M1, S1, C4 - Control Of Traffic

Question 1

A controlled flight shall be under the control of…

Answer 1

…only one ATCU at any given time

Question 2

An ATC clearance authorises an aircraft to…

Answer 2

…proceed under conditions specified. Y an ATCU.

Clearances are based solely on known traffic conditions and are required for any flight, or portion of a flight, which is provided with an air traffic control service.

Such traffic conditions include not only aircraft in the air and on the manoeuvring area over which control is being exercised, but also any vehicular traffic or other obstructions not permanently installed on the manoeuvring area in use.

Question 3

A pilot requests a clearance by submitting…

Answer 3

…a flight plan.

The clearance can be issued directly to the aircraft or through an approved agency, such as another ATSU.

The pilot shall inform ATC if an air traffic control clearance is not satisfactory, and in such cases, controllers will issue an a,ended clearance, if practicable.

Question 4

Clearances do not constitute authority to…

Answer 4

…violate any regulation established by the DfT, CAA, or other appropriate authority for promoting safety of flight operation or for any other purpose.

Controllers should not issue clearances which imply permission to breach regulations.

This is especially relevant in respect of the low flying rules.

Question 5

Where data link communications are used to facilitate clearance delivery…

Answer 5

…2-way voice comms between the pilot and the ATCU providing the clearance should be available.

Unless specified in MATS 2, voice read-back of data link messages shall not be required.

Question 6

ATC clearances shall include:

Answer 6

1) aircraft ID as shown on the flight plan
2) clearance limit
3) route, where prescribed in MATS 2
4) levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required
5) any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance

Note: where an airborne joining clearance to enter CAS is provided, the joining level assigned is considered acceptable with respect to the level content of a clearance

Note: the time of expiry of the clearance indicates the time after which the clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced

Question 7

A clearance limit is…

Answer 7

…the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified by naming:

1) an aerodrome

2) a reporting point
or
3) a controlled or advisory airspace boundary

Question 8

An aircraft shall be cleared for the entire route to the aerodrome of first intended landing when:

Answer 8

1) it has planned to remain within controlled or advisory airspace throughout the flight

and

2) there is reasonable assurance that prior co-ordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the aircraft

The clearance limit for all other flights shall be the boundary of controlled or advisory airspace.

Question 9

If the clearance for the levels covers only part of the route…

Answer 9

…it is important to specify that part to enable the pilot to comply with RTF procedures

Question 10

The CAA may issue special instructions concerning…

Answer 10

…the clearance of inbound aircraft to certain aerodromes.

Question 11

Conditional clearances are to be given in the following order and are to comprise:

Answer 11

1) callsign of the aircraft or vehicle being given the clearance
2) the condition eg behind
3) identification of the subject of the condition eg aircraft, reporting point, level etc

4) the clearance
and
5) a brief reiteration of the condition

Standard phraseology should be used.

Question 12

Every endeavour shall be made to clear aircraft according to…

Answer 12

…the route requested.

If this is not possible the controller shall explain the reason when issuing the clearance.

Question 13

The expression “cleared flight plan route”…

Answer 13

…is not to be used for re-clearances.

Question 14

If a pilot requests, or a controller offers, a direct routing then the controller must…

Answer 14

…inform the pilot if this direct routing will take the aircraft outside the lateral or vertical boundaries of controlled or advisory airspace.

The pilot will then decide whether to accept or decline the new route.

Question 15

When traffic conditions do not permit clearance of a pilot’s requested change in route, controllers shall…

Answer 15

…use the word “unable” in RT phraseology

Question 16

Following the introduction of area nav requirements (RNAV), aircraft wishing to operate within the specified airspace must be…

Answer 16

…appropriately equipped.

If the aircraft is unable to comply with the RNAV requirements then the pilot will advise the ATSU on initial contact using the phrase “negative RNAV”.

Aerodrome ATSUs must advise the relevant ACC and, unless automotive message transfer facilities exist, the phrase “negative RNAV” must be added to the end of estimate and co-ordination messages.

Question 17

Normally, the cruising level requested in the FPL is to be allocated.

If the FPL level is not available…

Answer 17

…the nearest appropriate vacant level is to be allocated.

