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BCOM > M2P Second Exam2 > Flashcards

M2P Second Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of Connective Tissue

A

provides structural support; underlies epithelium (ligaments, tendons, aponeuroses, bone, cartilage); establishes immunological barrier; energy storage; water storage

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2
Q

Categories of Cells in ECM

A

fixed cells, hematogenous cells

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3
Q

Fixed cells are

A

mesenchymal, fibrocytes, adipose cells

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4
Q

Hematogenous cells are

A

macrophages, mast cells, blood cells, lymphocytes, polymorphonuclear cells

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5
Q

Extracellular matrix is made up of

A

fibers (collagen, elastic, reticular); ground substance (GAGs, proteoglycans, adhesive glycoproteins); tissue fluid

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6
Q

Three fiber types

A

Collagen; elastin; reticular (collagen III)

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7
Q

What composes ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs/Polysaccharides); proteoglycans; adhesive glycoproteins

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8
Q

What is GAGs composition/function?

A

long chain of unbranched polysaccharides consisting of repeating disaccharides – acid sugar/amino sugar – Consists of an overall negative charge (basophilic); attract and bind cations, high H2O creates turgor i.e. resistance to compression

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9
Q

Describe components/function of: Fibronectin

A

dimer of identical subunits bound end-to-end; links cells and ground substance; involved in embryological cell migration binds: integrins, collagen, heparin sulfate PG

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10
Q

Describe components/function of: Laminin

A

trimer of intertwined polypeptides, forms cross-shaped protein; links: cells, fibers & ground substance; found almost exclusively in basal lamina. Has specific binding domains binds: GAGs, proteoglycans, & other adhesive glycoproteins (integrins, heparin sulfate PG, collagen IV, entactin)

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11
Q

Describe components/function of: Entactin

A

binds laminin and collagen IV

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12
Q

Describe components/function of: Tenascin

A

large hexamer, binds fibronectin & transmembrane PGs

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13
Q

Describe components/function of: Chondronectin

A

like fibronectin, binds collagen II, integrins & GAGs

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14
Q

Describe components/function of: Osteonectin

A

like fibronectin, binds collagen I, integrins & PGs, binds calcium (hydroxyapatite) to collagen I in bone

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15
Q

Describe components/function of: Integrins

A

heterodimeric integral membrane proteins, divalent cations (Ca, Mg, Mn) required to activate binding Binds: GAGs and proteoglycans, adhesive glycoproteins, other integrins; intracellular domain binds: cytoskeletal elements COOH terminal binds intermediary proteins Vinculin & Talin bind to actin

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16
Q

What pathology is associated with: Collagen I

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (and EDS with type III)

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17
Q

What pathology is associated with: Collagen II

A

Collagenopathy

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18
Q

What pathology is associated with: Collagen III

A

EDS – Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

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19
Q

What pathology is associated with: Collagen IV

A

Alport Syndrome

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20
Q

What pathology is associated with: Collagen VII

A

Epidermolysis Bullosa

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21
Q

What pathology is associated with: Collagen XVII

A

Bullous Pemphigoid

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22
Q

What Collagen fiber is affected in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Collagen I

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23
Q

What collagen fiber is affected in Collagenopathy

A

Collagen II

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24
Q

What collagen fiber is affected in Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?

A

Collagen III

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25
Q

What collagen fiber is affected in Alport Syndrome

A

Collagen IV

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26
Q

What collagen fiber is affected in Epidermolysis Bullosa

A

Collagen VII

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27
Q

What collagen fiber is affected in Bullous Pemphigoid

A

Collagen XVII

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28
Q

Which collagen fiber has a globular shape?

A

Collagen type IV

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29
Q

What are the periods of human development?

A

Early development; Embryonic Period; Fetal Period

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30
Q

When does early development occur?

A

Fertilization through week 2

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31
Q

When does Embryonic period occur?

A

Weeks 3-8

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32
Q

When does Fetal period occur?

A

Weeks 9 through birth (approx 38)

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33
Q

Define Teratogenesis/Teratogen

A

mechanism by which birth defect form – Teratogen is a substance that causes birth defects

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34
Q

Which period of development has the highest mortality rate for embryos?

A

Early development; fertilization to week 2 (approx 25-50 percent loss)

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35
Q

Which period has the most significatn risk for development of embryonic birth defects?

A

weeks 3-8; Embryonic period

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36
Q

Surge of what hormone causes Ovulation?

A

Luetinizing Hormone (LH)

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37
Q

What two hormones build up during the ovarian cycle?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Leutinizing hormone (LH)

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38
Q

What hormone will be released by? What cells are involved?

A

human chorionic gonadotrophin released by the implanted conceptus: syncitiotrophoblasts

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39
Q

What hormone maintains the uterine wall? How is this caused?

A

Feed back loop; hCG stimulates the corpus leutum to release Progesterone

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40
Q

What is involved in capacitation?

