual screening test?

A

Snellen Test

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34
Q

What does the Snellen test assess and diagnose

A

Assesses far vision
diagnoses nearsightedness.

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35
Q

Describe how to perform Snellen Test.

A

stand 20 ft away from sign.
stand straight with hands to the side, no squinting or leaning
begin with the 3rd line.
Read with both eyes, then right eye, then left eye.

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36
Q

What does a bigger bottom number for Snellen Test indicate

A

more blurry vision.

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37
Q

What age is visual screening done after?

A

only done after 3 yo.

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38
Q

Big E chart is used on?

A

pediatric and non-English speaking pts.

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39
Q

Kindergarten Test is used on?

A

young pts who don’t recognize letters

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40
Q

What does the Jaeger Test assess and diagnose

A

assesses near vision
diagnoses farsightedness

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41
Q

Describe how to perform Jaeger Test

A

hold chart 14-16 inches away from eyes
keep both eyes open when reading
record the smallest line read without erro

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42
Q

Define Presbyopia

A

visual condition related to aging

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43
Q

Define myopia (otherwise known as)

A

distant objects appear blurred
nearsightedness

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44
Q

Define hyperopia (otherwise known as)

A

closes objects appear blurred
farsightedness

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45
Q

What does the Ishihara Test determine?

A

color blindness

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46
Q

What is color blindness?

A

when your eyes don’t recognize certain colors.

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47
Q

Daltonism

A

can’t distinguish b/w red and green

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48
Q

Achromatic Vision

A

total color blindness

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49
Q

Deuteranopia

A

can’t tell difference between bluish greens and neutral shaded

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50
Q

Color-vision acuity

A

inability to receive colors of the spectrum

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51
Q

Protanopia

A

partial color blindness, difficulty received red, yellow, and green

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52
Q

Tritanopia

A

can’t distinguish blue

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53
Q

What does mensuration mean?

A

to measure

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54
Q

Height and weight are conducted laying down on pediatric patients until what age?

A

until 36 months.

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55
Q

How often are height and weight conducted for pediatric patients?

A

at every office visit.

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56
Q

Describe how to obtain head circumference
- where to place measuring tape

A

place measuring tape above the eyebrow

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57
Q

Describe how to obtain chest circumference
- where to place measuring tape

A

place measuring tape above the nipples

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58
Q

What is height and weight used to determine?

A

BMI

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59
Q

Febrile definition
a sign of?

A

with fever, sign of inflammation

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60
Q

pyrexia

A

with fever

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61
Q

Afebrile

A

without fever

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62
Q

Continuous fever definition

A

fever remains above the baseline

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63
Q

Intermittent fever definition

A

fever fluctuates but remains above the baseline

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64
Q

hyperpyrexia

A

an exceptionally high fever

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65
Q

Most accurate method to obtain temperature?

A

rectally

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66
Q

Least accurate method to obtain temperature?

A

axillary

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67
Q

Temperature values for oral method

A

98.6 F/37 C

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68
Q

Temperature values for Axillary Method

A

97.6 F
36.5 C

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69
Q

Temperature values for Rectal Method

A

98.6-100.6 F
37 - 48 C

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70
Q

Temperature values for Slight Temperature

A

99.6-101 F
37.5 - 38.3 C

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71
Q

Temperature values for Moderate Temperature

A

101- 102 F
38.3 - 38.8 C

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72
Q

Temperature values for Severer Temperature

A

102 - 104 F
38.8 - 40 C

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73
Q

Temperature values for Dangerous Temperature

A

104 - 105 F
40- 40.5 C

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74
Q

Temperature values for Fatal Temperature

A

Greater than 106 F
Greater than 41.1 C

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75
Q

Respiration =

A

total inspiration + expirationn

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76
Q

Apnea definition

A

absence of breathing

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77
Q

Average respiration for adults (ages 15+)

A

16-20

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78
Q

Average respirations for newborns

A

30-80

79
Q

Average respirations for early childhood

A

20-40

80
Q

Average respirations for late childhood

A

16-26

81
Q

Bradpnea

A

respirations less than 12

82
Q

Tachypnea

A

respirations greater than 20

83
Q

When does Cheyne stokes normally occur and what is it?

A
  • occurs with acute brain, heart, or lung damage.
    slow and shallow breathing that increases in depth frequency followed by shallow breaths then apnea for 10-12 second.s
84
Q

Blood pressure definition

A

amount of force exerted on the walls of the artery

85
Q

Normal Blood pressure.

A

120/80

86
Q

Orthostatic ypotension

A

when there is a drop of 20 mm/hg or more after going from sitting to standing

87
Q

How many times is the BP taken to test for orthostatic hypotension

A

3 times.

88
Q

What are the positions orthostatic hypotension is obtained in (in order)

A
  1. lying down
  2. sitting up.
  3. standing.
89
Q

What do you allow patient to do before obtaining orthostatic hypotension

A

sit for 10 minutes.