Question 18

When 2 or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, the preceding aircraft shall…

Answer 18

…normally have priority.

Question 19

An aircraft at a cruising level shall normally have priority over…

Answer 19

…other aircraft requesting that level.

Question 20

When traffic conditions do not permit clearance of a pilot’s requested change in level, controllers shall…

Answer 20

…use the word “unable” in RT phraseology and offer an alternative level.

Question 21

FL195 must not be…

Answer 21

…allocated as a cruising level.

Question 22

Cruising levels normally assigned on airways and upper ATS routes are contained in…

Answer 22

…the U.K. AIP.

However, other levels may be allocated according to MATS 2.

Question 23

Above FL195 in Class C airspace…

Answer 23

….the semi-circular rule shall apply.

Flight levels 200, 220, 240, 260 and 280 shall be westbound.

Flight levels 210, 230, 250, and 270 shall be eastbound.

Question 24

Cruising levels at or above FL290, up to FL410 within RVSM airspace shall be selected according to the table below:

Answer 24

RVSM LEVELS:

Westbound: FL300, FL320 FL340, FL360, FL380, FL400

Eastbound: FL290, FL310, FL330, FL350, FL370, FL390, FL410

CVSM LEVELS:

Westbound: FL310, FL350, FL390

Eastbound: FL290, FL330, FL370, FL410

Question 25

Cruising levels at or above FL410 up to FL660 shall be selected according to the semi-circular rule, therefore, flight levels available are:

Answer 25

1) Eastbound FL410, FL450, FL490 etc

2) Westbound FL430, FL470, FL510 etc

Question 26

In the provision of services to IFR aircraft outside CAS and below FL195, cruising levels shall be assigned according to the semi circular rule.

However, this may not be possible when aircraft are:

Answer 26

1) in receipt of a DS and being provided with vertical and/or lateral deconfliction advice
2) allocated levels to join, cross or leave CAS
3) being held in flight
4) provided with level and/or heading allocations for positioning and sequencing
5) within certain areas specified by the CAA

Question 27

When an amendment is made to a clearance, the new clearance shall be…

Answer 27

…read in full to the pilot and shall automatically cancel any previous clearance.

Controllers must be aware, therefore, that if the original clearance included a restriction, eg cross ABC FL150 or below, then the issue of a revised clearance automatically cancels the earlier restriction, unless it is reiterated with the revised clearance.

Question 28

Care must be exercised when a controller issues a clearance, which amended the vertical profile of an aircraft on…

Answer 28

…a SID.

For example, climb now FL120, automatically cancels the vertical profile of the SID.

If the profile contains a restriction that provides vertical separation from conflicting traffic on another SID, the restriction must be reiterated. Eg climb now FL129, cross XYZ 5000ft or above, unless separation is ensured by other means.

Question 29

When controllers issue instructions which amend the SID route…

Answer 29

…they are to confirm the level profile to be followed

eg fly heading 065, climb now FL80

or

Route direct EFG, stop climb at altitude 5000ft

Question 30

The aerodrome operator and certain other persons are empowered to prohibit flight and they may instruct controllers to…

Answer 30

…withhold a clearance.

A list of the personnel authorised under civil aviation legislation and the procedures to be adopted when detaining an aircraft appear in unit instructions.

Question 31

If a controller is instructed to withhold take off clearance, he should…

Answer 31

…take reasonable steps to establish the authenticity and powers of the person giving the instruction.

Question 32

A controller shall withhold clearance to take off when it is known…

Answer 32

…that an aircraft has been detained by a police or HM customs officer

Question 33

If a controller had not been instructed to withhold clearance but he has reason to believe that a planned flight is liable to endanger life or involve a breach of legislation, he is to:

Answer 33

1) warn the pilot of the hazardous condition or apparent infringement and obtain an acknowledgment of the message
2) in the case of an infringement of legislation, warn the pilot that if he does take off the facts will be reported to the appropriate authority
3) if the pilot still requests take off clearance after acknowledging the warning he should be advised, when traffic permits, that there are no traffic reasons to restrict take off
4) record the warning and any comment made by the pilot in the ATC watch log

Question 34

Because of possible legal action when pilots disregard warnings or when aircraft which have been detained depart without clearance, it is essential that…

Answer 34

…clear and precise messages are passed to the pilots concerned and acknowledgements obtained.