A

“Take off your coat and stay awhile” Uterine enzymes aid removal in the glycoproteins and seminal proteins on the spermatozoa head

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41
Q

What are the phases of fertilization?

A

Phase 1: Penetration of Corona Radiata; Phase 2: Penetration of Zona Pellucida; Phase 3: Fusion of the Sperm and Oocyte membranes

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42
Q

What does Fusion of the oocyte and sperm membranes cause?

A

Acrosomal events: including hardening of the zona pellucida to prevent poly-spermia

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43
Q

When does the Oocyte finish meiosis II?

A

Between penetration of zona pellucida and fusion of the spermatzoa/oocyte membranes

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44
Q

At what stage does the zygote lose its zona pellucida? What does it become?

A

Morula; Morula becomes a Blastocyst

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45
Q

What cells make up a Blastocyst? What days of development does this occur?

A

Embyoblasts and Trophoblasts; Day 4

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46
Q

What is the process of implantation called?

A

Embryonic Rolling

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47
Q

What cell layers make up an embryoblast? What days does this occur?

A

Epiblast, hypoblast, cytotrophoblast, synctiotrophoblast, Amnioblasts - days 8-9

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48
Q

What is the orientation of the epiblast cells? What does it give rise to?

A

Dorsal; amnioblast (placenta)

49
Q

What is the orientation of the hypoblast cells?

A

Ventral, yolk sac, embryo

50
Q

What does the Embryobalst comprised of? What days does this occur?

A

Trophoblastic Lacunae, endoderm cells, mesoderm cells, ectoderm cells, exocelomic cavity, exocoelomic membrane, extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm, extraembryonic cavity; Week 2

51
Q

What occurs in preeclampsia?

A

The syncytiotrophoblast cells are unable to invade into the maternal sinusoids and cause the bursting of the spiral arteries to form the placenta

52
Q

What are the 4 fetal membranes?

A

Amnion, yolk sac, allantois, placenta

53
Q

What is the one ectopic pregnancy condition that can be a viable fetus?

A

Placenta Previa; implantation over the cervix (high risk pregnancy) usually requires bed rest of the mother

54
Q

What condition(s) are classified by “cluster of grapes”?

A

Hydatidiform Mole/Partial Moles - consisting of water filled cysts.

55
Q

How are hydatidiform moles created?

A
  1. Resulting from fertilization of an empty Oocyte - male pronucleus replicates and there is significant trophoblastic cells without embriocytes 2. Partial Moles - poly spermia from poor corital reaction
56
Q

What is persistent trophoblastic disease?

A

The hydatidiform mole is not completely removed and remains invasive proliferative tissue (creates choriocarcinomas)

57
Q

When does gastrulation occur?

A

Week 3 of development

58
Q

When does the bilaminar disc become a trilaminar disc?

A

Gastrulation

59
Q

How are the three layers formed?

A

During gastrulation, there is a signal from the primitive node for cells to migrate through the primitive streak and form: Ectoderm, Mesoderm, & Endoderm

60
Q

What is the most common teratoma in infancy?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

61
Q

What forms the musculoskeletal system?

A

Mesoderm

62
Q

What forms the GI system?

A

Endoderm

63
Q

What forms the neural and skin layers?

A

Ectoderm

64
Q

What is the most important factor for viability of the fetus at birth?

A

The presence of surfactant in the lungs

65
Q

When does surfactant start to be secreted into the lungs?

A

Weeks 21-28 of development

66
Q

What is the purpose of surfactant in the lungs?

A

Decrease the surface tension so they lungs can breath air

67
Q

What are the four basic tissue types?

A

Connective tissues, neuronal tissue, epithelia, muscle

68
Q

What are the changes that occur in adaptive processes?

A

Hypertrophy, hypotrophy, metaplasia, hyperplasia

69
Q

What are the characteristics of hypertrophy?

A

Growth of the cell

70
Q

What is an example of hypertrophy?

A

Pregnant uterus, left ventricular hypertrophy

71
Q

What are the charactertistics of atrophy?

A

Cell compensates by getting smaller

72
Q

What is an example of atrophy?

A

Muscles wasting away with malnutrition/decreased stimulation

73
Q

What are the characteristics of metaplasia?

A

Cell changes its function

74
Q

What is an example of metaplasia?

A

Pulmonary alveolar tissue from cigarette smoke

75
Q

What are the characteristics of hyperplasia?

A

Cell will proliferate (grow in number)

76
Q

What is an example of hyperplasia?

A

Liver regeneration, endometrial, lactation

77
Q

Which period of development has the highest mortality rate for embryos?

A

Early development; fertilization to week 2 (approx 25-50 percent loss)

78
Q

Which period has the most significatn risk for development of embryonic birth defects?

A

weeks 3-8; Embryonic period

79
Q

Surge of what hormone causes Ovulation?