90
Q

Prehypertension values

A

Systolic: 120-139
Diastolic: 80-89

91
Q

Stage 1 Hypertension values

A

Systolic: 140-159
diastolic: 90-99

92
Q

Stage 2 hypertension values

A

Systolic: above 160
Diastolic: above 100

93
Q

Hypotension values

A

Below 90/60

94
Q

What does pulse oximetry measure and how does it measure it?

A

measures the amount of oxygen in the blood
- uses infrared signals to read the amount of oxygen in the blood.

95
Q

Where can pulse oximetry machine be attached to?

A

ear lobe or finger

96
Q

What can pulse oximetry reading be affected by? (3)

A

nail polish, artificial nails, and poor circulation.

97
Q

If pulse oximetry reading is below ___, you should ask patient to do what during reading.

A

if below 92%, ask patient to take deep breath during reading.

98
Q

Hypoxia is defined by

A

pulse oximetry below 94%.

99
Q

What does Pulmonary Function Test measure

A

how well the lung takes in and releases air.

100
Q

What should the patient not do prior to PFT

A

taking bronchodilators.

101
Q

How to obtain PFT.
- how many breaths should patient take

A

pt. should sit straight and breath through a mouthpiece.
pt. should take 10 deep breaths in and out.

102
Q

When is PFT always done and when is it sometimes done?

A

Always done after surgery
sometimes done before surgery

103
Q

How often should Breast Self Exam (BSE) be performed?

A

monthly

104
Q

When is the best time to perform BSE?

A

7-10 days after menstrual cycle

105
Q

What should pt observe for during BSE?

A

discharge, puckering, dimpling, and scaling of the skin

106
Q

When does testicular self examination begin?

A

at the age of 15

107
Q

Where is Testicular Exam best done (2)

A

in shower or standing inn front of mirrror.

108
Q

What should patient look for during testicular exam and how should they examine testicles?

A

look for swelling of the skin of the scrotum
- roll testicles between the thumb and the 2nd and 3rd digit.

109
Q

What temperature should ear irrigation solution be at?

A

warm between 99-100 F

110
Q

What should you do first before ear irrigation?

A

view ear with otoscope

111
Q

Which direction is solution directed in ear?

A

upward and to one side to avoid the eardrum.

112
Q

Describe the process for ear irrigation?

A
  • place ear drops first to soften wax.
  • drape shoulder and place basin under the ear
  • chart amt of solutionn used.
113
Q

What temperature should eye irrigation solution be at?

A

room temperature.

114
Q

Describe the process for eye irrigation/ direction?
what should be charted?

A

irrigation is done from the inner canthus to the outer canthus.
- chart the name and amount of solution that was placed in the eys.

115
Q

Lavage definition

A

was out an area of the body.

116
Q

Gt/Gtt

A

drop/drops

117
Q

Absorption definition

A

drug goes into the bloodstream

118
Q

Distribution definition.

A

drug is distributed throughout the body

119
Q

Metabolism definition

A

chemical conversion of drugs

120
Q

Excretion definition
- what is it done by?

A

permanent removal of drugs
done by the liver.

121
Q

osteomalacia definition

A

cracks in the bone

122
Q

what is the name of the pregnancy hormone?

A

HCG

123
Q

DNR stands for and what is needed?

A

do not resuscitate
a living will is needed

124
Q

Korotkoff sounds

A

sounds heard when taking BP

125
Q

Eschericia coli

A

bacteria found in the intestines and is considered gram-negative bacillus

126
Q

What is the 5th vital sign?

A

pain

127
Q

Type 1 Diabetes is insulin ___

A

insulin dependent
pancreas produces little to no insulin

128
Q

Type 2 diabetes is insulin ____

A

insulin resistant
the body becomes resistant to insulin and sugar builds up in the blood

129
Q

Symptoms of diabetes Mellitus (4)

A
  1. blurred vision
  2. frequent urination
  3. weight loss
  4. headaches.
130
Q

Complications often caused by diabetes

A

retinopathy, amputation, and slow wound healing

131
Q

What should you give to a patient in insulin shock (severe hypoglycemia)?

A

glucagon or hard candy

132
Q

Scoliosis definition

A

abnormal S-shape curvature of the spine

133
Q

Abrasion

A

a wound in which the outer skin is scraped off

134
Q

Hypothyroidism is a deficiency in?

A

iodine

135
Q

Empathy

A

understanding how a patient feels

136
Q

Hypothalamus regulated and controls??

A

body temperature

137
Q

Anthropometric

A

to measure body parts

138
Q

HPI stands for?

A

history of present illnesses

139
Q

Coronary Bypass Graft

A

treats coronary artery disease/plaque buildup

140
Q

Nucleus

A

houses the DNA and copies genetic content.

