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OB Y3 > M2 ABRTN > Flashcards

M2 ABRTN Flashcards

1
Q

The following statements about Abortion is true EXCEPT

a. an abortion is a miscarriage
b. a miscarriage is an abortion
c. pregnancy termination prior to 20 weeks AOG is abortion
d. pregnancy termination with fetus weighing less than 500 grams is abortion

A

A

miscarriage is spontaneous fetal loss before viability, therefore an abortion is NOT NECESSARILY a miscarriage

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2
Q

Surgical or medical termination of a live fetus that has not riched fetal viability is called

A

induced abortion

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3
Q

Incidence of spontaneous abortion

A

1 in 5 preganancies, 15-25%

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4
Q

Percentage of spontaneous abortions that occur in the first 12 weeks

A

80%

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5
Q

True about spontaneous abortion

a. incidence increases with increase gestational age.
b. fetal heart activity/viability is noted on ultrasound, and the loss rate is only 3-5%
c. loss rate is 25% in those with first trimester bleeding
d. risk increase with paternal age

A

D
A. decreases with gestational age
B. 2-3%
C. 20%

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6
Q

True about fetal factors in abortion in abortion EXCEPT

a. 50% if miscarriages are embryonic
b. 50% of embryonic miscarriages which commonly display developmental abnormality of the zygote, ambryo, fetus or placenta
c. 95% of chromosomal abnormalities are caused by paternal gametogenesis errors
d. Euploid abortions tend to occur later in gestation

A

C; paternal

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7
Q

True about fetal factors in abortion in abortion EXCEPT

a. Euploid abortions increases dramatically after maternal age exceeds 35 years
b. the most frequently identified chromosomal anomaly with first trimester miscarriages is autosomal trisomy
c. Single most common specific chromosomal abnormality is autosomal monosomy X
d. Triploidy is rarely associated with hydropic or molar placental degeneration

A

D; Tripoidly is OFTEN associated with hydropic or molar placental degeneration

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8
Q

True about chromosomal abnormalities

a. most frequently identified chromosomal anomaly with the first trimester is autosomal trisomy
b. tetraploid features rarely born alive and are most often aborted early in gestation
c. Chromosomal structural abnormalities infrequently cause abortion
d. Triploidy is associated with hydropic or molar placental degeneration

A

AOTA

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9
Q

The following infections are associated with abortion in humans:

a. Brucella abortus
b. Campylobacter fetus
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Bacterial Vaginosis

A

D

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10
Q

The following infections are associated with abortion in humans EXCEPT

a. HIV
b. polymicrobial infection from periodontal disease
c. Listeria
d. Bacterial Vaginosis

A

C

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11
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is associated with abortion in

a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. neither

A

B

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12
Q

Polymicrobial infection from periodontal disease causes

____x increased risk of abortion

A

2-4x increased risk

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13
Q

Medical conditions that cause abortions EXCEPT

a. unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
b. inflammatory bowel disease
c. SLE
d. anorexia nervosa
e. celiac sprue

A

D

anorexia nervosa and bulimia have been linked with subfertility preterm deliver and fetal growth restriction but not well established abortions

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14
Q

The following are associated with increased risk of abortion:

a. Pregnancy with IUD
b. oral contracpetives
c. spermicides
d. contraceptive creams and jellies

A

A; septic abortion

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15
Q

Level of radiotherapy with no increase risk in abortion

A

<5 rads

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16
Q

The following increase risk for miscarriage

a. DM, poorly controlled glucose
b. severe Iodine deficiency
c. increased antibodies to thyroid peroxidase or thyroglobulin
d. AOTA

A

D

17
Q

AOG when corpus luteum excision will need 2 additional dose of 17-hydroxyprogesterone caproate after surgery; give 1 and 2 weeks after the first dose

A

6-8 weeks; if done 8-10 weeks, only 1 dose is needed; if surgery after 10 weeks, no need for progesterone

18
Q

The following statements are true EXCEPT

a. <5 rads exposure does not increase risk of abortion
b. NO exposure does not increase risk of abortion
c. UTZ does not increase risk
d. Electromagnetic field does not adversely affect pregnancy

A

B; NO exposure especially for dental assistants and offices without gas scavenging equipments increase risk for miscarriage

19
Q

Rate for spontaneous abortion in spetate uterus is

A

65%

20
Q

Premature birth rate in unicornuate uterus

A

15%

21
Q

Spontaneous abortion rate in unicornuate uterus

A

15%

22
Q

Fetal survival with unicornuate uterus is

A

39%

23
Q

spontaneous abortion rate for bicornuate uterus

A

32%

24
Q

Premature birth rate for bicornuate uterus

A

21%

25
Q

Fetal survival rate for bicornuate uterus

A

60%

26
Q

Spontaneous abortion rates for uterine didelphys

A

43%

27
Q

Premature birth rates for uterine didelphys

A

38%

28
Q

Fetal survival rate in uterine didelphys

A

54%

29
Q

Greatest spontaneous abortion rates

a. unicornuate uterus
b. . septate uterus
c. uterine didelphys
d. Bicornuate uterus
e. Arcuate uterus

A

B

b. . septate uterus: 65%
c. uterine didelphys: 43%
d. Bicornuate uterus: 32%
a. unicornuate uterus: 15%
e. Arcuate uterus: 3%

30
Q

Greatest premature birth rates

a. unicornuate uterus
b. uterine didelphys
c. Bicornuate uterus

A

B

b. uterine didelphys 38%
c. Bicornuate uterus 21%
a. unicornuate uterus 15%

31
Q

Greatest fetal survival

a. unicornuate uterus
b. uterine didelphys
c. Bicornuate uterus

A

C

c. Bicornuate uterus 60%
b. uterine didelphys 54%
a. unicornuate uterus 39%

32
Q

True about DES exposure

a. T-shaped uterine cavity (70%)
b. three-fold increased risk of spontaneous abortion
c. seven-fold increase in ectopic pregnancy rate
d. Abnormal mullerian duct formation or fusion defects may follow in utero exposure to DES

A

A and D

b. two-fold increase in risk of spontaneous abortion
c. nine-fold increase in ectopic pregnancy rate

33
Q

What do you call uterine synechiae brought about by destruction of large areas of endometrium by curettage

A

Asherman syndrome

OB Y3 (17 decks)

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