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Medneuro - M2-4 - Clinical neuroscience > m2-4 quiz > Flashcards

m2-4 quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Ownership of intellectual property in academic research in Germany and the US is held by
(more than one answer is correct)

A. the inventor(s)
B. the funding agency
C. the University
D. Researcher(s) who are not employed by the University but inventor(s)

A

C. the University

D. Researcher(s) who are not employed by the University but inventor(s)

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2
Q

Which cognitive functions are typically impaired in patients with lesions of the lateral prefrontal cortex?

A. Patients typically show impaired social behavior, poor judgments and impaired decision making.
B. Patients typically show impaired long-term memory functions.
C. Patients typically show impaired language comprehension.
D. Patients are typically impaired in planning, abstract reasoning and maintenance of task-relevant information.
E. Patients typically have lost the ability to accurately attribute mental states to other people.

A

D. Patients are typically impaired in planning, abstract reasoning and maintenance of task-relevant information.

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3
Q

Which statement is not correct?

  1. Microangiopathy
  2. Headache
  3. Cardioembolism
  4. Hemiparesis
  5. Artherothrombosis
A
  1. Headache
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4
Q

The dopaminergic input-neurons of monkeys (mediated by midbrain structures)
contacting prefontal cortex …

A. are unable to adapt to changes in context-conditions.
B. don’t fire if there is an unexpected reward.
C. can be conditioned with a neutral stimulus, so that the neutral stimulus alone leads to firing of the dopaminergic neurons.
D. show increased activity by withdrawing an earlier given reward.
E. are heavily interconnected with the cerebellum.

A

C. can be conditioned with a neutral stimulus, so that the neutral stimulus alone leads to firing of the dopaminergic neurons.

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5
Q

What has the neurotransmitter dopamine been shown to encode?

A. stop signals
B. reward signals
C. fear signals
D. motor signals

A

B. reward signals

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6
Q

Depression

A. is associated with increased amygdala responses to negative emotional stimuli.
B. is caused by reduced activity of the nucleus accumbens.
C. is related to an overactivation of the pineal gland.
D. is known to be associated with increased activity of the posterior cingulate cortex.
E. is related to decreased hippocampus activity during REM sleep.

A

A. is associated with increased amygdala responses to negative emotional stimuli.

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7
Q

The cerebellum comprises of

  1. A cerebellar cortex, white matter, deep cerebellar and nuclei and some parts of the vestibular nuclei
  2. A cerebellar cortex with the molecular, Purkinje cell and granular layer
  3. Only the lobuli centralis, semilunaris inferior and superior
  4. The cerebellar cortex and the DCN (dorsal cochlear nuclei)
  5. A cerebellar cortex, white matter and deep cerebellar nuclei
A
  1. A cerebellar cortex, white matter, deep cerebellar and nuclei and some parts of the vestibular nuclei
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8
Q

Which of these anatomic structures is not part of the basal ganglia?

A. Striatum
B. Pontine nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Globus pallidus internus

A

B. Pontine nucleus

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9
Q

If you are interested to study cerebellar functions, which of the following disorders are not good human lesion models?
A) Stroke within the territory of the superior cerebellar artery
B) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA 3)
C) Surgical removal of cerebellar astrocytoma
D) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA 6)
E) Friedreich’s ataxia

1. B and E
2. E
3. A, B and E
4. A, B, C and D
5. A and E
A
  1. B and E

B) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA 3)
E) Friedreich’s ataxia

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10
Q

The lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders is about:

A. 70%
B. 5%
C. 1%
D. 20%
E. 50%
A

D. 20%

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11
Q

The frontal lobe

A. Spans 1/8 of the total cortex in humans
B. Is separated to the temporal lobe by the postcentral sulcus
C. Is subdivided into primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex and the prefrontal cortex
D. Is separated to the parietal lobe by the precentral sulcus
E. Greatly enlarged in the course of evolution in parallel to the development of motor abilities

A

C. Is subdivided into primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex and the prefrontal cortex

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12
Q

One of the following statements is WRONG – Which one?
Alexia without agraphia is disconnection syndrom typpically with the following characteristricts

  1. language difficulties
  2. a lesion in the splenium
  3. patients can´t read but write
  4. a left hemispheric lesion
  5. a visual field defect
A
  1. language difficulties
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13
Q 
Which medications are approved for the prophylaxis of bipolar disorder? 
A Lithium
B Benzodiazepines
C Valproic acid
D Serotonin-Reuptake Inhibitors
E Hypnotics
  1. only B is correct
  2. A and C are correct
  3. All are correct
  4. B and D are correct
  5. A, C and E are correct
A
  1. A and C are correct
    A Lithium
    C Valproic acid
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14
Q

Which of the following statements are correct?
(more than one answer is correct)
The executive system….

