M104 T3 L3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which arteriole in the kidney is narrower?

A

the efferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why it is useful that the afferent arteriole in the kidney is narrower?

A

it causes a pressure to build up in the nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between the afferent and efferent arterioles in the kidneys?

A

afferent - blood travels in and is filtered under-pressure

efferent - exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an effect of the afferent arteriole in the kidney being narrower?

A

blood traveling in through it is filtered under-pressure, so it can’t leave as easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the pressure that builds up due to the narrowing of the efferent arteriole?

A

10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What two features is filtration force in the nephrons determined by?

A

Blood pressure

Differing diameter of afferent and efferent arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the normal Glomerular Filtration Rate of all the glomerulae in the kidneys?

A

125 mL/min (180 L/day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal plasma volume?

A

2-3 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Glomerular Filtration Rate used to indicate?

A

renal function when measured clinically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What small molecules are filtered in ultrafiltration?

A

Glucose, electrolytes, metabolites (GEM)

Some drugs, amacs, Metabolic waste (SAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first stage of filtration?

A

Ultrafiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What substances remain in the blood after ultrafiltration?

A

RBCs, lipids, proteins, most drugs, metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What barriers does filtrate have to pass through?

A

the glomerular capillary endothelium via small pores
the basement membrane of Bowman’s capsule
(includes contractile mesangial cells)
podocytes via filtration slits into capsular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the diameter of the pores in the endothelium of the glomerular capillary?

A

60um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the effect of the contractile properties of mesangial cells?

A

they have been shown to be insignificant in changing the filtration pressure of the glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What structures interdigitate with themselves?

A

pedicels - they join together but they have small gaps between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What structure results from the gaps between interdigitated pedicels?

A

filtration slits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the role of filtration slits?

A

they allow molecules to come through the pedicels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why are podocytes susceptible to damage?

A

bc they are very specialized and very sensitive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When might podocytes be damaged?

A

certain renal diseases, e.g. diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can diabetes damage podocytes?

A

a high glucose level in circulation is filtered through podocytes during the filtration process
podocytes get poisoned by high glucose
this leaves gaps in the glomerular membrane, which allows proteins to leak through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to podocytes when exposed to high glucose levels?

A

they get poisoned and can die, break off and come out into the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the glomerular membrane located?

A

at the top of the nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to diabetics as kidney disease gets worse?

A

more and more podocytes die off and aren’t replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens as a result of podocytes dying off?

A

Albuminuria from protein urea in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How often are urine protein amounts measured in diabetic patients?

A

every six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is it an indication of if a diabetic patient’s protein levels start to increase?

A

that some kidney disease is developing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is the PGC calculated?

A

normal body BP + extra pressure from the narrow efferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does PGC measure?

A

the hydrostatic pressure of blood in the glomerular capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does oncotic pressure work?

A
circulatory proteins (mostly albumin) in blood plasma exert oncotic pressure
this displaces water molecules, creating a relative h2o mlc deficit with water molecules moving back into the circulatory system within the lower venous pressure end of capillaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is oncotic pressure higher in the glomerular capillary than in Bowman’s capsule?

A

bc there is lots of albumin which gets left behind and doesn’t get filtered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is the oncotic pressure of the Bowmans capsule almost zero?

A

bc there are hardly any proteins in the top of the nephron bc in healthy people the proteins don’t leak through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the main glomerular pressure?

A

the pressure of the blood coming through when the glomerular capillaries push fluids through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the equation of filtration pressure?

A

(PGC + πBS) – (PBS + πGC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What four factors contribute to filtration pressure?

A

PGC
πBS
PBS
πGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the equation of filtration pressure when oncotic pressure is nearly equal to zero?

A

PGC – (PBS + πGC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the hydrostatic pressure in a nephron?

A

45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the osmotic pressure in a nephron?

A

25 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the hydrostatic pressure in a nephron?

A

10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the net filtration pressure in a nephron?