A

Luetinizing Hormone (LH)

80
Q

What two hormones build up during the ovarian cycle?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Leutinizing hormone (LH)

81
Q

What hormone will be released by? What cells are involved?

A

human chorionic gonadotrophin released by the implanted conceptus: syncitiotrophoblasts

82
Q

What hormone maintains the uterine wall? How is this caused?

A

Feed back loop; hCG stimulates the corpus leutum to release Progesterone

83
Q

What is involved in capacitation?

A

“Take off your coat and stay awhile” Uterine enzymes aid removal in the glycoproteins and seminal proteins on the spermatozoa head

84
Q

What are the phases of fertilization?

A

Phase 1: Penetration of Corona Radiata; Phase 2: Penetration of Zona Pellucida; Phase 3: Fusion of the Sperm and Oocyte membranes

85
Q

What does Fusion of the oocyte and sperm membranes cause?

A

Acrosomal events: including hardening of the zona pellucida to prevent poly-spermia

86
Q

When does the Oocyte finish meiosis II?

A

Between penetration of zona pellucida and fusion of the spermatzoa/oocyte membranes

87
Q

At what stage does the zygote lose its zona pellucida? What does it become?

A

Morula; Morula becomes a Blastocyst

88
Q

What cells make up a Blastocyst? What days of development does this occur?

A

Embyoblasts and Trophoblasts; Day 4

89
Q

What is the process of implantation called?

A

Embryonic Rolling

90
Q

What cell layers make up an embryoblast? What days does this occur?

A

Epiblast, hypoblast, cytotrophoblast, synctiotrophoblast, Amnioblasts - days 8-9

91
Q

What is the orientation of the epiblast cells? What does it give rise to?

A

Dorsal; amnioblast (placenta)

92
Q

What is the orientation of the hypoblast cells?

A

Ventral, yolk sac, embryo

93
Q

What does the Embryobalst comprised of? What days does this occur?

A

Trophoblastic Lacunae, endoderm cells, mesoderm cells, ectoderm cells, exocelomic cavity, exocoelomic membrane, extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm, extraembryonic cavity; Week 2

94
Q

What occurs in preeclampsia?

A

The syncytiotrophoblast cells are unable to invade into the maternal sinusoids and cause the bursting of the spiral arteries to form the placenta

95
Q

What are the 4 fetal membranes?

A

Amnion, yolk sac, allantois, placenta

96
Q

What is the one ectopic pregnancy condition that can be a viable fetus?

A

Placenta Previa; implantation over the cervix (high risk pregnancy) usually requires bed rest of the mother

97
Q

What condition(s) are classified by “cluster of grapes”?

A

Hydatidiform Mole/Partial Moles - consisting of water filled cysts.

98
Q

How are hydatidiform moles created?

A
  1. Resulting from fertilization of an empty Oocyte - male pronucleus replicates and there is significant trophoblastic cells without embriocytes 2. Partial Moles - poly spermia from poor corital reaction
99
Q

What is persistent trophoblastic disease?

A

The hydatidiform mole is not completely removed and remains invasive proliferative tissue (creates choriocarcinomas)

100
Q

When does gastrulation occur?

A

Week 3 of development

101
Q

When does the bilaminar disc become a trilaminar disc?

A

Gastrulation

102
Q

How are the three layers formed?

A

During gastrulation, there is a signal from the primitive node for cells to migrate through the primitive streak and form: Ectoderm, Mesoderm, & Endoderm

103
Q

What is the most common teratoma in infancy?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

104
Q

What forms the musculoskeletal system?

A

Mesoderm

105
Q

What forms the GI system?

A

Endoderm

106
Q

What forms the neural and skin layers?

A

Ectoderm

107
Q

What is the most important factor for viability of the fetus at birth?

A

The presence of surfactant in the lungs

108
Q

When does surfactant start to be secreted into the lungs?

A

Weeks 21-28 of development

109
Q

What is the purpose of surfactant in the lungs?

A

Decrease the surface tension so they lungs can breath air

110
Q

What are the four basic tissue types?

A

Connective tissues, neuronal tissue, epithelia, muscle

111
Q

What are the changes that occur in adaptive processes?

A

Hypertrophy, hypotrophy, metaplasia, hyperplasia

112
Q

What are the characteristics of hypertrophy?

A

Growth of the cell

113
Q

What is an example of hypertrophy?

A

Pregnant uterus, left ventricular hypertrophy

114
Q

What are the charactertistics of atrophy?

A

Cell compensates by getting smaller

115
Q

What is an example of atrophy?

A

Muscles wasting away with malnutrition/decreased stimulation

116
Q

What are the characteristics of metaplasia?

A

Cell changes its function

117
Q

What is an example of metaplasia?

A

Pulmonary alveolar tissue from cigarette smoke

118
Q

What are the characteristics of hyperplasia?

A

Cell will proliferate (grow in number)

119
Q

What is an example of hyperplasia?

A

Liver regeneration, endometrial, lactation

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