A. is concerned with the co-ordination of other cognitive resources
B. is needed when automatic psychological processes would not be sufficient, in cases of novel situations
C. is a brain function charged with implementing, or executing, the law
D. damage to the system can have a wide range of effects in different domains, for example in
social interaction, executive memory and abstract thinking
E. specifically describes the execution of motor commands

A

A. is concerned with the co-ordination of other cognitive resources
B. is needed when automatic psychological processes would not be sufficient, in cases of novel situations
D. damage to the system can have a wide range of effects in different domains, for example in
social interaction, executive memory and abstract thinking

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15
Q

The prevalence rate of panic disorder is:

  1. 10-15%
  2. 20-30%
  3. 1%
  4. 3-5%
  5. 0.2-0.5%
A
  1. 3-5%
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16
Q

Which answer is incorrect?

A. Abnormal dopamine, glutamate, and GABAergic signaling are all hypothesized to contribute to schizophrenia.
B. Variation in immune related genes are strongly associated with schizophrenia.
C. Schizophrenia only effects a small proportion of the population.
D. Schizophrenia is a disorder of the brain.
E. Clinical presentation of schizophrenia is heterogeneous.

A

C. Schizophrenia only effects a small proportion of the population.

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17
Q

Which of these anatomic structures is not part of the basal ganglia?

A. Corpus striatum
B. Red nucleus
C. Subthalamic nucleus
D. Caudate nucleus

A

B. Red nucleus

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18
Q

The following statement is true in regard to the cerebellar cortex

  1. Only basket and stellate cells are inhibitory interneurons
  2. Granule cells excite other granule cells
  3. Purkinje cells inhibit granule cells
  4. The granular cells are the only excitatory interneurons
  5. Golgi cells are contracted by climbing fibers and Purkinje cells
A
  1. The granular cells are the only excitatory interneurons
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19
Q

Preclinical studies are often

A. over-powered
B. of low internal validity
C. predictive for clinical efficacy
D. the basis for claiming intellectual property
E. replicated
A

B. of low internal validity

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20
Q

Which of the following statements are RIGHT?
(more than one answer is correct)
The frontal lobe includes:

A. premotor area
B. primary somatosensory cortex
C. prefrontal cortex
D. primary motor cortex
E. precuneus
A

A. premotor area
C. prefrontal cortex
D. primary motor cortex

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. In patients, stroke causes subsequent chronic epilepsy in more than 50 % of patients.
B. In patients, epileptogenesis after brain injuries can take up to several years.
C. Status epilepticus rarely induces epileptogenesis in patients and rodents.
D. Epileptogenesis can be prevented by pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatment approaches.
E. Primary prophylaxis (i.e. treatment before occurrence of the first seizure) is commonly advised in patients with brain tumors.

A

B. In patients, epileptogenesis after brain injuries can take up to several years.

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22
Q

One of the following statements is WRONG – Which one?
“Disconnection syndromes”

  1. means that two cortical areas are linked together irregularly ( = dysconnection) by aberrant fiber tracts
  2. may result from transection of the corpus callosum (so-called “split-brain” operations)
  3. are functional deficits caused by focal lesions of fiber tracts that connect cortical brain areas
  4. may refer to interruption of intrahemispheric as well as interhemispheric fiber tracts
  5. are characterized by anatomical lesion sites (and therefore disconnection symptoms might refer to different cognitive or neuronal systems)
A
  1. means that two cortical areas are linked together irregularly ( = dysconnection) by aberrant fiber tracts
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23
Q

Which symptoms can be associated with a depressive episode?