A

10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the net filtration pressure in a nephron calculated?

A

45 - 25 - 10 = 10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is filtration pressure calculated?

A

(PGC + πBS) – (PBS + πGC)

the bp in the glomerular capillaries minus the two pressures pushing back the other way against it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is normal bp?

A

120 / 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the rate at which filtrate is produced in the kidneys?

A

125 mL/min (180 L/day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens to the GFR and renal blood flow as circulatory bp changes?

A

they stay quite constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens to the GFR and renal blood flow as systemic bp changes?

A

they stay quite constant via autoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Over what range of systemic bps is GFR and renal blood flow under autoregulation?

A

broad range of 90-200 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In what circumstances will the NS in the kidneys be impaired?

A

if the NS (renal nerve) has been removed
isolated perfuse kidneys
in conditions where the renal nerve has been removed / damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the autoregulation of GFR and renal blood flow NOT controlled by and why?

A

the NS bc in kidneys where the NS is impaired / removed, autoregulation still occurs
neuronal or hormonal bc the autoregulation doesn’t respond to any hormones circulating in the blood system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In what circumstances will the NS in the kidneys be impaired?

A

if the NS (renal nerve) has been removed
isolated perfuse kidneys
in conditions where the renal nerve has been removed / damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is the autoregulation of GFR and renal blood flow established in the kidneys?

A

the kidney has a way of adjusting its blood system and the diameter of the renal artery according to the body’s bp to ensure that it keeps getting the same blood flow, even if the body’s bp is changing in a particular way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two hypotheses that explain how the GFR and renal blood flow is autoregulated?

A

Myogenic

Metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the Myogenic hypotheses state?

A

that the autoregulation of GFR and renal blood flow is due to response of renal arterioles to stretch (Frank–Starling law of the heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What happens to the renal artery and efferent arterioles when bp decreases, according to the Myogenic hypotheses?

A

they automatically constrict to maintain a constant renal blood flow and GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does the Metabolic hypotheses state?

A

that afferent & efferent arteriolar contraction / dilation is modulated by renal metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the constant renal blood flow?

A

1200mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the GFR?

A

~125 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are examples of renal metabolites that involved in the Metabolic hypotheses?

A

adenosine, nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the likely way in which the GFR and renal blood flow is autoregulated?

A

Most likely to be a combination of both hypotheses (metabolic & myogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens to the autoregulation of the GFR and renal blood flow below the range of 90-200 mmHg?

A

the system breaks down and renal function declines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens to the autoregulation of the GFR and renal blood flow above the range of 90-200 mmHg?

A

renal function goes out of control and can damage internal renal structures, causing blood loss and damage within the kidney structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What substances is natriuresis is promoted by?

A

ventricular and atrial natriuretic peptides

calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is an example of a substance natriuresis is inhibited by?

A

aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where is atrial natriuretic peptide secreted from?

A

the atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the main function of atrial natriuretic peptide?

A

reduces ECF volume by increasing renal sodium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How do kinins affect the circulatory system?

A

they affect bp pressure (especially low bp)
they increase blood flow throughout the body
they make it easier for fluids to pass through small blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What happens to inflow blood (via the afferent arteriole) when the GFR is low?

A

specific vasodilators are released, the afferent artery dilates
Angiotensin II is released, the efferent artery constricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where is atrial natriuretic peptide secreted from?

A

the atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the main function of atrial natriuretic peptide?

A

reduces ECF volume by increasing renal sodium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How do kinins affect the circulatory system?

A

they affect bp (especially low bp)
they increase blood flow throughout the body
they make it easier for fluids to pass through small blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Afferent arteriole

A

GFR

e.g. due to BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What vasodilators are released when the GFR is low? (PAKD.NO)

A

Prostaglandins, ANP, kinins, dopamine, NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens to outflow blood (via the efferent arteriole) when the GFR is high?