The recommended phraseology appears in CAP413.

Further transmission may be necessary to ascertain the intentions of the pilot.

Question 35

The use of certain civil aerodromes is subject to prior permission of the licensees.

This classification is a matter for…

Answer 35

…the pilot of an aircraft and the appropriate aerodrome operator and normally of no concern to ATC.

In no circumstances is either an ATC clearance or permission to take off to be withheld solely because the pilot has not obtained prior permission to proceed to his destination aerodrome.

Question 36

Information that an aerodrome abroad is closed is to be relayed by…

Answer 36

…RT to any aircraft in flight bound for that aerodrome.

Action may be limited to aircraft which have departed less than 30 mins after the message has been received.

A controller has no authority to withhold take off clearance because the intended destination is closed.

Question 37

Pertinent air traffic data is normally displayed on…

Answer 37

…flight progress strips.

Instructions for marking hand written strips appear in Appendix D.

Procedures for data display methods are described in MATS 2.

Question 38

Normally requests for clearances shall be dealt with in the order…

Answer 38

…in which they are received and issued according to the traffic situation.

However, certain flights are given priority over others and the following table shows the categorisation.

Question 39

When 2 or more flights of different categories request clearance…

Answer 39

…the flight with the highest category shall be dealt with first.

Flow control procedures are implemented and actions by the Central Flow Management Unit. A flow control priority will be allocated automatically on receipt of a flight plan.

Question 40

Once in possession of the estimated delay for an approach, a pilot will determine…

Answer 40

…whether or not he can continue to the aerodrome or divert to a suitable alternative aerodrome.

Question 41

A pilots declaration of MINIMUM FUEL indicates that…

Answer 41

…no further fuel diversion options are available where the aircraft is committed to land at the pilots nominated aerodrome of landing with not less than ‘final reserve fuel’.

However, MINIMUM FUEL RT phraseology is not universally used by every aircraft operator and pilot.

Question 42

Final reserve fuel is typically…

Answer 42

…fuel for 30 mins of flight for turbine powered aircraft or 45 mins for piston powered aircraft.

Question 43

Controllers are not required to provide priority to…

Answer 43

…pilots of aircraft that have declared MINIMUM FUEL or that have indicated that they are becoming short of fuel.

Question 44

Controllers shall respond to a pilot’s declaration of MINIMUM FUEL by…

Answer 44

…confirming the estimated delay he can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or no delay, when the pilot is en route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold; or be expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown of the aircraft is being vectored to an approach.

Question 45

At locations where EATs are not issued until the amount of delay reaches a particular value…

Answer 45

…controllers must provide a general indication of the delay, based on the best information available at that time.

Question 46

Once in possession of either the estimated delay or remaining track mileage, the pilot will determine…

Answer 46

…whether or not he can continue to the aerodrome with or without declaring a fuel emergency.

Controllers shall keep pilots informed of any increase in delay or increase in track mileage after the pilots initial declaration of MINIMUM FUEL following which the controller can expect the pilot to declare an emergency.

Question 47

Controllers shall respond to a pilot who has indicated that he is becoming short of fuel but has not declared MINIMUM FUEL by…

Answer 47

…confirming the estimated delay he can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or no delay, when the pilot is en route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold; or by expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown if the aircraft is being vectored to an approach; then ask the pilot if he wishes to declare an emergency.

Question 48

Pilots declaring an emergency should use the following RT phraseology:

Answer 48

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY
Or
MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL

And controllers shall provide such aircraft with flight priority category A

Question 49

Pilots who allude to medical emergencies on board eg a sick pax, but who do not formally declare an emergency or indicate that the person on board is seriously ill, shall be asked…

Answer 49

…to confirm that they are declaring an emergency.

In the absence of such a declaration, controllers are not required to give priority to the flight.