1) Insomnia
2) Disinhibition
3) Weight loss
4) Anhedonia
5) Psychomotor retardation

  1. 3 and 4 are correct
  2. 2, 3, 4, are correct
  3. All are correct
  4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
  5. 1 and 2 are correct
A
  1. 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
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24
Q

Antidepressants …

  1. should not be taken continuously
  2. have the risk of dependency
  3. need 2-4 weeks to get effective
  4. change the character
  5. must not be taken by people driving cars
A
  1. need 2-4 weeks to get effective
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25
Q

Which of the five clinical signs is not a typical cerebellar sign?

A. Dysmetria
B. Intention tremor
C. Akinesia
D. Dysarthria
E. Asynergia
A

C. Akinesia

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26
Q

What are types of bias affecting the “internal validity” of a study?

A. selection bias (creating groups with different confounders; solved by randomization)
B. performance bias and detection bias (investigators respectively treating or assessing more positively those subjects on the treatment arm; controlled by blinding interventions and outcome assessments);
C. attrition bias (dropouts of subjects with a negative outcome not included in the final result)
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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27
Q

Manic-depressive mixed states are

  1. A combination of 2 depressive and 4 manic symptoms
  2. Characterized by fluctuations in mood symptoms of opposite polarity
  3. More frequent in men than in women
  4. More often associated with a good prognosis than pure episodes
  5. Easy to treat
A
  1. Characterized by fluctuations in mood symptoms of opposite polarity
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28
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder is in most cases not associated with

A. Delusions
B. Flashbacks
C. Nightmares
D. Hyperarousal
E. Avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma
A

A. Delusions

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29
Q

Which statement about spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA6) is correct?

A. Autosomal recessive disorder
B. Extensor plantar responses (positive Babinski sign)
C. Mitochondriopathy
D. Olivopontocerebellar atrophy (OPCA) in MRI scans
E. Typical age of onset around 50 years of age

A

E. Typical age of onset around 50 years of age

30
Q

Which of the following statements regarding antiepileptic drugs (AED) are correct?

A. The “new generation” AEDs (marketed since 1990) significantly reduced pharmcoresistance.
B. AEDs with multiple molecular targets are more efficient.
C. AEDs with multiple molecular targets have more side-effects.
D. AED treatment regimens usually start with monotherapy.
E. Most clinically relevant AED have been discovered by chance.

A

D. AED treatment regimens usually start with monotherapy.

E. Most clinically relevant AED have been discovered by chance.

31
Q

The ventral intermediate nucleus (VIM) of the thalamus is the first described DBS target. Which symptom does DBS of the VIM alleviate?

A. Hyperkinesia/Dyskinesia
B. Bradykinesia/Akinesia
C. Gait disturbance
D. Tremor
E. Dystonia
A

D. Tremor

32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Idiopathic epilepsies commonly have a single-gene inheritance.
B. Symptomatic epilepsies never have a genetic background.
C. Rolando-epilepsy of childhood is a symptomatic epilepsy syndrome.
D. Frontal lobe epilepsies may be purely genetic.
E. The correct diagnosis of epilepsy is made from the EEG.

A

D. Frontal lobe epilepsies may be purely genetic.

33
Q

Which statement about Friedreich’s ataxia is not correct?

  1. Mitochondriopathy
  2. Trinucleotide repeat disorder
  3. Autosomal recessive disorder
  4. Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease
  5. Typical age of onset prior 20 years of age
A
  1. Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease
34
Q

One of the following statements is RIGHT – Which one?
Neglect is…

A. a language disorder caused by damage to the temporal lobe or in the frontal lobe.
B. a motor disorder in which volitional or voluntary movement is impaired without muscle weakness.
C. the failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function.
D. manifested by difficulties in receptive and expressive language, including phonological processing, in reading, writing, spelling.
E. a lateralized disruption of spatial attention.

A

E. a lateralized disruption of spatial attention.

35
Q

Schizophrenia is a genetic disorder,

A. but it is not heritable.
B. and its heritability is around 80%.
C. and environmental factors are not important.
D. and its heritability is around 10%.
E. but genetics factors are not associated with schizophrenia symptoms.

A

B. and its heritability is around 80%.

36
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Epilepsy is a rare condition.
B. Epilepsy is characterized by epileptic seizures occurring at least once a day.
C. Epilepsy is in the majority of patients genetically determined.
D. Epilepsy with generalized seizures needs to be treated by hippocampectomy.
E. Epilepsy in many cases responds well to antiepileptic drugs.