A

specific vasoconstrictors are released, the afferent artery constricts
adenosine & NO are released, the efferent artery dilates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What vasoconstrictors are released when the GFR is high?

A

noradrenaline , endothelin, adenosine (via A1 receptors), ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What receptors are responsible for the release of adenosine as a vasoconstrictor?

A

A1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What nerves are responsible for the release of noradrenaline?

A

the sympathetic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What receptors are responsible for the release of adenosine as a vasodilator?

A

A2A & A2B receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How does a drop in the GFR alter the systemic bp and how is the GFR affected after?

A

AAR, less Na+ enters the proximal tubule
the macula densa senses a change in tubular Na+ levels
stimulates juxtaglomerular cells to release renin into the blood, which makes angiotensinogen, is converted to angiotensin I
goes to the lungs via circulation where ACE is present
gets converted to Ang II
acts as a vasoconstrictor, pushes up the BP, causes filtration pressure to increase
GFR returns to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What causes a drop in GFR?

A

a drop in filtration pressure (e.g. due to declining BP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are juxtaglomerular cells otherwise known as?

A

JG cells

granular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the function of juxtaglomerular cells?

A

to synthesize, store, and secrete renin. They are (and some in the efferent arterioles) that deliver blood to the glomerulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where are juxtaglomerular cells located?

A

in the kidney, mainly in the walls of the afferent arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the effect of a drop in the GFR on the systemic bp?

A

it increases due to Ang II and vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What process is responsible for enacting negative feedback when there is a drop in the GFR?

A

the Renin-Angiotensin System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are features of angiotensin II?

A

is an extremely active, and a very small molecule

is very powerful bc it has lots of effects that increase the bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How does angiotensin II act as a vasoconstrictor?

A

it acts on the symp NS so that the symp nerves release more adr

87
Q

How does Ang II increase reabsorption of Na+ and water in the kidneys?

A

it increases Na+ reabsorption, so more salt re-enters the circulation
this causes water to re-enter the circulation from glomerular filtrate that builds up the circulating volume
this pushes bp up
makes the adrenal gland release aldosterone which also causes Na+ reabsorbtion, etc, further pushes bp up
AAR, the pituitary gland releases AHD, which further encourages reabsorption in the kidneys

Na+ reabsorption < water reabsorption < bp up < aldosterone (adrenal gland) < more reabsorption < ADH (pituitary gland) < more reabsorption

88
Q

What is the effect of angiotensin II on thirst?

A

it works in the brain to increase thirst
results in drinking more fluids, which will enter your circulation and have a long term effect of bringing bp back up towards normal

89
Q

What is the effect of hypertension on the RAAS system?

A

can cause it to become disregulated, overstimulated

90
Q

Why does hypertension overstimulate the RAAS system?

A

bc the sympathetic NS is triggered all over the body and within the kidney, which causes more renin to be released and it kicks off the whole system of generating too much angiotensin

91
Q

What does ARB stand for?

A

angiotensin 2 receptor blockers

92
Q

What are examples of ACE inhibitor drugs that can be used to stop hypertension overstimulating the RAAS system?

A

captopril and enalapril (-pril drugs)

93
Q

What is the role of ACE inhibitor drugs?

A

they inhibit angiotensin converting enzymes in the lungs

94
Q

What are examples of ARB drugs that can be used to stop hypertension overstimulating the RAAS system?

A

sartan drugs like losartan

95
Q

What is the effect of sartan drugs?

A

they act as antagonists on the AT1 receptor - the receptors that Angiotensin 2 works on

96
Q

What is the receptor of Ang II?

A

AT1 receptor

97
Q

What type of drugs are most drug names that end in –pril?

A

ACE inhibitors

98
Q

What groups of drugs are used to stop hypertension from overstimulating the RAAS system?

A
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
kiren drugs
ARB drugs (sartans)
99
Q

How do kiren drugs work?