Question 50

Controllers shall give priority to aircraft according to Flight priority category listed below, where Cat A is the highest priority and Cat Z is the lowest priority:

Answer 50

A…

…aircraft in emergency (eg engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill pax)
…aircraft which have declared a police emergency
…ambulance/medical acft when the safety of life is involved

B…

…flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons
…post accident flight checks
…other flights, including open skies flights, authorised by the CAA
…police flights under normal operational priority

C…

…royal flights, flights carrying visiting heads of state (which have been notified by NOTAM/Temporary supplement)

D…

…flights notified by the CAA carrying heads of government or very senior government ministers

E…

…flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights
…other flights authorised by the CAA

Normal Flights…

…flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures
…initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA flight examining unit (callsign EXAM)

Z…

…training, non-standard and other flights

The category of flight should be marked in Box M of the FPS showing a letter in a circle.

It should be noted that these categories are designed for use as a method of tactical handling by ATC and not as flow control priorities.

A list of status indicators to be inserted in field 18 of the flight plan, associated with flow control priorities, can be found in the U.K. AIP.

Question 51

For flights within controlled room advisory airspace, a current flight plan, estimate and control information shall be passed to…

Answer 51

…the receiving ACC, sector or unit in sufficient time to permit analysis prior to any coordination

Question 52

Details of flights passing from one UK FIR to another and not operating within controlled or advisory airspace but which have passed an estimate for the FIR boundary or adjacent reporting point are to be…

Answer 52

…passed to the appropriate ACC whenever workload and comms permit

Question 53

The estimate message shall contain the following information about an intended flight:

Answer 53

1) direction of flight (eastbound or westbound)
2) aircraft ID and type
3) squawk
4) transfer point and ETA
5) level
6) true airspeed
7) route
8) destination and/or clearance limit

Revisions to the estimate must be passed if:

1) there are any subsequent changes in FL, square or route
or
2) the estimated time varies by in excess of 2 minutes

Question 54

Transfer of control is achieved when…

Answer 54

…a flight which is operating IAW the co-ordination, has reached the position or level agreed between the transferring and accepting units

Question 55

Transfer of control normally takes place:

Answer 55

1) at an agreed reporting point
2) on an estimate for an FIR boundary

3) at or passing an agreed level
or
4) while the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level, provided that the transferring controller has ensured that standard separation will exist between the transferred aircraft and all others for the remainder of the climb or descent

Question 56

The phrase ‘continue as cleared’ is…

Answer 56

…not to be used in response to an initial call from an aircraft.

Question 57

Transfer of control must not be confused with…

Answer 57

…transfer of communication.

Transfer of communication may be permitted so that instructions, which become effective later, can be issued.

It is emphasised that an excepting ATCU which is in communication with an aircraft not having yet reached the stage of transfer of control shall not alter the clearance without the approval of the transferring unit.

Question 58

EAT is…

Answer 58

…the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing.

The actual time of leaving the holding fix will depend upon the approach clearance.

Question 59

EATs are based on the…

Answer 59

…landing rate and are calculated according to the traffic situation.

They are to be expressed as actual times (not as time intervals) and revised if the situation changes.

They are to be passed to aircraft well in advance and revised until the aircraft has left the holding facility.

Question 60

If, for reasons other than weather eg an obstruction on the runway, the extent of the delay is not known…

Answer 60

…aircraft are to be advised ‘delay not determined’.

As soon as it is possible for aircraft to re-commence approach procedures, EATs are to be issued.

Question 61

The expression ‘delay not determined’ is not to be used…

Answer 61

…when changing runways

Question 62

Delays can be forecast with reasonable accuracy and…

Answer 62

…EATs are to be passed to aircraft

Question 63

If aircraft elect to hold for the weather to improve at the landing aerodrome, the controller shall inform…

Answer 63

…the first aircraft entering the holding pattern “no traffic delay expected”.

Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”

Question 64

When flow management is in force and an airways clearance contains a CTOT, the controller at the aerodrome is to…

Answer 64

…arrange the traffic so that the aircraft departs within the tolerance specified in MATS 2, which must comply with the Common Rules on ATFM.

Question 65

Formations are to be considered as…

Answer 65

…a single unit for separation/deconfliction purposes provided that the formation remains within the following parameters:

Class A/C/D and IFR Class E:

Military: 1nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader

Civilian: 0.5nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader

Or for all aircraft:

as agreed following prior tactical negotiation between appropriate civil and military supervisors

or

as detailed in an airspace do-ordination notice (ACN) specific to the formation flight

Class F/G and VFR in a Class E:

Military: 1nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader

Civilian: 0.5nm laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the leader

Or for all aircraft:

subject to tactical ATC approval, 3nm laterally and longitudinally and/or up to 1000ft vertically
or
as detailed in an ACN specific to the formation flight

Question 66

The callsign of the formation leader and the number of aircraft will be shown on…

Answer 66

…flight plans.