A

E. Epilepsy in many cases responds well to antiepileptic drugs.

37
Q

Selective serotonine reuptake inhibitors

A. have been proven to be ineffective in moderate depression.
B. are more effective in carriers of the 5-HTTLPR L-Allele.
C. are more effective than serotonine-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors.
D. should not be used in patients with suicidal ideation.
E. are most effective in bipolar depression.

A

B. are more effective in carriers of the 5-HTTLPR L-Allele.

38
Q

Which of the following statements are RIGHT?
(more than one answer is correct)
The neglect syndrome

A. is a loss of half of the visual field
B. a deficit in attention to one side of space
C. occurs more frequently after damage to the right hemisphere
D. is a reading disorder
E. is a multisensory syndrome

A

B. a deficit in attention to one side of space

C. occurs more frequently after damage to the right hemisphere

39
Q

What is the main advantage of bipolar electrophysiological recordings, compared to a common reference?

A. better spectral resolution
B. better time resolution
C. better spatial resolution
D. higher amplification

A

C. better spatial resolution

40
Q

Which of the following assignments is correct?

  1. Sporadic adult onset ataxia (SAOA) – autosomal recessive disorder
  2. Multiple system atrophy, cerebellar type (MSA-C) – autosomal dominant disorder
  3. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA3) - autosomal recessive disorder
  4. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA6) – nonhereditary degenerative ataxia
  5. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1) - autosomal dominant disorder
A
  1. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1) - autosomal dominant disorder
41
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the striatum?
(more than one answer is correct)

A. receives inhibitory input from the cortex
B. receives dopaminergic input from the substantia nigra pars compacta
C. contains cells that use GABA as their transmitter
D. all of the above statements are true

A

B. receives dopaminergic input from the substantia nigra pars compacta
C. contains cells that use GABA as their transmitter

42
Q

Which of the following hypotheses about cerebellar function is not correct?

  1. The cerebellum is a learning device.
  2. The cerebellum contributes to certain cognitive tasks.
  3. The cerebellum is a likely place where internal models for sensory motor control are build.
  4. The cerebellum is involved in timing.
  5. The cerebellum is involved in feedback (reactive) but not feedforward (predictive) motor control.
A
  1. The cerebellum is involved in feedback (reactive) but not feedforward (predictive) motor control.
43
Q

Bipolar disorder

A. is characterized by predominant delusions of persecution.
B. is a psychiatric disorder with low heritability.
C. is one of the most frequent psychiatric disorders.
D. can be treated with antipsychotics.
E. is five times more frequent in women than in men.

A

D. can be treated with antipsychotics.

44
Q

Which of the five clinical signs is a typical cerebellar sign?

  1. Ataxia
  2. Aphasia
  3. Akinesis
  4. Deafness
  5. Paresis
A
  1. Ataxia
45
Q

The model of cognitive control proposed by Norman & Shallice suggests

A. that the control by the SAS is required for example in planing and decision making, in situations that require unpracticed or new actions.
B. the existence of a “contention Scheduling (CS)“
C. that the SAS-mode can not be consciously controlled.
D. the existence of a prefrontal “executive committee” for perception, working memory, attention, long-term memory, motor control and thinking.
E. that the SAS is always then required when an no acting scheme is available for a certain situation

A

A. that the control by the SAS is required for example in planing and decision making, in situations that require unpracticed or new actions.
B. the existence of a “contention Scheduling (CS)“
E. that the SAS is always then required when an no acting scheme is available for a certain situation

46
Q

Which statement is correct?
A transient ischemic attack…

A. always leads to changes in signal intensity on CT or MR in affected brain areas
B. precedes a stroke in approx. 60 % of patients
C. carries an annual risk of stroke during the first 5 years of 5%
D. is characterized by brief focal neurological deficits, which resolve within 12 hours
E. produces a persistent neurological deficit

A

C. carries an annual risk of stroke during the first 5 years of 5%

47
Q

Which of the five clinical signs is a typical cerebellar sign?

A. Aphasia
B. Tremor at rest
C. Akinesia
D. Hemiballism
E. Asynergia
A

E. Asynergia

48
Q

Which is not a typical finding in Friedreich’s ataxia?