A

they are renin inhibitors

100
Q

What is an example of a kiren drugs that can be used to stop hypertension overstimulating the RAAS system?

A

aliskiren

101
Q

What is behind the driving force of reabsorption from the proximal tubule?

A

Na+K+ATPase

102
Q

What substances is there almost complete reabsorption of in the PT?

A

glucose, amacs, small amount of filtered Proteins (GAP)

103
Q

What substances is there almost complete reabsorption of in the PT?

A

glucose, amacs, small amount of filtered Proteins (GAP)

104
Q

What is the role of Na+-K+-ATPase?

A

to pump out Na+ from cells into the blood against chemical and electrical gradients

105
Q

What does Na+-K+-ATPase require to work?

A

E - ATP

106
Q

How does Na+-K+-ATPase work?

A

Na+ leaves the cell with Cl- (salt)

K+ enters with ATP

107
Q

What is the ratio of transport of Na:K in and out of the cell via Na+-K+-ATPase?

A

3 Na+ leaves, 2 K+ enters

108
Q

What is the intracellular Na+ concentration in PT cells?

A

less than 30 mM (very low)

109
Q

Why is the intracellular Na+ concentration in PT cells really low?

A

due to the action of the Na+K+ATPase

110
Q

What is the relationship between Na+-K+-ATPase and water movement?

A

Na+ leaves the cell with Cl- (salt) to enter the peritubular capillaries
water likes to follow the salt bc of the high conc of salt outside of the cells, so it gets dragged through aquaporins and makes it more dilute

111
Q

What substances travel through Na+/glucose co-transporters and where to?

A

glucose travels with sodium into the cell

112
Q

What are features of the Na+/glucose co-transporters?

A

it works all the time and is very powerful

113
Q

What is the role of the Na+/glucose co-transporters?

A

to keep the inside of the proximal tubular cell at a low Na+ conc - at less than 30 mM instead of 150 mM around the glomerular filtrate site

114
Q

What happens when the inside of the proximal tubular cell has a lower Na+ conc?

A

all the filtered sodium coming through from the glomerulus wants to enter the cells bc they have a low concentration

115
Q

How does Na in the inside of the proximal tubular cell leave?

A

it is pumped out into the peritubular capillary from the base / the lateral side of the pump

116
Q

How does Na enter the inside of the proximal tubular cell when it has a lower Na+ conc than the glomerular filtrate?

A

via a detraction conc grad

via an electrochemical gradient

117
Q

Why are proximal tubular cells so negative?

A

bc it is packed full of -vely charged transport proteins that also make up the mitochondria

118
Q

What is the overall charge in proximal tubular cells?

A

-70 mV

119
Q

What is the overall charge in glomerular filtrate and why?

A

the overall charge is +ve bc Na+ is a positive ion and there’s lots of it in the glomerular filtrate

120
Q

How does Na enter the proximal tubular cells against its conc grad from the glomerular filtrate via an electrochemical gradient?

A

the prox. tubular cells are -70mV but glomerular filtrate is positive - opposites attract

121
Q

Where are aquaporin channels located?

A

on the apical and basolateral surfaces of the kidney cells

122
Q

What does the movement of solutes (Na+, HCO3-

and Cl-) from glomerular filtrate into the proximal tubular cells achieve?

A

it reduces osmolality of tubular fluid and increases osmolality of interstitial fluid

123
Q

By what routes does the net flow of water from the tubule lumen to lateral spaces occur?

A

transcellular and paracellular routes

124
Q

What are features of the transcellular routes by which water flows from the tubule lumen to lateral spaces?

A

aquaporin channels

125
Q

How is water reabsorbed along the nephron?

A

osmosis / follows Na+

126
Q

How many different types of aquaporins have been identified?

A

thirteen

127
Q

How many different types of aquaporins are present in the kidney?

A

six

128
Q

What are the four major renal types of aquaporins?

A

AQP1, AQP2, AQP3 & AQP4

129
Q

Where are Aquaporin-1s located?