In making initial contact with the ATCU , formation leaders should clearly state the number of aircraft in the formation; controllers are to ensure that this info is obtained prior to establishing an ATS.

Question 67

Units with SSR should allocate formations a discrete code to the lead aircraft…

Answer 67

…all other aircraft should normally be instructed to squawk standby.

However, if the stream extends for 3nm or more, the last aircraft should also be allocated the same code.

For longer streams, the code should be allocated to intermediate aircraft as appropriate.

Question 68

All ATC instructions and clearances shall be addressed to the formation leader.

The formation leader is responsible for…

Answer 68

…ensuring safe separation between aircraft comprising the formation; for military aircraft this is known as ‘Military accepts responsibility for separation of aircraft’ or MARSA.

Question 69

During all co-ordination, TI and handover messages, controllers shall:

Answer 69

1) clearly state the number of aircraft in a formation

2) identify the full extent of any formation of more than 1nm in length

Question 70

Civilian VFR transit, arrival and departure formation flights may take place in CTA/CTR/TMA without NSF approval, subject to the…

Answer 70

…normal airspace entry requirements, the general requirements and procedures above, and the additional CAS procedures specified below.

All other civilian formation flights within such airspace, including SVFR, are subject to NSF approval as detailed in U.K. AIP ENR 1.1.4.

In considering such advance NSF requests, unit operations departments or ATC supervisors should assess the impact of the requested routing and formation flight rules on the control take and airspace in question, also taking into account the current and forecast met conditions.

Question 71

Formation flights by military aircraft may take place…

Answer 71

…in CAS without NSF approval subject to the normal airspace entry requirements, the general requirements and procedures above, and the additional CAS procedures specified below.

Question 72

Formations are to be considered non…

Answer 72

…NON RVSM compliant irrespective of the RVSM status of the individual aircraft types.

Question 73

All aircraft in the formation will…

Answer 73

…monitor the relevant ATC frequency

Question 74

Prior to a formation entering CAS, controllers are to obtain…

Answer 74

…confirmation on RT that all aircraft in the formation are within the parameters as specified at paragraph 15A.

In the event that formation leaders report that they are outside these parameters, controllers shall instruct the formation to remain clear of CAS and establish their intentions.

Question 75

When a formation has been cleared to climb or descend in CAS, controllers are to obtain…

Answer 75

…confirmation that all elements of the formation have vacated the level in question before ATC re-allocate the previously assigned level.

Formation leaders should confirm when all formation elements have reached the new assigned level.

Question 76

The formation leader will immediately inform ATC if…

Answer 76

…the for,action elements are unable to maintain within the required parameters as specified at 15A.1.

In such circumstances, controllers shall establish the extent of the formation so that instructions and/or information appropriate to the airspace classification and flight rules of the formation can be provided.

Where necessary, additional discrete SSR codes should be allocated to individual aircraft.

Question 77

For IFR formations that are unable to maintain within the required parameters…

Answer 77

…the formation leader remains responsible for separation between aircraft comprising the formation until standard separation has been achieved between individual aircraft and each aircraft has been identified and placed under service.

Additionally, controllers shall:

1) provide other IFR traffic with essential traffic information and instructions as necessary
2) if practicable, establish standard separation minima between all aircraft in the formation ASAP, using ATS surveillance systems if available.

If normal separation minima cannot be established, the aircraft shall be given as much separation from each other as possible and the formation given directions to enable it to leave CAS by the shortest possible route.

Question 78

Civilian controllers shall only permit an IFR formation under their direct control to join up in CAS when…

Answer 78

…one of the aircraft is in emergency and a formation join up is essential.

Military controllers have specific procedures for formation join up in CAS that take due consideration of the formation’s proximity to UARs and other airspace users.

Question 79

Military formation flights within CAS are normally conducted as…

Answer 79

…OAT.

However there may be occasions when formations flight plan as GAT and receive a service from civil controllers.