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Dysarthria
  3. Progressive Ataxia
  4. Renal failure
  5. Araflexia
A
  1. Renal failure
49
Q

Which of the following is not a typical somatic symptom of depression?

A. Chest tightness
B. Knee pain
C. Menstrual irregularities
D. Back pain
E. Headaches
A

B. Knee pain

50
Q

Which statement about Friedreich’s ataxia is wrong?

A. Autosomal recessive disorder
B. Trinucleotide repeat disorder
C. Mitochondriopathy
D. Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease
E. Typical age of onset prior 20 years of age

A

D. Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease

51
Q

Symptoms of cerebellar disorder can be:

  1. Ataxia, dysmetria and rigor
  2. Rest tremor, akinesis and rigor
  3. Intentional tremor, dysarthria and ataxia
  4. Akinesis, ataxia and rigor
  5. Dysarhtria, dysmetria and dyslexia
A
  1. Intentional tremor, dysarthria and ataxia
52
Q

Which of the five clinical signs is not a typical cerebellar sign?

A. Dysmetria
B. Intention tremor
C. Ataxia
D. Paresis
E. Nystagmus
A

D. Paresis

53
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Simple partial seizures are characterized by loss of consciousness
  2. Fear may be the clinical manifestation of an epileptic aura
  3. Visual symptoms at the onset of a seizure indicate temporal lobe seizure origin
  4. Complex partial seizures always indicate frontal lobe epilepsy
  5. Absence seizures originate in the frontal lobe (fronto-orbital part)
A
  1. Fear may be the clinical manifestation of an epileptic aura
54
Q

The output of the cerebellar cortex is transmitted by:

  1. Purkinje cells
  2. The medial, interposed and lateral cerebellar nuclei
  3. The largest cells of the cerebellar cortex: the Purkinje and Golgi cells
  4. The medial, vestibular, interposed and lateral cerebellar nuclei
  5. The nucleus fastigii, emboliformis, globosus and dentatus
A
  1. Purkinje cells
55
Q

Which of the following statements are right?
A patient with akinetic mutism …
A) tends neither to speak nor move
B) typically shows tactless behavior
C) eats and drinks only if being fed
D) utilizes items instantly within the visual field independent of the situation
E) is profoundly apathetic and displays no emotions even in pain

  1. A, C and D
  2. A, B and E
  3. A, B and C
  4. C, D and E
  5. A, C and E
A
  1. A, C and E

A) tends neither to speak nor move
C) eats and drinks only if being fed
E) is profoundly apathetic and displays no emotions even in pain

56
Q

Which statement about Friedreich’s ataxia is not correct?

A. Areflexia
B. TrinucleAotide repeat disorder
C. Mitochondriopathy
D. Atrophy of the cervical cord early in the disease
E. Typical age of onset 70 years of age
A

E. Typical age of onset 70 years of age

57
Q

Which other description of the clinical symptom chorea is correct?

A. Babinski sign
B. akinesia
C. rigidity
D. uncontrollable involuntary movement
E. spasticity
A

D. uncontrollable involuntary movement

58
Q

The mean ‘translation lag’ (=time between discovery of a drug (date of IP or publication) and success full use in patients (date of highly cited positive study)) in medicine is typically …

A. 3 years
B. 10 years
C. >20 years
D. 5 years
E. cannot be given since translation has not been successful yet
A

C. >20 years

59
Q

Which of the five clinical signals is not a typical cerebellar sign?

A. Dysmetria
B. Intention tremor
C. Ataxia
D. Paresis
E. Nystagmus
A

D. Paresis

60
Q

One of the following statements is WRONG – Which one?
Commissural fibers of the corpus callosum…

  1. are arranged in topographical order
  2. functionally interconnect the cerebral hemispheres
  3. connect only association areas of the cerebral cortex (according to Flechsig`s rule)
  4. connect only homotopic areas of the brain
  5. make up to 100-125 x106 fibers in each direction
A
  1. connect only homotopic areas of the brain
61
Q

The following statement is true in regard to Von Holst and Mittelstaedts Reafference prinicple

  1. The efference copy has to match the reafferent signal in amplitude but has to have the opposite sign
  2. The efference copy has to match the reafferent signal in amplitude and sign
  3. Reafference is the repetition of an afferent signal that occured only briefly and is important to strengthen short stimuli
  4. Reafference enhances the perception of unconscious sensory stimuli
  5. Reafferent signals use different sensory receptors and pathways as do exafferent signals
A
  1. The efference copy has to match the reafferent signal in amplitude but has to have the opposite sign
62
Q

Which of the five clinical signs is not a typical cerebellar sign?