A

they have an abundant distribution in the proximal tubule, and other parts of the tubule where water is reabsorbed, e.g. descending limb of LOH

130
Q

Where are Aquaporin-2s located?

A

in the collecting duct on the apical surface

131
Q

What substance is AQP-2 channel expression controlled by?

A

antidiuretic hormone

according to how dehydrated the person is

132
Q

Where are Aquaporin-3s & 4s located?

A

on the basolateral surface of tubular cells involved in water reabsorption

133
Q

How is glucose reabsorbed into the peritubular capillary?

A

via a glucose transporter

134
Q

Why is there a low concentration of glucose in the peritubular capillary?

A

bc it has been filtered up the glomerulus

135
Q

Once in the peritubular capillary, how does glucose re-enter the blood?

A

via a Na co-transporter

136
Q

What percentage of available glucose is reabsorbed via the SGLT2 cotransporter in S1?

A

90% bc the body needs that glucose

137
Q

What are the two parts of the proximal tubule?

A

the PCT & the proximal straight tubule PST

138
Q

What transporters are responsible for the movement of glucose in Segment 1?

A

SGLT2, cotransports Na+ with glucose into the cell

139
Q

What is S1 otherwise known as?

A

segment 1

the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

140
Q

What is a feature of the SGLT2 cotransporter?

A

a very powerful pump

141
Q

What makes the SGLT2 cotransporter a very powerful pump?

A

it has a low affinity and a high capacity

so it only needs small amounts of Na+ to transport a large amount of glucose

142
Q

What percentage of available glucose is left behind from the SGLT2 cotransporter in S1?

A

10%

143
Q

What happens to the left over glucose (10%) that is not reabsorbed by the SGLT2 cotransporter in S1?

A

it’s caught lower down in Segment 3, which has SGLT1 transporters

144
Q

What is a feature of the SGLT2 cotransporter?

A

high affinity, low capacity

145
Q

Where are the SGLT2 cotransporters located?

A

in Segment 1 / the PCT

146
Q

Where are the SGLT1 cotransporters located?

A

in Segment 3 / the PST

147
Q

What percentage of available glucose is reabsorbed in total?

A

100% bc the body needs that glucose

148
Q

What substances are transported by the SGLT2 cotransporter?

A

Na+ is transported with one glucose

149
Q

How much glucose is excreted in urine in healthy people?

A

very little

150
Q

What happens if a diabetic patient has excessive glucose in their circulation?

A

when undergoing filtering in the proximal tubules, the SGLT transporters will get filled up to their maximum limit for transportation and so will be working at full capacity - their transport maximum
however, often, it is not enough to reabsorb all the glucose that’s being filtered in higher amounts (due to diabetes)

151
Q

What is the normal plasma glucose concentration range in healthy patients?

A

5-10mM (5 or 6mM)

152
Q

What percentage of plasma glucose is reabsorbed up to about 10 mM?

A

100% - almost all

153
Q

How high will the plasma glucose concentration increase to after a sugary meal / drink?

A

up to about 10 mM

154
Q

What is the approximate plasma glucose concentration range in diabetic patients after a sugary meal?

A

20-30 mM

155
Q

What happens when plasma glucose concentration levels reach 20-30 mM after a sugary meal?

A

glucose transportation reaches a limit and discontinues, so glucose starts to appear in urine

156
Q

How do blood urine tests work?

A

a dipstick is used to look at glucose urine levels

157
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed?

A

blood urine tests will pick up any glucose in the patient’s urine

158
Q

What does a blood urine test that does not detect any diabetes in the urine indicate?

A

that the patient is healthy

159
Q

What is the long-term effect of diabetics continually excreting glucose?

A

it will eventually bring the blood glucose levels down, bc if glucose is continually excreted, it will eventually leave the body, having a beneficial effect - hypoglycaemic effect

160
Q

What are examples of drugs used to treat diabetes?