Question 80

Military procedures require an aircraft in an emergency that needs to break away from a formation to…

Answer 80

…squawk the emergency special purpose code.

It is usual practice for a military aircraft in an emergency to be followed by another element of the formation.

In this circumstance, the aircraft suffering the emergency will be instructed to squawk the emergency special purpose code.

If an accompanying aircraft is not already in close formation with the emergency aircraft, it will be instructed to squawk a discrete code until it has joined formation with the emergency aircraft.

Where the lead aircraft in a formation is the aircraft in an emergency, the formation will advise ATC of the new leader, who must then be identified and allocated a discrete squawk.

Question 81

Standard U.K. military callsign procedures apply to U.K. formations.

In instances where there is any doubt, such as when working USAF or foreign aircraft whose callsign procedures may be different…

Answer 81

…the suffix ‘Flight’ or ‘Formation’ is to be used to indicate on RT and landline that the call refers to a formation.

BLACKCAT - a UK formation

BLACKCAT1 - a single UK element

DEADLY31 Flight - a USAF formation

DEADLY31 - a USAF singleton

Question 82

A controller is not to dissuade a pilot from…

Answer 82

…climbing his aircraft upon receipt of a GPWS warning.

The message should be acknowledged and the appropriate pressure setting passed for confirmation (QFE, QNH or RPS).

The controller is to restore any eroded separation as quickly as possible.

Question 83

CAA Airspace Regulation (AR) will notify ATCUs in advance that a particular flight has been allocated…

Answer 83

…Nom-deviating status (NDS).

Queries should be addressed to AR. Details in Appendix H.

Aircraft, both military and civil, which have been allocated this status have an operational requirement to maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route and level(s).

It is imperative that a NDS aircraft is not moved from its pre-planned flight path because this could render it operationally ineffective.

If, for any reason, it is anticipated that adequate separation cannot be maintained between other aircraft and the NDS flight, controllers are to seek co-ordination with the agency providing the service to the NDS aircraft.

Question 84

Unusual aerial activity (UAA) is a generic term which, in its ATC context, includes the following:

Answer 84

1) A concentration of aircraft that is significantly greater than normal
2) activities that may require the issue of a permission or an exemption from the ANO or rules of the air regulations
3) air shows, displays, air races or other competitions
4) activities which require the establishment of a temporary ATSU

Question 85

Controllers may become involved in arrangements for UAAs, which can take place in any class of airspace.

Approval and clearance for a UAA within CAS rests with…

Answer 85

…the relevant airspace controlling authority.

However, many IAAs, whether in or outside CAS, involve AR in co-ordination with the sponsor and other participants and require notification of the event to the aviation community.

Question 86

Early warning of all UAAs is essential if co-ordination and notification is to be completed in good time by AR.

Notice requirements and the responsibilities of sponsors of UAAs are described in the U.K. AIP and AICs.

AR notifies…

Answer 86

…affected ATCUs of airspace reservations or temporary procedures, which have been agreed with participating agencies by means of NOTAM and airspace co-ordination notices.

This initial dissemination may be supplemented by, or transferred to, Temporary Operating Instructions or other locally produced briefing material.

Question 87

AR is responsible for the allocation of…

Answer 87

…GAT flight priorities and NDS in addition to co-ordinating CAS-T requirements, VVIP/special/calibration flights, air to air refuelling, I lit art deployments and exercises.

Question 88

Some CAS is notified for the purposes of Article 163(5) of the ANO 2009 and for flights by…

Answer 88

…unmanned free balloons (eg met balloons etc) in this airspace, written permission from the CAA is required.

Question 89

Pilots of controlled balloon flights are required to comply with…

Answer 89

…the same rules that apply to other aircraft and subject to normal clearances.

In practice balloons are only able to comply with instructions from an ATCU for changes in level.

It is anticipated, although not mandatory, that clearance would be sought prior to take off and would only rarely be issued for flights in busy airspace.

The minimum in-flight weather conditions by day are those required for VFR in the relevant class of airspace.

Balloon flights are not permitted in Class A airspace.

Question 90

Controllers are reminded that, subject to the provisions of MATS 1, Section 1, Chapter 4, they should take into account the…

Answer 90

…present and expected traffic situation when considering requests for flight and should not hesitate to refuse a clearance if other traffic is likely to be compromised.