141
Q

What are the 4 types of wound drainage

A
  1. purulent
  2. sanguineous
  3. serosanguineous
  4. serous
142
Q

Purulent discharge
- color
- sign of

A

yellow pus-like drainage
sign of infection

143
Q

Sanguineous discharge
- color
- sign of

A

bright red bloody discharge
sign pt. is currently bleeding

144
Q

Serosanguineous discharge
- color
- occurs when

A

plasma-tinged bloody discharged
takes place after bleeding stops

145
Q

Serous drainage
- color

A

clear, watery discharge

146
Q

What is the most common pulse site?

A

Radial

147
Q

Pulse range: less than 1

A

100-170 BPM

148
Q

Pulse range: 2-6 yo

A

90-115 BPM

149
Q

Pulse range: 6-10 yo

A

80-110 BPM

150
Q

Pulse range: 11-16 yo

A

70-95 BPM

151
Q

Pulse range: Midlife

A

65-80 BPM

152
Q

Pulse range: elderly

A

50-65 BPM

153
Q

Tachycardia

A

pulse above 100 BPM

154
Q

Bradycardia

A

Pulse below 60 BPM

155
Q

Radial pulse site

A

wrist

156
Q

Brachial pulse site

A

space in front of antecubital

157
Q

Carotid pulse site.

A

found in neck

158
Q

Femoral pulse site

A

midway in the groin

159
Q

Popliteal pulse site

A

back of the knee.

160
Q

Dorsal Pedis pulse site, starts ___ and goes to ___

A

starts at the instep of the foot and goes to the top of the foot.

161
Q

What is the most common instrument used for taking temperature in a clinical setting?

A

electronic digital thermometer.

162
Q

How to obtain oral temperature

A

make sure lips are tightly sealed and place under tongue.

163
Q

When should you wait to obtain oral temperature and how long should you wait?

A

if pt, has ate, drank, or smoked, wait 15 minutes

164
Q

Tympanic temperature
- method for adults
- method for chiuldren

A
  • pull ear up for adults
  • pull ear down for children
165
Q

Rectal: temp difference from oral temperature.

A

1 degree higher than oral.

166
Q

What position should pt. be in to obtain rectal temperature.

A

Sim’s position.

167
Q

How far should rectal temperature be inserted for
- adults
- children.
and what should be done prior to insertion

A

lubricate first.
- Adults: insert 1 inch
- Children: innser 0.5 inch.

168
Q

What position should patient be in for Axillary Temperature.

A

arm is down and crossed over the stomach.

169
Q

How to obtain Temporal temperature

A

gently stroke across the forehead.

170
Q

Describe the purpose of a matrix

A

used for setting appointments as well as blocking off specific time periods like holidays, meetings, or lunch breaks.

171
Q

Name the different types of scheduling (4)

A
  1. Wave scheduling
  2. Modified Wave scheduling/
  3. Double booking
  4. Stream scheduling.
172
Q

Describe wave scheduling.
- what is not needed for this type of scheduling?

A

4 pts can be scheduled at the same time and they are seen based upon order of arrival within 1 hour.
- no appointments involved

173
Q

Describe modified wave scheduling

A

2 pts can be scheduled at the same time and they are seen based upon order of arrival within 1 hr.

174
Q

Describe double booking

A

2 pts are scheduled at the same time to see the same provided.

175
Q

Describe stream scheduling

A

steady flow of patients.

176
Q

Describe Same-day appointments

A

require pt. is triaged based on importance of medical treatment.

177
Q

Which form of medical records is sent to facilities outside of the Primary Care Office
EHR or EMR.

A

EHR; electronic health records.

178
Q

What is the preferred method for tracking and documenting patient data?

A

EHR.

179
Q

Which form of medical records only has PCP records?

A

EMR: electronic medical records.
used within facilities.

180
Q

who can make legal decisions in the event a patient can’t?

A

power of attorney.

181
Q

Name the four planes of the body

A
  1. median/sagittal plane
  2. parasagittal plane
  3. frontal/coronal plane
  4. transverse/axial plane.
182
Q

AD

A

right ear

183
Q

AU

A

both ears

184
Q

AS

A

left ear

185
Q

OD

A

right eye

186
Q

OU

A

both eyes

187
Q

OS

A

left eye

188
Q

what can cause incorrect measurements when taking a tympanic temperature measurement?

A

ingesting hot/cold liquids or cerumen in the ear

189
Q

Which fingers should be used to palpate the pulse?

A

the second and third finger

190
Q

Which pulse site is most commonly used for adults?

A

radial pulse

191
Q

Which pulse site is most commonly used for children?

A

brachial pulse

192
Q

Which pulse site is most commonly used in emergency situations?

A

carotid pulse.

193
Q

What three things is pulse evaluated on?

A

rate, rhythm, strength

194
Q
A

MA (6 decks)

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