A

biguanides (metformin only)

insulin injections

161
Q

How do the biguanide drugs work?

A

by reducing the production of glucose that occurs during digestion

162
Q

What is the only biguanide currently available in most countries for treating diabetes?

A

Metformin

163
Q

Is Metformin a short or long term treatment of diabetes?

A

it needs to be taken long-term (years)

164
Q

Does metformin have any side-effects?

A

mild and serious side effects, which are the same in men and women

165
Q

What are examples of metformin side-effects?

A
diarrhoea, flatulence
stomach pain, nausea, vomiting
bloating, heartburn
gas
diarrhoea
constipation
weight loss
166
Q

Where does glucose transport / reabsorption occur?

A

in the proximal tubules

167
Q

What is an example of a drug that was previously used to treat diabetes II?

A

phlorizin

168
Q

How does phlorizin work?

A

they accessed / got into the glomerular filtrate and were secreted into the proximal tubule where they would block thee Na/glucose transporters

169
Q

How does phlorizin work?

A

they accessed / got into the glomerular filtrate and were secreted into the proximal tubule where they would block thee Na/glucose transporters in the proximal tubular cells so that this glucose couldn’t be absorbed and would come out in the urine

170
Q

What class of drugs have been developed to treat diabetes II?

A

the flozin drugs

171
Q

What are the three main flozins used in the West to treat diabetes II?

A

Dapagliflozin
Canagliflozin
Empagliflozin (BI-10773)

172
Q

What type of drugs are the flozins?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

173
Q

What is the main flozin used in Japan to treat diabetes II?

A

Empagliflozin

174
Q

How do flozins work?

A

they block the SGLT2 transporters in the kidneys to stop the glucose being reabsorbed so that glucose comes out in the urine and not so much enters the blood (which is the goal)

175
Q

Which developmental diabetes drug was withdrawn/cancelled?

A

sotagliflozin

176
Q

Why was sotagliflozin withdrawn / cancelled?

A

bc it caused liver toxicity in clinical trials

177
Q

Why is having sugary urine potentially dangerous?

A

bc it makes patients more susceptible to UTIs bc bugs

like sugary solutions

178
Q

Why are SGLT2 inhibitors used even though having sugary urine is potentially dangerous?

A

bc the benefits of these drugs seem to outweigh the risk of UTIs
bc any UTIs can be treated with antibiotics and good personal hygiene
bc it’s not normally a problem

179
Q

Why are SGLT2 inhibitors potentially dangerous?

A

bc their aim is to cause sugary urine which can lead to UTIs sometimes
bc it can be misused by healthy people illegally was a way to lose weight

180
Q

What are alternative uses of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

they can be used to lose weight - can be abused, bc if glucose is removed from the system in healthy people, it won’t be converted to fat etc and will result in weight loss

181
Q

Why are SGLT2 inhibitors dangerous to use for weight loss?

A

it leads to hypoglycaemia if used in healthy people or if misused - this can cause real issues of brain glucose loss that can lead to coma

182
Q

Why are SGLT2 inhibitors potentially not very effective independently?

A

bc it elicits an adaptive increase in E intake - e.g. increased appetite

183
Q

Why are SGLT2 inhibitors a very popular treatment for diabetes II internationally?

A

bc they have actually been shown to help diabetic patients avoid diabetic complications in clinical trials, bc they seem to make the patients healthier

184
Q

What are the effects of SGLT2 inhibitors on diabetes II patients in clinical trials?

A

they don’t get as much kidney problems
they don’t get as much eye retinopathy
their CVS profiles are much better

185
Q

What percentage of urea is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule?

A

about 40 - 50%

186
Q

How are amacs transported in and around the proximal tubule?

A

via their independent transport system that involves endocytosis - proteins leak through from the glomerulus, so small amounts of proteins can be reabsorbed

187
Q

How does endocytosis allow for the transportation of amacs?