It is unlikely that balloons will be operating in wind speeds of greater than 15kt.

Question 91

The term sailplane (gliders) can refer to…

Answer 91

…conventional or powered sailplanes or gliders, hang gliders and paragliders and other comparable aircraft.

Sailplanes are supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and do not depend on an engine for free flight.

Question 92

There are 3 main types of lift used by sailplanes:

Answer 92

1) thermal lift caused by a column of rising air
2) ride (orographic) lift caused by rising air on the windward side of a slope or ridge
3) wave lift caused by oscillations to the Lee side of high ground resulting from the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high ground

Question 93

Generally, sailplane flying utilising lift from thermals and ridges involves…

Answer 93

…deviations of up to 30deg around a straight line route in order to maximise the chances of finding lift and avoiding sink.

Depending on the met conditions, sailplanes can experience rapid changes in the vertical plane.

Thermalling sailplanes will, typically, circle in a thermal over an area abut 0.5nm wide.

The surveillance returns, of any, may be intermittent and if apparent may appear stationary or with a downwind drift.

Flights by paragliders and hang gliders will, except when ridge soaring, fly with the prevailing wind and flights of over 4h and in excess of 100nm are flown.

Conventional fixed wing sailplanes have better performance and frequently plan long cross country flights in excess of 300nm and fly at speeds between 60kt and 130kt.

Typically, sailplane flying involves periods of straight line flight followed by periods of gaining height

Question 94

It is likely that most requests for clearance will come from…

Answer 94

…radio equipped, conventional sailplanes using thermals for cross country flying, either to cross or transit CAS, or to exploit a source of thermal lift inside CAS.

In crossing or transiting CAS, controllers should anticipate that the sailplanes flight path is likely to deviate around the straight line route by approx 30deg or 2nm to take advantage of lift and avoid sink and altitude may vary significantly.

Where a sailplane pilot seeks to exploit a source of thermal lift, they will request to ‘thermal’ in a specific location.

Question 95

Controllers should be aware that a sailplanes heading and track can…

Answer 95

…differ markedly by tens of degrees due to wind and that, due to the limitations of the magnetic compass typically used on sailplanes, the pilot will tend to be aware of, and navigate by, track rather than heading.

Typically, the magnetic compass in a sailplanes is useful only in making the pilot aware of the cardinal direction of flight, rather than a specific magnetic heading.

Question 96

Controllers must decide whether the sailplane operation is compatible with…

Answer 96

…the traffic situation prevailing at the time and ,at consider constraining the sailplanes flight laterally through features detailed on the 1:500,000 chart, eg instructing the pilot to route west of a particular village, or no closer than a set distance from the aerodrome, or by specifying a track to follow.

If it is not possible to issue a clearance immediately, the pilot must be advised when the clearance is likely to be granted.

Question 97

When it is considered necessary to identify a sailplane…

Answer 97

…controllers are to avoid the use of the turn method, and use SSR or ADS-B where approved and the aircraft carries appropriate equipment.

Question 98

As a general guide to performance, the following are typical height losses against track mileage flown for various types of gliders which are not influenced by thermals and topography:

Answer 98

Paragliders: 1000ft loss for every 1.5 miles

Hang glider: 1000ft loss for ever 2 miles

Standard class glider: 1500ft loss for every 10 miles

Open class glider: 1000ft loss for every 10 miles

Question 99

Further details of the handling of gliders operating VFR in Class D and their integration with other VFR and IFR traffic are outlined in:

Answer 99

Section 1, Chapter 5.

The same chapter provides information on letters of agreement between ATCUs and other airspace users, including gliding operations.

Details of glider operations in TRAs are detailed in Section 4.