A. Dysmetria
B. Intention tremor
C. Ataxia of stance
D. Paresis
E. Asynergia
A

D. Paresis

63
Q

Which of the following hypotheses about cerebellar function are correct?

A) The cerebellum is involved in timing
B) The cerebellum is a learning device
C) The cerebellum contributes to certain cognitive tasks
D) The cerebellum is a likely place where internal models are build
E) The cerebellum is a likely place where internal models are stored

  1. A, B, C and D
  2. B, C, D and E
  3. A, B, C, D and E
  4. A, B, D and E
  5. A, B and C
A
  1. A, B, C, D and E
64
Q

Which of these clinical features can be found in Parkinson’s disease?

A. Paresis
B. Spasticity
C. Postural instability
D. Muscle atrophy

A

C. Postural instability

65
Q

The Stroop task …

A. demonstrates that there is signigicant interference from incongruent colours when reading the words aloud (compared to reading words in black)
B. is not a very sensitive test for executive dysfunction
C. is particularly difficult for patients with lesions in the temporal cortex.
D. demonstrates improved inhibition of irrelevant contents
E. demonstrates that there is significant interference from incongruent words when naming colours (compared to naming colour patches)

A

E. demonstrates that there is significant interference from incongruent words when naming colours (compared to naming colour patches)

66
Q

The following condition is epilepsy

A. One unprovoked seizures with normal cMRI and EEG.
B. Three acute symptomatic seizures.
C. One unprovoked seizure at least 1 week after ischemic stroke.
D. One acute symptomatic seizure with 3 Hz spike-wawe in EEG.
E. One unprovoked seizure and one dissociative seizure.

A

C. One unprovoked seizure at least 1 week after ischemic stroke.

67
Q

“The spinocerebellum is involved both in the control of posture and gait and the coordination of limb movements.”
Is this true or false?

True
False

A

True

68
Q

Which of the following assignments is correct?

  1. Paleocerebellum - Spinocerebellum - Superior vermis and paravermal cerebellar areas
  2. Archicerebellum - Vestibulocerebellum - Cerebellar Hemispheres
  3. Paleocerebellum - Vestibulocerebellum - Flocculonodular lobe, inferior vermis
  4. Neocerebellum - Pontocerebellum - Anterior lobe
  5. Neocerebellum - Spinocerebellum - Cerebellar hemispheres
A
  1. Paleocerebellum - Spinocerebellum - Superior vermis and paravermal cerebellar areas
69
Q

One of the following statements is RIGHT – Which one?
Agnosia is:

A. a language disorder caused by damage to the temporal lobe or in the frontal lobe.
B. a motor disorder in which volitional or voluntary movement is impaired without muscle weakness.
C. the failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function.
D. manifested by difficulties in receptive and expressive language, including phonological processing, in reading, writing, spelling.
E. a speech disorder that is due to a weakness or incoordination of the speech muscles.

A

C. the failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function.

70
Q

The following are effective treatments for schizophrenia:
(more than one answer might be correct)

A. antipsychotic medication
B. stimulate medication
C. cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
D. social skill training
E. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
A

A. antipsychotic medication
C. cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
D. social skill training
E. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

71
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Idiopathic epilepsies commonly have a single-gene inheritance.
B. Symptomatic epilepsies never have a genetic background.
C. Rolando-epilepsy of childhood is a symptomatic epilepsy syndrome.
D. Frontal lobe epilepsies may be idiopathic.
E. The correct diagnosis of epilepsy is made from the EEG.

A

D. Frontal lobe epilepsies may be idiopathic.

72
Q

If you are interested to study cerebellar function, which disorders is not a good human lesion model?

  1. Stroke within the territory of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery.
  2. Surgical removal of cerebellar astrocytoma.
  3. Stroke within the territory of the superior cerebellar artery.
  4. Friedreich’s ataxia.
  5. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA6).
A
  1. Friedreich’s ataxia.

Medneuro - M2-4 - Clinical neuroscience (9 decks)

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