A

the amacs have contact with the proximal tubular cell surface and enter it
then, as they travel through the proximal tube, they are broken down into amacs, which then are returned to the blood

188
Q

What kinds of substances can’t be filtered at the glomerulus?

A

some endogenous substances and drugs

189
Q

Why can’t some substances be filtered at the glomerulus?

A

bc of their size or protein binding

190
Q

What two alternative specialised pumps are present in the PT?

A

one for organic acids

one for organic bases

191
Q

What are examples of substances that are transported by the organic acid pump in the PT?

A

uric acid, diuretics, antibiotics (penicillin)

192
Q

What are examples of substances that are transported by the organic base pump in the PT?

A

creatinine, procainamide

193
Q

In what areas of the body is OAT1 present? (PEKS.BPTC)

A

placenta, eyes, kidneys, smooth muscles

brain, proximal tubular cells

194
Q

What do the OAT1s control the excretion of?

A

common drugs, toxins, and endogenous metabolites into the urine

195
Q

What is the role of URAT1?

A

a type of OAT located in renal PTCs, where it mediates the re-absorption of uric acid from the PT

196
Q

What is the relationship between Na+ and a-KG?

A

when there is a low Na+ conc, it drags in alpha-ketaglutarate, which then is excreted by OAT pumps, which then drags in organic acid anions

197
Q

What is the use of Para-aminohippurate?

A

a tool to measure tubular secretion

198
Q

How is Para-aminohippurate processed before use?

A

it is IV infused

199
Q

Is Para-aminohippurate produced by the body naturally?

A

no - it’s an endogenous compound

200
Q

How is it that PAH can be used as a marker of tubular secretion?

A

bc it’s not filtered, it’s only secreted into the PT and is transported

201
Q

What is the pathway of Para-aminohippurate after administration?

A

it is transported into PT cells from blood with a-Kg / other di/tri carboxylates
is it then transported out of PT cells in exchange for another anion present in the PT lumen

202
Q

How is it a result on PAH used after administration?

A

after administration, the amount that comes out in the urine is measured

203
Q

What is the main setting where PAH is used?

A

in a clinical setting

204
Q

In what circumstances might PAH be used?

A

when we want to measure how much of a drug is being transported out at the same time
a ratio is made and compared between the ratio for the excretion of the drug to the excretion / secretion of PAH

205
Q

What are examples of endogenous organic acids that are secreted into urine by the PT? (COPP.HHUBs)

A
cAMP	
Oxalate				
Procainamide	
Prostaglandins					
Hippurates (not PAH - synthetic)
Hydrochlorothiazide	
Urate (Uric acid)								
Bile salts
206
Q

What are examples of organic acid drugs that are secreted into urine by the PT? (CABS. FPPP)

A
Chlorothiazide 
Acetozolamide 
Bumetanide 
Salicylate (Aspirin)
Furosemide 
Penicillin
Probencid
PAH
207
Q

What are examples of endogenous organic bases that are secreted into urine by the PT? (ACD,GHNT)

A
Adrenaline (Epinephrine)		
Creatinine, Choline							
Dopamine			
Guanidine	
Histamine			
Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)		
Thiamine
208
Q

What are examples of organic base drugs that are secreted into urine by the PT? (MAP.QICA)

A
Morphine
Atropine
Procainamide
Quinine
Isoproterenol
Cimetidine
Amiloride
209
Q

What is the overexpression of AT1 receptors associated with?

A

risk factors such as hypertension, hypercholesterolae- mia, and diabetes

210
Q

What happens when there’s a drop in the GFR?

A

RAS is activated and is responsible for enacting negative feedback to increase the GFR back to normal levels

211
Q

What substance does angiotensin stimulate the release of?

A

aldosterone

212
Q

From where is aldosterone released?

A

the adrenal cortex

213
Q

Why does angiotensin stimulate aldosterone release?

A

to promote sodium retention by the kidneys