Question 100

A police flight is defined as a flight by an aircraft operating under a police air operators certificate, the purpose of which is to facilitate police operations, where immediate and rapid transportation is essential, which includes the following:

Answer 100

1) responding to a ‘police emergency’. The pilot of a police aircraft is likely to declare a ‘police emergency’ in situations where an immediate response is required when life is at immediate risk, or a serious crime or major incident is in progress
2) supporting ground personnel in often sensitive and serious operations
3) non-standard and other flights

Question 101

The flight categories relevant to police flying operations are:

Answer 101

1) flight category A; authorised for use by aircraft which have declared a police emergency
2) Flight category B; normal operational priority. The operation will not wish to draw attention to itself. The pilot will expect controllers to suggest a new altitude or minor changes to the police flight operating area in the event that the flight would cause a delay to other traffic
3) Flight category Z; authorised for training, test and other flights involving police aircraft

Question 102

The callsign for a police flight consists of 3 elements:

Answer 102

1) the RT callsign POLICE. The ICAO three letter designator is UKP
2) A 2 digit individual aircraft identified. Exceptionally, sequential 3 digit identifiers will be allocated to units operating 2 or more aircraft.

These will consist of a 2 digit individual aircraft identified based root, followed by single digits to reflect the number of aircraft in a regional operation.

3j when on an operational flight, the 2 or 3 digit identifier is to be suffixed with the Flight category letter, either A or B as appropriate, to highlight to the ATS provider the priority status requested by the pilot eg POLICE10A. Flight Cat Z is not used as a callsign suffix.

Question 103

Police aircraft will select either Mode A….

Answer 103

…0032 or other such SSR codes assigned to the police and promulgated in AIP unless receiving a service from an ATSU which require a different setting to be assigned IAW their unit SSR allocation plan.

Question 104

Certain police aviation operations may warrant…

Answer 104

…special ATC coordination or handling procedures, in which case aircraft operators may consider the need for a SFN.

Question 105

HEMS flights operate to incidents where an immediate response is required for the safety of life eg road traffic accidents, and includes transporting patients to hospital.

The flight categories relevant to HEMS ops are:

Answer 105

1) Cat A: applies to all HEMS flights on emergency operational tasks
2) Cat E: is authorised for use by an aircraft positioning for the purpose of conducting HEMS duties eg RTB after delivering a casualty to hospital.

It is afforded priority over normal flights.

3) Cat Z: authorised for training, test and other flights involving HEMS aircraft

Question 106

The callsign for a HEMS flight consists of 3 elements:

Answer 106

1) the RT callsign HELIMED. The ICAO three letter designator is HLE
2) A 2 digit individual aircraft identifier allocated to each HEMS aircraft.
3) when on a flight that is afforded priority, the 2 digit identifier is to be suffixed with the Flight category letter, either A or BE as appropriate, to highlight to the ATS provider the priority status requested by the pilot eg HELIMED10A. Flight Cat Z is not used as a callsign suffix.

On routine operational tasks, training or other flights, no suffix letter will be appended eg HELIMED01

Question 107

A mareva injunction (variously known also as a freezing order, mareva order or mareva regime) is…

Answer 107

…a court order, which prevents a defendant from removing assets from the U.K. and, thus, from the jurisdiction of the court.

ATS providers and their personnel may be notified of Mareva injunctions imposed on specific aircraft.

Although an injunction is most likely to be served at the aerodrome where the aircraft is located, it is possible that an injunction could also be notified to an ATSU in relation to an aircraft in flight.

Question 108

Mareva injunctions relating to aircraft are likely to specify the…

Answer 108

…aircraft registration rather than a particular callsign.

Upon receipt of such a mareva injunction, ATS providers should establish whether they are in communication with the aircraft in question.

Question 109

Where an aircraft subject to a mareva injunction is being provided with an ATS, controllers should inform the pilot:

Answer 109

You are subject to a court order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom. What are your intentions?

This procedure is to be applied irrespective of whether the aircraft is conducting an internal U.K. or an international flight.

Question 110

Mareva injunction: Controllers must not take any actions that would be…

Answer 110

…detrimental to flight safety; consequently, ATS should continue to be provided as normal, even in the event that the pilot continues his flight.

It should be noted that Mareva injunctions are relevant to international flight and that aircraft subject to such an injunction could be flying legitimately on an internal flight with no intention of leaving the UK territorial boundaries.

Question 111

ATS providers should promulgate, as considered necessary, local procedures dealing with the circumstances of a mareva injunction being served.

In developing such local procedures…

Answer 111

…ATS providers should also consider taking legal advice as required in order to ensure that the procedures are consistent with legal obligations in relation to the injunction.